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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man comes in with a 2-hour history of left-sided weakness and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with a 2-hour history of left-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. A CT scan has ruled out a primary intracerebral hemorrhage, and he is being prepared for thrombolysis. According to the current NICE guidelines, which thrombolytic agent is recommended for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke?

      Your Answer: Alteplase

      Explanation:

      According to the current guidelines from NICE, alteplase is recommended as a thrombolysis treatment for acute ischaemic stroke. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over the age of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after falling at the park. She has a bruise and a small scrape on her right knee and is walking with a slight limp, but she can put weight on her leg. Her pain is evaluated using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'mild discomfort'.
      According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended for managing mild discomfort in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Oral paracetamol 5 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen 10 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department due to a worsening of their symptoms. Your consultant administers an initial dose of intravenous aminophylline, and the patient's symptoms start to improve. The consultant requests that you obtain a blood sample to measure the patient's theophylline levels after an appropriate duration of treatment.
      How much time should elapse before obtaining the blood sample following the initiation of this treatment?

      Your Answer: 4-6 hours

      Explanation:

      In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.

      To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      109.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a syncopal episode. The patient reports several weeks of generalized weakness, muscle aches, and feeling dizzy when standing which has been gradually worsening. On examination, you note pigmented areas on the lips, tongue, and gums with patches of vitiligo around the hands and wrists. Observation and blood test results are shown below:

      Hb 132 g/l
      Platelets 124 * 109/l
      WBC 8.0 * 109/l
      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 µmol/l
      Glucose 3.1 mmol/l

      Blood pressure 94/56 mmHg
      Pulse 102 bpm
      Respirations 18 bpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms over several weeks, although it can sometimes occur suddenly. The diagnosis of Addison’s disease can be challenging as its symptoms, such as fatigue, muscle pain, weight loss, and nausea, are non-specific. However, a key feature is low blood pressure. The disease is associated with changes in pigmentation, ranging from increased pigmentation due to elevated ACTH levels to the development of vitiligo caused by the autoimmune destruction of melanocytes.

      Patients with Addison’s disease often exhibit hyponatremia (low sodium levels) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). If the patient is dehydrated, this may be reflected in elevated urea and creatinine levels. While hypercalcemia (high calcium levels) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar levels) can occur in Addison’s disease, they are less common than hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

      In contrast, diabetes insipidus, characterized by normal or elevated sodium levels, does not cause pigmentation changes. Cushing’s syndrome, which results from excess steroid production, is almost the opposite of Addison’s disease, with hypertension (high blood pressure) and hypokalemia (low potassium levels) being typical symptoms. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with episodes of high blood pressure and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body of his left testis. Upon examination, the lump is firm, located within the testis, and does not show transillumination.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Testicular cancer

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is the most common form of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 34. In recent times, there have been campaigns aimed at raising awareness about the importance of self-examination for early detection. Some risk factors for this type of cancer include having undescended testes, especially if it affects both testicles, which increases the risk by ten times. Additionally, individuals who have had testicular cancer in the past have a 4% chance of developing a second cancer.

      The typical presentation of testicular cancer is a painless swelling in the testicles. When examined, the swelling feels hard and is located within the testis. It cannot be illuminated when light is shone through it. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and usually confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. If seminomas are diagnosed at stage 1 (confined to the testis only), the 5-year survival rate is 98%. The remaining 40% of cases are teratomas, which can grow at a faster rate and often coexist with seminomas. In cases where the tumors are of mixed type, they are treated as teratomas due to their more aggressive nature. The main treatment for testicular cancer is surgery, with the possibility of additional chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and occasional chest pain over the past few weeks. During her fundoscopic examination, retinal hemorrhages and bilateral papilledema are observed. Her initial vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 89, blood pressure of 228/134, oxygen saturation of 98% on room air, blood glucose level of 8.2, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15/15.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Malignant hypertension

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this particular case is malignant (accelerated) hypertension. The patient’s blood pressure is greater than 220/110, and they also have retinal haemorrhages and papilloedema. During the examination, it is important to look for other features such as the presence of a 3rd heart sound, ankle oedema, bilateral basal crepitations, and any focal neurological deficit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Your consultant requests you to arrange a teaching session on secondary causes of...

    Correct

    • Your consultant requests you to arrange a teaching session on secondary causes of hypertension. Which of the subsequent electrolyte abnormalities would be in line with a diagnosis of Conn's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with primary hyperaldosteronism typically present with hypertension and hypokalemia. This is due to the fact that aldosterone encourages the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium, leading to an imbalance in these electrolytes. Additionally, hypernatremia, or high levels of sodium in the blood, is often observed in these patients.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury after being attacked with a baseball bat. There are indications that the patient may be experiencing elevated intracranial pressure. In a person with normal physiological conditions, what percentage of the intracranial volume is typically occupied by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      The intracranial volume refers to the total space inside the skull. The main component of this volume is the brain parenchyma or neural tissue, which makes up the majority of the intracranial volume.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You review the X-ray's of a young patient and they confirm a zygomatic...

    Correct

    • You review the X-ray's of a young patient and they confirm a zygomatic fracture.

      All of the following are reasons for immediate referral to the ophthalmologist or maxillofacial surgeons EXCEPT for which one?

      Your Answer: Otalgia

      Explanation:

      If a patient with a zygoma fracture experiences visual disturbance, limited eye movements (especially upward gaze), or shows a teardrop sign on a facial X-ray, it is important to refer them urgently to ophthalmology or maxillofacial surgeons.

      Further Reading:

      Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.

      Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.

      Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.

      Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.

      Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man presents with a range of neurological symptoms. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a range of neurological symptoms. He has been experiencing painless double vision over the past day and is becoming worried. Approximately six months ago, he also recalled a two-week period where he had no feeling in his right arm. When directly asked, he also confesses to feeling tired and quite depressed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease mediated by cells and is caused by recurring inflammation. Typically, it presents in early adulthood, with a female to male ratio of 3:2.

      There are several risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis, including being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk tends to be higher), having a family history of the disease (with 20% of MS patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.

      There are three main patterns of multiple sclerosis. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, which is characterized by periods of no symptoms followed by relapses (this is seen in 80% of patients at the time of diagnosis). Another pattern is primary progressive MS, where symptoms develop and worsen from the beginning with few remissions (seen in 10-15% of patients at diagnosis). Lastly, there is secondary progressive MS, which occurs after relapsing/remitting MS. In this pattern, symptoms worsen with fewer remissions, and approximately 50% of those with relapsing/remitting MS will develop this within 10 years of diagnosis.

      The key to diagnosing MS lies in the history of neurological symptoms that are discrete in time and location of the affected body. Patients often experience fatigue and low mood, particularly during a relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      65.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they have taken an overdose. The patient states that they are unsure of the exact number of tablets consumed but estimate it to be around 100 aspirin tablets. You are concerned about the severity of the overdose and its potential consequences. Which of the following is an indication for haemodialysis in patients with salicylate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Plasma pH of 7.25

      Correct Answer: Salicylate level of 715 mg/L

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis is recommended for patients with salicylate poisoning if they meet any of the following criteria: plasma salicylate level exceeding 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that does not improve with treatment (plasma pH below 7.2), acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, unresolved central nervous system effects despite correcting acidosis, persistently high salicylate concentrations that do not respond to urinary alkalinisation. Severe cases of salicylate poisoning, especially in patients under 10 years old or over 70 years old, may require dialysis earlier than the listed indications.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 24...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 24 hour history of vertigo. You consider the potential underlying causes.

      Which of the following characteristics is most indicative of a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

      Your Answer: Torsional and vertical nystagmus on head movement

      Explanation:

      BPPV is a condition where patients experience vertigo and nystagmus. The Dix-Hallpike test is used to diagnose BPPV, and it involves observing torsional (rotary) and vertical nystagmus. Unlike vertigo caused by vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis, BPPV is not associated with prodromal viral illness, hearing loss, or tinnitus. The episodes of vertigo and dizziness in BPPV usually last for 10-20 seconds, with episodes lasting over 1 minute being uncommon.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of chronic heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and occasional...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of chronic heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and occasional food blockage. She was recently given a short course of omeprazole but has not experienced any improvement in her symptoms. Her medical history includes asthma and seasonal allergies, for which she uses a salbutamol inhaler and steroid creams. She has not noticed any weight loss, has not experienced any episodes of vomiting blood, and overall feels healthy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Eosinophilic oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilic oesophagitis (EoE), also known as allergic inflammatory condition of the oesophagus, is characterized by the presence of eosinophils. It was identified as a clinical condition about two decades ago but has gained recognition more recently. EoE is most commonly observed in middle-aged individuals, with an average age of diagnosis ranging from 30 to 50 years. It is more prevalent in men, with a male-to-female ratio of 3:1. Allergic conditions, particularly atopy, are often associated with EoE.

      The clinical manifestations of EoE vary depending on the age of the patient. In adults, common symptoms include dysphagia, food bolus obstruction, heartburn, and chest pain. On the other hand, children with EoE may present with failure to thrive, food refusal, difficulty feeding, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      To diagnose EoE, it is crucial to consider the possibility of this condition in patients who have persistent heartburn and/or difficulty swallowing, especially if they have a history of allergies or atopic disease. Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying more than 15 eosinophils per high-power field on an oesophageal biopsy. Allergy testing is not effective as EoE is not mediated by IgE.

      There are three main management options for EoE, all of which are considered first-line treatments. The first option is proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which are effective in approximately one-third of patients. If an endoscopic biopsy confirms the presence of eosinophils, an 8-week trial of PPIs can be initiated. After the trial, a repeat endoscopy and biopsy should be performed to assess for persistent eosinophils. Patients who respond to PPIs are diagnosed with PPI responsive oesophageal eosinophilia, while those who do not respond are diagnosed with true eosinophilic oesophagitis.

      The second management option is dietary manipulation, which can be effective in both children and adults. It can be used as an initial treatment or in combination with pharmacological therapy. The six most commonly implicated food groups in EoE are cow’s milk, wheat, egg, soy, peanut/tree nut, and fish/shellfish. There are four main approaches to dietary manipulation: elemental diet, six food elimination diet (SFED), four food elimination diet (FFED),

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      687.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few of his father's ibuprofen tablets 30 minutes ago. The child is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends giving a dose of activated charcoal.
      What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?

      Your Answer: 5 g/kg

      Correct Answer: 1 g/kg

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with pain in his left buttock, hip, and thigh. The pain started suddenly a few weeks ago, and he cannot recall any previous injury. During the examination, he shows wasting of his left quadriceps, struggles to stand up from a seated position, and has an absent knee jerk on the left side. Muscle fasciculations are observed in his left thigh. His BMI is 30, and he is a smoker.

      What is the SINGLE most beneficial management measure for this patient?

      Your Answer: Good glycaemic control

      Explanation:

      Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is the second most prevalent form of diabetic neuropathy. It typically manifests with pain in the buttocks, hips, or thighs and is often initially experienced on one side of the body. The pain may start off as mild and gradually progress or it can suddenly appear, as seen in this particular case. Subsequently, weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles in the lower limbs occur, potentially leading to the patient requiring assistance when transitioning from a seated to a standing position. Reflexes in the affected areas can also be impacted. Fortunately, diabetic amyotrophy can be reversed through effective management of blood sugar levels, physiotherapy, and adopting a healthy lifestyle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for severe anemia. Four weeks later she arrives at the Emergency Department with a skin rash, high temperature, and diarrhea. Blood tests are ordered, revealing low levels of all blood cells and abnormal liver function.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulins

      Correct Answer: No effective treatment exists

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.

      One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.

      During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.

      The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:

      Complication Features Management
      Febrile transfusion reaction
      – Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
      – Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
      – Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
      – Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.

      Acute haemolytic reaction
      – Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
      – Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
      – Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
      – Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.

      Delayed haemolytic reaction
      – Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
      – Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - You are called to a cardiac arrest in a child in the Emergency...

    Correct

    • You are called to a cardiac arrest in a child in the Emergency Department. Which SINGLE statement regarding resuscitation in children is true?

      Your Answer: The ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 15:2

      Explanation:

      The ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio has not been proven through experiments, but it has been validated through mathematical studies. When performing chest compressions on a child, it is recommended to make them at least 1/3 of the depth of the child’s chest. Additionally, the optimal compression rate is between 100 and 120 compressions per minute.
      To protect the airway of an unconscious child, the oropharyngeal (Guedel) airway is the best option. However, it should not be used on awake patients as there is a risk of vomiting and aspiration.
      In children, asystole is the most common arrest rhythm. This occurs when the young heart responds to prolonged hypoxia and acidosis by progressively slowing down, eventually resulting in asystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      93.2
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.

      Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.

      The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      123.3
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man presents with a red, painful right eye. He describes the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a red, painful right eye. He describes the pain as being excruciating, and it radiates to his forehead. His eyes are excessively watery, and he prefers to stay in a dark room at home because light exacerbates the pain. On examination, his eye appears very red, and there is tenderness upon palpation of the eyeball. His visual acuity is decreased. He was recently diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis.

      What is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Scleritis is a serious condition characterized by inflammation of the sclera, the white outer layer of the eye. It often affects both eyes, with bilateral involvement seen in about half of the cases. While the cause of scleritis can be unknown (idiopathic), it is associated with systemic inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis in approximately one-third of patients. In fact, scleritis can sometimes be the initial manifestation of these inflammatory conditions.

      The clinical features of scleritis include moderate to severe pain, which can be felt in the brow or jaw. The pain worsens with eye movement and may disrupt sleep. The onset of symptoms is typically gradual. Other common symptoms include sensitivity to light (photophobia), excessive tearing (epiphora), and redness of both the superficial and deep episcleral vessels. The affected eye may also be tender to touch, and there may be a decrease in visual acuity. Some individuals may have a history of previous episodes of scleritis.

      In summary, scleritis is a serious inflammatory disease of the sclera that can be associated with systemic inflammatory conditions. It presents with significant pain, often referred to the brow or jaw, and worsened by eye movement. Other symptoms include photophobia, excessive tearing, and redness of the episcleral vessels. It is important to recognize scleritis as it can be the first sign of underlying inflammatory diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      32.3
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  • Question 20 - You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old individual with COPD. The patient...

    Correct

    • You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old individual with COPD. The patient has recently started using BiPAP. What is the desired range for oxygen saturation in a patient with COPD and type 2 respiratory failure who is receiving BiPAP?

      Your Answer: 88-92%

      Explanation:

      In patients with COPD and type 2 respiratory failure, the desired range for oxygen saturation while receiving BiPAP is typically 88-92%.

      Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range is crucial for individuals with COPD as it helps strike a balance between providing enough oxygen to meet the body’s needs and avoiding the risk of oxygen toxicity. Oxygen saturation levels below 88% may indicate inadequate oxygenation, while levels above 92% may lead to oxygen toxicity and other complications.

      Further Reading:

      Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.

      CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

      BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.

      The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.

      In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.

      Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      66.7
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that seems to be indicative of shingles.
      What is the most suitable method to confirm a shingles diagnosis in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: History and examination alone

      Explanation:

      Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which primarily infects individuals during childhood as chickenpox. However, the initial infection can also be subclinical. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the sensory nervous system, specifically in the geniculate, trigeminal, or dorsal root ganglia.

      During the dormant phase, the virus is kept under control by the immune system for many years. However, it can later become active and cause a flare-up in a specific dermatomal segment. This reactivation occurs when the virus travels down the affected nerve over a period of 3 to 5 days, leading to inflammation within and around the nerve. The decline in cell-mediated immunity is believed to trigger the virus’s reactivation.

      Several factors can trigger the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, including advancing age (with most patients being older than 50), immunosuppressive illnesses, physical trauma, and psychological stress. In immunocompetent patients, the most common site of reactivation is the thoracic nerves, followed by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Diagnosing shingles can usually be done based on the patient’s history and clinical examination alone, as it has a distinct history and appearance. While various techniques can be used to detect the virus or antibodies, they are often unnecessary. Microscopy and culture tests using scrapings and smears typically yield negative results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.4
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis, which refers to inflammation of the iris. It typically presents with symptoms such as a painful and red eye, sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. The photo above shows a possible indication of this condition, with the presence of pus in the front chamber of the eye, known as hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause is identified. Other potential triggers include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can be associated with anterior uveitis.

      It is worth noting that there is a strong link between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the mid-spine area and sacroiliitis. It is important to mention that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.5
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  • Question 23 - A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient experiences episodes of cognitive decline that last for a few days. During these episodes, the patient struggles to remember the names of friends or family members and often forgets what he is doing. The family member also mentions that the patient seems to have hallucinations, frequently asking about animals in the house and people in the garden who are not actually there. Upon examination, you observe muscle rigidity and a tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by several key features, including spontaneous fluctuations in cognitive abilities, visual hallucinations, and Parkinsonism. Visual hallucinations are particularly prevalent in DLB and Parkinson’s disease dementia, which are considered to be part of the same spectrum. While visual hallucinations can occur in other forms of dementia, they are less frequently observed.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can feel a small mass in the upper abdomen. A venous blood gas is performed.
      What is the definitive treatment for the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.

      The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.

      The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.

      Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.

      Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.

      The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      31.5
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  • Question 25 - A middle-aged patient experiences a stroke that leads to impairment in Broca's area....

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient experiences a stroke that leads to impairment in Broca's area. What will be the consequences of the damage to Broca's area?

      Your Answer: Expressive aphasia

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area is situated in the frontal lobe of the dominant cerebral hemisphere. Specifically, it can be located in the posterior section of the inferior frontal gyrus, and it comprises of the pars opercularis and the pars triangularis.

      Broca’s area is responsible for regulating the motor functions involved in speech production. It facilitates the creation of words through its connections with neighboring motor areas, which stimulate the muscles of the larynx, mouth, tongue, and soft palate.

      If there is damage to Broca’s area, it will lead to speech paralysis and expressive aphasia, commonly referred to as Broca’s aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department with a head injury associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department with a head injury associated with alcohol intoxication. The patient has a history of being unreliable when providing information. After reviewing the patient's medical records, you discover that the patient has a pre-existing diagnosis of chronic hepatitis B infection.

      Which of the following suggests the presence of chronic hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: Presence of HBeAg for for greater than 6 months

      Correct Answer: Presence of HBsAg for for greater than 6 months

      Explanation:

      Chronic hepatitis B infection is characterized by the persistence of serum HbsAg for a duration exceeding six months.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      62.3
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  • Question 27 - A traveler contracts a viral haemorrhagic fever while on a backpacking adventure during...

    Incorrect

    • A traveler contracts a viral haemorrhagic fever while on a backpacking adventure during their gap year.
      Which of the following is NOT a viral haemorrhagic fever?

      Your Answer: Yellow fever

      Correct Answer: Chagas disease

      Explanation:

      The viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHFs) are a group of infectious diseases caused by four distinct types of RNA viruses. These include Filoviruses (such as Marburg virus and Ebola), Arenaviruses (like Lassa fever and Argentine haemorrhagic fever), Bunyaviruses (including Hantavirus and Rift Valley fever), and Flavivirus (such as Yellow fever and dengue fever). VHFs are serious multi-system disorders that can be potentially fatal. Each type of VHF has a natural reservoir, which is an animal or insect host, and they are typically found in the areas where these host species reside. Outbreaks of these hemorrhagic fevers occur sporadically and irregularly, making them difficult to predict.

      The typical clinical features of VHFs include fever, headache, myalgia, fatigue, bloody diarrhea, haematemesis, petechial rashes and ecchymoses, edema, confusion and agitation, as well as hypotension and circulatory collapse.

      On the other hand, Chagas disease is not classified as a VHF. It is a tropical disease caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. This disease is transmitted by Triatomine insects, commonly known as kissing bugs. Initially, Chagas disease causes a mild acute illness that resembles flu. However, around 10% of individuals develop chronic Chagas disease, which can lead to various complications. These complications include cardiac issues like dilated cardiomyopathy, neurological problems such as neuritis, and gastrointestinal complications like megacolon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65 year old female is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old female is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a cardiac arrest at a local concert venue where she was attending as a spectator. The patient received a shock from an automated defibrillator device after prompt assessment by the medical team at the venue, leading to a return of spontaneous circulation.

      Your consultant informs you that the objective now is to minimize the severity of the post-cardiac arrest syndrome. You decide to implement a temperature control strategy. What is the desired temperature range for patients following a cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: 36-37ºC

      Correct Answer: 32-36ºC

      Explanation:

      After a cardiac arrest, it is recommended to maintain a mild hypothermia state with a target temperature range of 32-36ºC for at least 24 hours. It is important to avoid fever for a period of 72 hours following the cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man with a history of anxiety and panic disorder has ingested...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of anxiety and panic disorder has ingested an excessive amount of diazepam.
      Which of the following antidotes is appropriate for cases of benzodiazepine poisoning?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil

      Explanation:

      There are various specific remedies available for different types of poisons and overdoses. The following list provides an outline of some of these antidotes:

      Poison: Benzodiazepines
      Antidote: Flumazenil

      Poison: Beta-blockers
      Antidotes: Atropine, Glucagon, Insulin

      Poison: Carbon monoxide
      Antidote: Oxygen

      Poison: Cyanide
      Antidotes: Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate

      Poison: Ethylene glycol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Heparin
      Antidote: Protamine sulphate

      Poison: Iron salts
      Antidote: Desferrioxamine

      Poison: Isoniazid
      Antidote: Pyridoxine

      Poison: Methanol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Opioids
      Antidote: Naloxone

      Poison: Organophosphates
      Antidotes: Atropine, Pralidoxime

      Poison: Paracetamol
      Antidotes: Acetylcysteine, Methionine

      Poison: Sulphonylureas
      Antidotes: Glucose, Octreotide

      Poison: Thallium
      Antidote: Prussian blue

      Poison: Warfarin
      Antidote: Vitamin K, Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

      By utilizing these specific antidotes, medical professionals can effectively counteract the harmful effects of various poisons and overdoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      25.3
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  • Question 30 - You are requested to assess a 70 year old individual who has arrived...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 70 year old individual who has arrived with a 3 hour duration of epistaxis. Which of the subsequent characteristics is indicative of a posterior nasal bleed?

      Your Answer: Bleeding from both nostrils

      Explanation:

      Posterior epistaxis is characterized by bleeding from both nostrils, which is usually heavy and difficult to control. It is commonly observed in older individuals with hypertension and/or atherosclerosis. In contrast, children typically experience anterior epistaxis, which involves bleeding from the front part of the nose. One of the distinguishing features of posterior epistaxis is the inability to easily identify the source of bleeding. Additionally, the bleeding in posterior epistaxis tends to be more severe and profuse compared to anterior bleeds.

      Further Reading:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (4/5) 80%
Pain & Sedation (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Urology (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/3) 33%
Ear, Nose & Throat (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Resus (0/1) 0%
Passmed