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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician. The pain comes intermittently in waves and gets worse after eating food. There are no associated complaints of fever or bowel problems. The pain intensity is 6/10, and paracetamol relieves it a little. There is suspicion that part of the biliary tree is blocked. Which area of the duodenum does this blocked tube open into?

      Your Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from biliary colic since her pain is intermittent and comes and goes in waves. Biliary colic pain gets worse after eating, especially fatty food as bile helps digest fats. Gallstones are the most common cause of biliary colic and are usually located in the cystic duct or common bile duct. But since this patient has no signs of jaundice or steatorrhea, the duct most likely blocked is the cystic duct.

      The cystic duct drains the gallbladder and combines with the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct. The common bile duct then merges with the pancreatic duct and opens into the second part of the duodenum (major duodenal papilla).

      The duodenojejunal flexure is attached to the diaphragm by the ligament of Treitz and is not associated with any common pathology.
      The fourth part of the duodenum passes very close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      The third part of the duodenum can be affected by superior mesenteric artery syndrome, where the duodenum is compressed between the SMA and the aorta, often in cases of reduced body fat.
      The first part of the duodenum is the most common location for peptic ulcers affecting this organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The population incidence of a disease is best described by? ...

    Incorrect

    • The population incidence of a disease is best described by?

      Your Answer: The number of cases of a disease in a population over a defined time period

      Correct Answer: The number of new cases of a disease per population in a defined period

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period.

      The prevalence of a disease is the number of cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period describes. It is NOT the number of new cases.

      The number of new cases of a disease only, has no denominator (time period or population) from which to derive an incidence.

      The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment is the incidence of patients seeking medical treatment NOT the incidence of the disease in a population.

      The death rate from a disease is the number of patients dying from the disease in a population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:

      Your Answer: Utilises null deflection

      Explanation:

      The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

      It utilizes null deflection -True
      Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

      It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
      Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

      Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
      For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

      Does not require calibration – False
      As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

      E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
      Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five...

    Incorrect

    • In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks. Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Coarsening of ventricular fibrillation, increasing the success of defibrillation

      Correct Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation

      Explanation:

      Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (α1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a β1 and β2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
      – Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
      – Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to...

    Correct

    • A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively. How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?

      Your Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (0.04-0.03)

      ARR= 0.01

      NNT= 1/0.01

      NNT=100

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:

      Your Answer: Side effects typically include visual field defects with long term use

      Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease

      Explanation:

      Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.

      Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone

      Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.

      Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Correct

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.

      Your Answer: Has a sodium concentration of 125-135 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres

      Explanation:

      Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.

      The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)

      For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .

      Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.

      The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?...

    Correct

    • How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?

      Your Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
      – 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
      – 6 paired branches
      – unpaired median sacral artery.

      We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
      -Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
      -Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
      -Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
      -Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteries

      The celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.

      The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.

      The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how...

    Correct

    • A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg. Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?

      Your Answer: 35mmHg‹…min‹…mL-1

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair. What is true regarding the mitral valve?

      Your Answer: The chordae tendinae anchor the valve directly to the wall of the left ventricle

      Correct Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

      The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.

      The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
      1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
      2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
      3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
      i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
      ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
      4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
      5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricle

      The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise....

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin. What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?

      Your Answer: Beta-lactamase production

      Explanation:

      Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to β-lactamase production which opens the β-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.

      Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA

      Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer: The tip of a Miller blade is designed to be placed into the vallecula

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic €‹in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to...

    Correct

    • A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator. Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.

      Your Answer: Rectifier

      Explanation:

      There are two types of defibrillators
      AC defibrillator
      DC defibrillator

      AC defibrillator,
      consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.

      DC defibrillator,
      consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.

      Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.

      Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.

      Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.

      In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more...

    Correct

    • It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more prone to developing gastric cancer. After 30 years of studying people with lower socio economic status, it was found that they did have a greater tendency to develop cancer. As a result of that the authors got to the conclusion that a strong association existed between the two. Later on another study conducted found that people from lower socio economic back grounds also had a tendency to be smokers. Which form of potential bias can be associated with this particular study?

      Your Answer: Confounding bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.

      When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.

      Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down supine...

    Correct

    • While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down supine and attached to a monitor is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?

      Your Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to Starling’s law.

      Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.

      A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.

      Sarcomeres, which can be in cardiac, smooth or skeletal muscle, function optimally when stretched to a specific point.
      Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causing stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which among the following is summed up by F statistic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is summed up by F statistic?

      Your Answer: Mann Whitney U

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in preventing eclampsia in susceptible patients?

      Your Answer: Increasing the convulsive threshold by NMDA receptor antagonism

      Correct Answer: Dilatation of cerebral circulation due to calcium channel antagonism reducing cerebral vascular spasm

      Explanation:

      Magnesium is a unique calcium antagonist as it can act on most types of calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and as such would be expected to decrease intracellular calcium. One major effect of decreased intracellular calcium would be inactivation of calmodulin-dependent myosin light chain kinase activity and decreased contraction, causing arterial relaxation that may subsequently lower peripheral and cerebral vascular resistance, relieve vasospasm, and decrease arterial blood pressure.

      The vasodilatory effect of MgSO4 has been investigated in a wide variety of vessels. For example, both in vivo and in vitro animal studies have shown that it is a vasodilator of large conduit arteries such as the aorta, as well as smaller resistance vessels including mesenteric, skeletal muscle, uterine, and cerebral arteries.

      The theory of cerebrovascular vasospasm as the aetiology of eclampsia seemed to be reinforced by transcranial Doppler (TCD) studies which suggested that MgSO4 treatment caused dilation in the cerebral circulation as well as in animal studies that used large cerebral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse?

      Your Answer: Vertebral canal

      Correct Answer: Intervertebral foramen

      Explanation:

      The vertebral artery originates from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck in the transverse foramen of the C1-C6 vertebrae. C2 vertebra is called the axis vertebra. A part of the vertebral artery lies in a groove on the upper surface of the atlas’s (C1) posterior arch. It enters the vertebral canal below the inferior border of the posterior atlantooccipital membrane. The vertebral arteries then enter the skull via the foramen magnum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which statement is true of albumin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true of albumin?

      Your Answer: Is negatively charged

      Correct Answer: Is synthesised and stored in the liver

      Explanation:

      Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

      Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

      Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

      If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
      It is not catabolised during starvation.
      Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

      Causes of low albumin are

      1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
      2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
      3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
      4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis)...

    Incorrect

    • A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis) and time (x-axis). Which of the following statements is most true about this kind of exponential relationship?

      Your Answer: The y intercept is 0, 1

      Correct Answer: y = ex

      Explanation:

      The relationship between bacterial growth and time is a tear-away exponential. The mathematical relationship between y and x in this case is:

      y = ex

      Where: the power is x, and the base is e.

      Euler’s number (e) is a mathematical constant that is the base for all logarithms occurring naturally. Its value is 2.718.

      The statement X increasing with an increase in Y is proportional to Y refers to the change in y in terms of x when considering any exponential relationship.

      This is not a build-up exponential, and that is mathematically stated as y = 1-e-kt.

      The negative x axis being a horizontal asymptote and the y intercept being 0, 1 are examples of tearaway exponentials , but do not describe an exponential process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE...

    Incorrect

    • A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?

      Your Answer: 5.00%

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Mild hypercapnia

      Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia

      Explanation:

      The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.

      Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:

      Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.

      MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.

      MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension ( 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Correct

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography. Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is a centrally acting analgesic with a multimode of action. It acts on serotonergic and noradrenergic nociception, while its metabolite O-desmethyltramadol acts on the mu opioid receptor. Its analgesic potency is claimed to be about one tenth that of morphine. Tramadol is used to treat both acute and chronic pain of moderate to (moderately) severe intensity.

      Tramadol exists as the racemic (1:1) mixture of the (+) and (-)-enantiomer. It has a multimodal mechanism of action as on the one hand the (+) and (-)-enantiomer act on the serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake, and on the other hand the O-desmethyl metabolite of tramadol (called M1 or ODT) acts on the µ-opioid receptor. This implies that the analgesic mechanism of action of tramadol includes both non-opioid components, i.e., noradrenergic and serotonergic components, and opioid components. The (+)-enantiomer of tramadol contributes to analgesia by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, the (-)-enantiomer by inhibiting the reuptake of
      noradrenaline, and the O-desmethyl metabolite by binding with relative high affinity (compared to tramadol) to the µ-opioid receptor.

      (+/-)-Tramadol binds with low affinity to the human µ-opioid receptor with an affinity constant (Ki) of 2.4 µM.42 This affinity is approximately 4000-fold less than that of morphine (Ki = 0.34 nM). The affinity of tramadol for the δ- and κ-opioid receptors is even less. The (+/-)-O-desmethyl metabolite (M1) of tramadol, on the other hand, shows about 400-fold higher affinity for the µ-opioid receptor (Ki = 5.4 nM) than the parent compound, but still with much lower affinity than morphine. The affinity of M1 for the µ-opioid receptor is due to the (R) (+)-enantiomer (Ki = 3.4 nM) and not the (S) (-)-enantiomer (Ki = 240 nM). The affinity of the (R) (+)-enantiomer of M1 is one-tenth that of morphine for the µ-opioid receptor, and about 700 times that of (+/-)-tramadol. The metabolite (+/-)-M5 also has a higher affinity than (+/-)-tramadol for the µopioid receptor (Ki = 100 nM). However, animal studies indicate that M5 does not cross
      the blood-brain barrier and does not contribute to the anti-nociceptive effect of tramadol. The metabolites M2, M3, and M4 of tramadol have negligible affinity for the human µ-opioid receptor.

      Phase I metabolites of tramadol:

      Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol (M1)
      Mono-N-desmethyl-tramadol (M2)
      Di-N-desmethyl-tramadol (M3)
      Tri-N,O-desmethyl-tramadol (M4)
      Di-N,O-desmethyl-tramadol (M5)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial...

    Correct

    • In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.34
      PaCO2 = 7.2 kPa
      HCO3 = 29

      Explanation:

      During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.

      Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.

      An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.

      pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
      Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
      Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
      Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
      Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
      Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      46
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  • Question 28 - A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic...

    Correct

    • A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease. Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer: 95.40%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.

      Properties of the Normal distribution

      symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median

      68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean

      95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean

      99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

      Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
      the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.

      SD = square root (variance)

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12.9
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?

      Your Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.5
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  • Question 30 - With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric...

    Correct

    • With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward. The serum biochemical results listed below are available: Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107), Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110). Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?

      Your Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess

      Explanation:

      Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:

      Hypokalaemia
      Hypochloraemia
      Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosis

      The alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.

      The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.

      The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.

      In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.

      As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.

      The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      28.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Statistical Methods (4/8) 50%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/3) 67%
Pathophysiology (2/4) 50%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/3) 67%
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