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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He has no significant medical history, but is currently staying at his sister's house due to marital issues. He reports that the itching is most severe at night. Upon examination, he has several linear erythaematous lesions on the backs of his hands and between his fingers.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 h

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation

      Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but is more prevalent in individuals with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.

      While emollient cream can be applied regularly from the neck down, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, 5% Hydrocortisone cream applied twice daily to the hands will not address the underlying infestation. Oral antihistamines may provide relief from the symptomatic itch, but they do not treat the underlying infestation.

      In cases where Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment for scabies. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off. It is important to follow the instructions carefully and consult a healthcare professional if symptoms persist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
      Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions

      There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.

      Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.

      Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.

      Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.

      Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and soles. The child's two siblings are also experiencing similar symptoms. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation that can cause lesions on the palms and soles, accompanied by intense itching. If a sibling has a similar history, it is likely that they are also infested with scabies. The lesions are caused by scratching and can become exudative. The treatment of choice for scabies is topical permethrin or malathion. These medications can help to kill the mites that cause scabies and alleviate the symptoms of itching and skin irritation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner aspect of his forearm. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Lichen planus is a skin disorder that has an unknown cause but is likely autoimmune. On the other hand, lichen sclerosus is characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly seen on the vulva of elderly women. Scabies, which typically affects children and young adults, causes widespread itching and linear burrows on finger sides, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrist. Eczema usually presents as an itchy, red rash in the flexural areas, while psoriasis is characterized by itchy white or red patches on the extensor surfaces. These are some of the most common skin disorders and their distinct characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation. The patient reports a 2-month history of patchy areas of discolouration over her chest and back. She is feeling extremely distressed and self-conscious about these areas. The patient has stopped going to the beach due to the lesions, which she previously enjoyed.

      During examination, the patient has multiple patches of flaky, discoloured hypopigmented lesions distributed over the chest and back.

      What is the most likely cause of hypopigmented skin in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Pigmentation Changes

      Pigmentation changes in the skin can be caused by various factors, including skin conditions and hormonal imbalances. Here are some examples:

      Pityriasis versicolor: This common skin complaint is characterized by flaky, discoloured, hypopigmented patches that mainly appear on the chest and back. It is caused by the overgrowth of a yeast called Malassezia furfur.

      Whipple’s disease: This rare bacterial infection can cause hyperpigmentation in some cases.

      High oestriol: Elevated levels of this hormone, which can occur during pregnancy, are associated with hyperpigmentation.

      Neurofibromatosis type I: This genetic disorder causes numerous café-au-lait patches, which are hyperpigmented patches.

      Urticaria pigmentosa: This condition, which typically develops in childhood, causes hyperpigmented patches that usually fade by the teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which measures 1.5 cm. He is booked in to have surgery to remove it.
      During the excision biopsy what margin size will be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 mm

      Explanation:

      Surgical Margins for Skin Cancer Excision

      When removing skin cancer through excision biopsy, it is important to use appropriate surgical margins to ensure complete removal of the cancerous cells. The size of the margin depends on the type and thickness of the cancer.

      For melanomas, a 2 mm margin is used for the initial excision biopsy. After calculating the Breslow thickness, an additional wide excision is made with margins ranging from 1 cm to 2 cm, depending on the thickness of the melanoma. A 1 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring 1.0–4.0 mm, while a 2 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring >4 mm.

      Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) requires a 4 mm excision margin, while basal-cell carcinoma (BCC) requires a 3 mm margin.

      Using appropriate surgical margins is crucial for successful removal of skin cancer and preventing recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient comes to you with a complaint of an erythematosus rash in his groin area. He reports that the rash was initially raised and red, but it has now healed and left behind hyperpigmentation. Interestingly, he mentions that he has experienced this same rash in the same location before. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he had taken ibuprofen for a strained ankle prior to the onset of the rash. What is the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption

      Explanation:

      Fixed Drug Eruptions: Recurring Lesions Caused by Medications

      Fixed drug eruptions are a type of skin reaction that occurs when a person takes a medication to which they are allergic. These eruptions are characterized by circular, violaceous, and oedematous plaques that appear in the same area where the offending drug was given. The lesions usually occur within 30 minutes to eight hours after drug administration and can be found in various parts of the body, with the hands, feet, and genitalia being the most common locations.

      One of the distinguishing features of fixed drug eruptions is that the lesions tend to recur in the same area whenever the person takes the offending drug again. The lesions may resolve on their own, but they often leave behind macular hyperpigmentation, which is a darkening of the skin in the affected area. In some cases, perioral and periorbital lesions may also occur.

      Overall, fixed drug eruptions can be a frustrating and uncomfortable experience for those who suffer from them. It is important to identify the offending drug and avoid it in the future to prevent further outbreaks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
      Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

      Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:

      – Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
      – Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
      – Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
      – Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
      – Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
      – Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
      – Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
      – Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
      – Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
      – Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
      – Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
      – Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
      Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection

      Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.

      While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical reticulated, violaceous patches. These patches become more prominent in cold weather and involve both lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Explanation:

      Livedo Reticularis

      Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. This occurs due to the dilation of capillary blood vessels and the stagnation of blood within these vessels. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.

      Livedo reticularis can be idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, or it can be secondary to other conditions such as malignancy, vasculitis, SLE, or cholesterol embolization. The condition is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries, which leads to the discoloration of the skin.

      In summary, livedo reticularis is a skin condition that causes a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. It is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries and can be idiopathic or secondary to other conditions. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old teacher, has recently discovered a suspicious spot on her left arm....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher, has recently discovered a suspicious spot on her left arm. Worried about the potential of skin cancer, she has been researching online to learn how to identify malignant melanoma.
      What are the ABCDE characteristics that Samantha should be monitoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asymmetry, border irregularity, colour variation, diameter >6mm, evolving

      Explanation:

      Understanding the ABCDE Criteria for Skin Lesion Screening

      Skin cancer, particularly malignant melanoma, is becoming increasingly common. To aid in early detection, the ABCDE criteria is a widely used tool in screening for melanoma. The criteria includes Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter greater than 6mm, and Evolving. Other screening criteria, such as the Glasgow criteria, can also be used. It is important to note that an elevated lesion does not necessarily indicate pathology, and that crusting lesions should be examined carefully for other signs of suspicion. By understanding and utilizing these criteria, healthcare professionals can aid in the early detection and treatment of skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a medical history, the doctor informs the mother that the skin lesions are likely caused by a viral infection.
      What is the most probable condition that could be caused by a virus in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral infection that spreads through direct contact and causes pink papules with a central umbilicus. The lesions contain cheese-like material and can be treated with cryotherapy or imiquimod.

      Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that affects the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, causing red, swollen, and painful skin. It is commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

      Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by staphylococcal infections.

      Impetigo is a bacterial infection that results in pustules and honey-colored, crusted erosions. It is commonly caused by S. aureus.

      Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe bacterial infection that affects soft tissue and fascia. The bacteria release toxins and enzymes that lead to thrombosis and destruction of soft tissue and fascia. Bacterial causes include S. aureus and Clostridium perfringens, among others.

      Overview of Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment. A few of the blisters have burst, resulting in a sore, exposed region. The base of one of the erosive lesions is scraped for Tzanck test. Upon examination, acantholytic keratinocytes with significant hyperchromatic nuclei are detected under the microscope.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions on Tzanck Smear: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex, Chickenpox, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      When examining a patient’s bullous skin lesions on a Tzanck smear, it is important to distinguish between various skin conditions. In the case of acantholytic keratinocytes, the most likely diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris. This autoimmune disorder is caused by an antibody against intraepithelial desmosomal junctions, resulting in the separation of keratinocytes and the formation of intraepithelial blisters.

      Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and chickenpox can also present with multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear. However, these conditions are caused by viral infections rather than autoimmune disorders.

      Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is caused by an antibody against the dermal-epidermal junction. The associated blisters are sub-epidermal in location and do not contain acantholytic keratinocytes.

      In summary, a Tzanck smear can provide valuable information in diagnosing various skin conditions, including pemphigus vulgaris, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, chickenpox, and bullous pemphigoid. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

      Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.

      Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.

      Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.

      Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old swimming instructor presents with an abrupt onset of diffuse inflamed, red, scaly skin changes that developed within 2 days. The medical team suspects erythroderma and initiates treatment with oral steroids. What is the most probable dermatological disorder that can lead to erythroderma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions and Their Relationship to Erythroderma

      Erythroderma is a condition that causes inflammation, redness, and scaling of over 90% of the skin surface. It can be caused by various dermatological conditions, including eczema, psoriasis, cutaneous T cell lymphoma, drug reactions, blistering conditions, and pityriasis rubra pilaris. Complications of erythroderma include hypothermia, dehydration, infection, and high-output heart failure. Treatment involves identifying and stopping any causative drugs, nursing in a warm room, and systemic steroids.

      Livedo reticularis is another skin condition that causes a mottled discoloration of the skin in a reticular pattern due to a disturbance of blood flow to the skin. However, it does not cause erythroderma.

      Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that presents with a pruritic, papular eruption characterized by its violaceous color and polygonal shape, sometimes with a fine scale. It does not commonly cause erythroderma.

      Norwegian scabies is a severe form of scabies caused by a mite infestation, but it does not cause erythroderma.

      Pityriasis rosea is a viral rash characterized by a herald patch followed by smaller oval, red patches located on the torso. It does not cause erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry skin and lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips

      Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.

      It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.

      While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
      What is the definitive management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old retired farmer has switched his General Practitioner (GP) and comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired farmer has switched his General Practitioner (GP) and comes in for a check-up. During the appointment, he asks for a review of several lesions on his forehead.

      Upon examination, he is bald and has multiple scaly, crusted lesions on his mid-frontal scalp, along with a keratinous horn with a smooth base on the helix of his right ear. He mentions that he had similar lesions on his scalp before. These were treated with a cream that made the lesions worse for four weeks before completely resolving when the treatment was finished.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Actinic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Lesions: Actinic Keratosis, Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis, Basal Cell Carcinoma, Lentigo Maligna, and Seborrhoeic Keratosis

      Skin lesions can be difficult to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment. Actinic keratosis is a pre-malignant condition that is more common in sun-exposed patients, often presenting as scaly lesions on bald areas. Treatment with Efudix may initially worsen the lesions before improving. Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis is a benign condition characterized by a tender, firm lesion on the ear due to pressure from sleeping on that side. It is treated with strong topical steroids and is not associated with a keratinous horn. Basal cell carcinoma is a common skin cancer associated with sun exposure, presenting with telangiectasia and a rolled edge. Lentigo maligna is a malignant lesion associated with sun exposure, typically pigmented and occurring on the face. Seborrhoeic keratosis is a common benign lesion that can mimic other lesions, but is not associated with sun exposure and is often found on the back, appearing stuck-on rather than scaly. Understanding the characteristics of these skin lesions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on his face, chest and neck. What micro-organism degrades sebum to produce inflammatory fatty acids in such cases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propionibacterium acnes

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and their Causes

      Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition among adolescents and young adults, particularly men. Hormonal changes stimulate the sebaceous glands to produce more sebum, leading to the formation of open comedones, which are inflamed follicles with a central dark plug of keratin. Propionibacterium acnes is responsible for breaking down complex lipids in sebum into free fatty acids, which cause inflammation of hair follicles. Treatment with antibiotics and 13-cis-retinoic acid can alleviate the symptoms of acne vulgaris.

      Molluscum contagiosum is caused by the poxvirus, which leads to epidermal hyperplasia and ellipsoid molluscum bodies in the stratum corneum.

      Impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It is highly contagious and often affects healthy children. The infection starts as a reddened macule and progresses to multiple serum-filled pustules that rupture and form a yellowish crust.

      Papillomavirus causes warts or verrucae, which are common on the hands. They appear as several papules with a rough, irregular surface.

      Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur, a fungus that causes superficial fungal infections in the skin. Other forms of tinea are also caused by fungal infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. More detailed history and examination reveals painful red papules on both shins of recent onset. He is otherwise well. Basic blood tests are normal.
      What rash does the patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Rashes: A Comparison of Erythema Nodosum, Erythema Multiforme, Kaposi’s Sarcoma, Tinea Corporis, and Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome

      Erythema nodosum is a rash characterized by painful red papules caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat. It is commonly seen on the extensor surfaces of the lower limbs and can be linked to various conditions such as streptococcal and tuberculous infection, inflammatory bowel disease, lymphoma, drug-related causes, and sarcoidosis.

      Erythema multiforme, on the other hand, presents with typical target lesions on the extremities. It is an uncommon condition that can be mistaken for other skin rashes.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is an AIDS-defining malignancy caused by human herpes virus 8. It appears as red/purple papules on the skin or mucosal surfaces. However, the description of the rash, normal blood results, and an otherwise healthy patient make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection transmitted from common pets or human-to-human. It presents as an erythematosus, scaly ring-like rash with central clearing.

      Steven-Johnson’s syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with multiple erythematosus macules on the face and trunk, epidermal detachment, and mucosal ulceration. It is a rare condition that can cause significant morbidity and mortality.

      In summary, differentiating between these skin rashes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the underlying cause of the rash.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery for the past two weeks. These lesions are only present on her trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis Rosea

      Pityriasis rosea (PR) is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents and young adults. It is often associated with upper respiratory infections and is characterized by a herald patch, which is a circular or oval-shaped lesion that appears on the trunk, neck, or extremities. The herald patch is usually about 1-2 cm in diameter and has a central, salmon-colored area surrounded by a dark red border.

      About one to two weeks after the herald patch appears, a generalized rash develops. This rash is symmetrical and consists of macules with a collarette scale that aligns with the skin’s cleavage lines. The rash can last for up to six weeks before resolving on its own.

      Overall, PR is a benign condition that does not require treatment. However, if the rash is particularly itchy or uncomfortable, topical corticosteroids or antihistamines may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. It is important to note that PR is not contagious and does not pose any serious health risks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinea capitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia

      Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.

      Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.

      On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

      In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma

      A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.

      Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, with some areas appearing red and weeping. The dermatologist performed a skin biopsy, which revealed a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Skin Disorders: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Bullous Pemphigoid, Dermatitis Herpetiformis, Epidermolysis Bullosa, and Tuberous Sclerosis

      Skin disorders can manifest in various ways, including blistering and erosions on the skin and/or mucous membranes. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, with IgG autoantibodies to desmoglein 3 being a key characteristic. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic blisters on specific areas of the body, often associated with coeliac disease. Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes fragile skin, while tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering. Diagnosis and treatment vary depending on the specific disorder.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin. He has visible needle track marks in his antecubital fossae and shiny nails. His sclerae appear normal and he denies any significant medical or surgical history. He works as a truck driver and has no significant exposure to industrial chemicals or organic dust. He has no family history of atopy and smokes six cigarettes a day while only drinking alcohol socially once a week. What is the most appropriate initial test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood for HIV antibody

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pruritus in a Male Patient

      Pruritus, or itching, can be a symptom of various underlying conditions. In the case of a male patient without apparent cause of pruritus, an HIV antibody test would be the most appropriate first-line investigation, along with other tests such as blood sugar, thyroid profile, and urea and electrolytes. This is because HIV infection can present with intractable pruritus before other symptoms appear. Allergen skin tests may be used in suspected allergic reactions, but they would be inappropriate in this case as there is no indication of such a reaction. The anti-M2 antibody test is used for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is a rare possibility in this case. A chest x-ray is not a useful first-line test as there is no indication of malignancy. Kidney diseases can give rise to pruritus, but there is no mention of kidney disease here. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history, including any potential risk factors such as IV drug abuse, which may be the source of infection. Further investigations may be necessary depending on the results of initial tests.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
      Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis

      Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), but his symptoms did not improve and his general practitioner prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago. On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
      Which of the following is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin hypersensitivity reaction that can be fatal and affects a large portion of the body’s surface area. It is often caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, and penicillins.

      Morbilliform rash is a milder skin reaction that appears as a generalised rash that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs like penicillin, sulfa drugs, and phenytoin.

      Erythema nodosum is an inflammatory condition that causes painful nodules on the lower extremities. It can be caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and inflammatory bowel disease.

      Fixed drug reaction is a localised allergic reaction that occurs at the same site with repeated drug exposure. It is commonly caused by drugs like aspirin, NSAIDs, and tetracycline.

      Erythema multiforme is characterised by target-like lesions on the palms and soles. It is caused by drugs like penicillins, phenytoin, and NSAIDs, as well as infections like mycoplasma and herpes simplex.

      Understanding Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.

    Scabies is a skin condition...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by tiny mites that burrow into the skin and lay eggs. It is highly contagious and can spread through close physical contact or sharing of personal items such as clothing or bedding. Symptoms include intense itching, rash, and small bumps or blisters on the skin. Treatment typically involves prescription creams or lotions that kill the mites and their eggs. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies to prevent further spread of the condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. The infestation spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact between people, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. Scabies can be transmitted through direct, prolonged, skin-to-skin contact with an infested person, and it can also spread by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, the breast, or shoulder blades. The condition is highly contagious and can easily spread to sexual partners and household members. However, a quick handshake or hug is usually not enough to spread the infestation.

      Fortunately, there are several treatments available for scabies, including permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
      Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.

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      • Dermatology
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