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  • Question 1 - You are reviewing a physically fit 78 year old gentleman in the urology...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a physically fit 78 year old gentleman in the urology outpatient clinic. He initially presented to his GP with an episode of frank haematuria. Urinalysis revealed ongoing microscopic haematuria. Following referral to the urologist, a contrast MRI scan reveals a solitary low risk non-muscle invasive bladder cancer.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Radiotherapy alone

      Correct Answer: Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Low Risk Non-Muscle Invasive Bladder Tumours

      When a patient is diagnosed with a low risk non-muscle invasive bladder tumour, the primary treatment option is surgical resection using the transurethral method. This procedure is likely to be curative, but a single dose of intravesical mitomycin C may be offered as adjunctive therapy. Routine follow-up and surveillance cystoscopies are necessary to monitor for recurrence.

      A radical cystectomy and urostomy formation are reserved for patients with confirmed muscle invasive bladder tumours. Radiotherapy alone is only considered for those who are unfit for a radical cystectomy and have high risk or muscle invasive tumours. Palliative management is not appropriate for patients with curable tumours.

      Intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the treatment of choice for high-risk lesions, but it is not appropriate for low risk tumours. Therefore, surgical resection remains the primary management option for low risk non-muscle invasive bladder tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      29.4
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left testis is found to be normal in size and position, but the right testis cannot be palpated in the scrotum. An ultrasound confirms that the inguinal mass is a cryptorchid testis.
      What is the best course of action for addressing this patient's testicular anomaly?

      Your Answer: Start the patient on testosterone

      Correct Answer: Remove it (orchidectomy)

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Cryptorchidism

      Cryptorchidism, or undescended testis, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. Here are some options for managing this condition:

      1. Orchidectomy: This involves removing the undescended testis, which eliminates the risk of developing seminoma. If the patient is 30 years old or older, the undescended testis is unlikely to be capable of spermatogenesis, so removal should not affect fertility.

      2. Bilateral orchidectomy: This involves removing both testes, but it is not necessary if only one testis is undescended. The opposite testis is not affected by the undescended testis and should be left intact.

      3. Orchidopexy: This is a surgical procedure to place the undescended testis in the scrotum. It is most effective when done before the age of 2, but it does not reduce the risk of developing testicular cancer.

      4. Testosterone therapy: This is not necessary for patients with cryptorchidism, as the Leydig cells in the testicular interstitium continue to produce testosterone.

      5. Chromosome analysis: This is indicated if there is a suspicion of a chromosomal defect, such as testicular feminisation or Klinefelter syndrome.

      In summary, the management of cryptorchidism depends on the individual case and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old man with long-standing multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted due to increasing...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with long-standing multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted due to increasing problems with his care in the community. He is bed-bound with a spastic paraparesis. He is noted to have a permanent 14-gauge urinary catheter in situ and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The family informs the nursing staff that this has not been changed for some time. Your senior colleague wishes for the catheter to be replaced due to recurrent UTIs.
      Which one of the following statements is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: A single dose of prophylactic gentamicin is advisable

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters

      Introduction:
      Permanent indwelling urinary catheters are commonly used in patients with urinary retention or incontinence. However, they can pose a risk of infection and other complications. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices when placing and maintaining these catheters.

      Prophylactic Gentamicin:
      When replacing a permanent catheter, it is recommended to administer a single dose of prophylactic gentamicin to prevent infection.

      Regular Replacement:
      It is essential to have measures in place for regular routine replacement of permanent catheters. This is because they are a foreign body and can be a portal of entry for infection. Urinary sepsis in these patients can be devastating and fatal.

      Same-Sized Catheter:
      When replacing a catheter, it is not necessary to change the size unless there are symptoms of catheter bypass. Increasing the size can cause pain and trauma.

      Local Anaesthetic Gel:
      Even if a patient has paraparesis, local anaesthetic gel must be used during catheter insertion to prevent pain.

      Chaperone:
      It is good practice to offer a chaperone during any intimate examination/procedure. The patient may accept or decline a chaperone. If a chaperone is required, they do not have to be a man as long as there is consent from the patient.

      Regular Replacement Schedule:
      Long-term catheters require changing every 12 weeks due to the design of the catheter and the risk of infection. This can be done in the community by district nurses.

      Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      33.8
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
      What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Raised serum white cell count

      Correct Answer: Microscopic haematuria

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:

      – Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
      – Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
      – A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
      – A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      26
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  • Question 5 - A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she displays tenderness in her left loin. A CT-KUB is conducted, revealing the presence of a renal tract calculus in her left kidney. Where is the most frequent location for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pelvi-ureteric junction

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric junction (VUJ)

      Explanation:

      The Most Common Sites for Urinary Calculi: Understanding the Locations and Symptoms

      Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can occur in various locations within the renal tract. The three most common sites are the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ), within the ureter at the pelvic brim, and the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ), with the latter being the most frequent location. Stones obstructing the PUJ present with mild to severe deep flank pain without radiation to the groin, irritative voiding symptoms, suprapubic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, and stranguria. On the other hand, stones within the ureter cause abrupt, severe colicky pain in the flank and ipsilateral lower abdomen, radiation to the testicles or vulvar area, and intense nausea with or without vomiting. While the renal pelvis and mid-ureter are also possible sites for urinary calculi, they are less common. Stones passed into the bladder are mostly asymptomatic but can rarely cause positional urinary retention. Understanding the locations and symptoms of urinary calculi can aid in prompt diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      20.3
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness. Upon examination, there is mild swelling of the left scrotum with varices resembling a bag of worms in the overlying skin that appears dark red. Scrotal ultrasound confirms the presence of a varicocele on the left side. Which structure is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Testicular artery

      Correct Answer: Pampiniform plexus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Male Reproductive System

      The male reproductive system is a complex network of organs and structures that work together to produce and transport sperm. Here are some key components of this system:

      Pampiniform Plexus: This network of veins runs along the spermatic cord and drains blood from the scrotum. When these veins become dilated, it can result in a condition called varicocele, which may cause a bag of worms sensation in the scrotum.

      Ductus Deferens: This tube-like structure is part of the spermatic cord and carries sperm and seminal fluid from the testis to the ejaculatory duct.

      Processus Vaginalis: This structure can sometimes be present in the groin area and may communicate with the peritoneum. When it does, it can lead to a condition called hydrocele, where fluid accumulates in the scrotum.

      Testicular Artery: This artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the testis. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.

      Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the skin in the upper anterior part of the scrotum and innervates the cremaster muscle. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.

      Understanding the anatomy of the male reproductive system can help in identifying and treating various conditions that may affect it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      20.9
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  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in the area of his glans penis that has been present for 6 hours. Upon examination, the glans penis is red, oedematous, and extremely tender. The foreskin is pulled back, but there is no evidence of scrotal or penile necrosis or redness.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Soak the foreskin and glans penis in a hypertonic solution and attempt to manually replace the foreskin by using gentle, but sustained, distal traction

      Explanation:

      Management of Penile Conditions: Differentiating Paraphimosis and Balanitis

      Penile conditions such as paraphimosis and balanitis require prompt and appropriate management. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted but cannot be replaced, leading to swelling of the glans penis. This is a urological emergency that requires immediate intervention. Treatment involves attempting to manually reduce the foreskin, aided by a hypertonic solution to draw out fluid from the swollen area. Referral to Urology is necessary if reduction is not successful.

      Balanitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the foreskin usually caused by dermatitis or infection with Candida, Gardnerella, or staphylococcal organisms. Symptoms include tenderness and erythema of the glans penis, itching, penile discharge, difficulty with retraction of the foreskin, and difficulty urinating or controlling urine stream. Treatment involves prescribing a 7-day course of hydrocortisone and clotrimazole cream or flucloxacillin if caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      It is important to differentiate between these two conditions and provide appropriate management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old healthy man is being examined before starting a new job. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old healthy man is being examined before starting a new job. During the physical examination, both of his testes are found to be palpable in the scrotum and are normal in size without masses detected. However, the left spermatic cord feels like a ‘bag of worms’. Laboratory tests reveal oligospermia.
      What is the most probable condition that this man is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Spermatocele

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Varicocele, Hydrocele, Testicular Torsion, Spermatocele, and Seminoma are some of the common conditions that affect the testicles. Varicocele is the dilation of veins in the pampiniform venous plexus in the scrotum, which can cause infertility due to a rise in temperature in the testicle. Hydrocele is the accumulation of serous fluid around the testis, which does not affect the sperm count. Testicular torsion is an acute emergency that requires immediate scrotal surgery. Spermatocele is a retention cyst of a tubule in the head of the epididymis, which is harmless and does not affect the sperm count. Seminoma is a germ cell tumour of the testicle, which usually produces a firm mass lesion and has a good prognosis. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions can help in their early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.2
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  • Question 9 - You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower abdominal pain. The patient has a distended abdomen and has not passed urine for eight hours. He is very uncomfortable and has a large palpable bladder extending above the pubic symphysis. A digital rectal examination is performed, which reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and he remains systemically well. He describes increasing difficulty with voiding and poor stream over the past six months, but no other symptoms.
      What is the most likely underlying cause for his urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Urinary Retention in Men

      Urinary retention, the inability to empty the bladder completely, can have various underlying causes. In men, some common conditions that can lead to urinary retention are benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), renal calculi, prostate carcinoma, urinary tract infection, and bladder cancer.

      BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that often occurs with aging. It can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine, causing symptoms such as difficulty starting urination, weak stream, dribbling, and frequent urination. Immediate treatment for acute urinary retention due to BPH may involve inserting a urinary catheter to relieve the pressure and drain the bladder.

      Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause urinary retention if they get stuck in the ureter or bladder neck. The pain from passing a stone can be severe and radiate from the back to the groin. Blood in the urine may also be present.

      Prostate carcinoma, or prostate cancer, can also cause urinary retention if the tumour grows large enough to block the urethra. However, this is not a common presentation of prostate cancer, which usually manifests with other symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, pain, or blood in the semen.

      Urinary tract infection (UTI) can result from incomplete voiding due to BPH or other causes. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning, urgency, frequency, cloudy or foul-smelling urine, and fever. However, not all cases of urinary retention are associated with UTI.

      Bladder cancer is a rare cause of urinary retention, but it can occur if the tumour obstructs the bladder outlet. Bladder cancer may also cause painless hematuria, urinary urgency, or pelvic discomfort.

      In summary, urinary retention in men can have multiple etiologies, and the diagnosis depends on the patient’s history, physical examination, and additional tests such as imaging, urinalysis, or prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing. Prompt evaluation and management of urinary retention are essential to prevent complications such as urinary tract infection, bladder damage, or renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      136.2
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  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During the examination, the doctor notices an abnormality on the right side of the scrotum that feels like a bag of worms. The patient mentions that this has only been present for the past two months and there is no change in the examination when he lies down. What is the recommended next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of the left groin

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters and bladder

      Explanation:

      Medical Imaging Recommendations for Suspected Left Renal Malignancy

      Introduction:
      When a patient presents with a left-sided varicocele, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying left renal malignancy. In this scenario, we will discuss the appropriate medical imaging recommendations for this suspected condition.

      Ultrasound of the Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder:
      A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord, which is dependent on the spermatic vein. In some cases, a left-sided varicocele can be associated with a left renal malignancy. This occurs when a large left renal tumor compresses or invades the left renal vein, causing an obstruction to venous return and resulting in a varicocele. Therefore, an ultrasound of the kidneys is recommended to assess for any potential malignancy.

      Ultrasound of the Liver:
      In this scenario, an ultrasound of the kidneys would be more useful than an ultrasound of the liver, as renal malignancy is suspected.

      Ultrasound of the Left Groin:
      Signs and symptoms of an inguinal hernia include a bulge in the area on either side of the pubic bone, which becomes more obvious when the patient is upright, especially when coughing or straining. However, there are no signs of hernias on clinical examination in this case.

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the Whole Spine:
      MRI of the whole spine is recommended in cases of potential cord compression. However, this is not clinically suspected in this scenario.

      Reassure:
      If a left-sided varicocele does not drain when lying supine, it should be referred for ultrasound to rule out underlying malignancy. The new onset of the varicocele makes this more likely and therefore should be further investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      15.2
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Urology (3/10) 30%
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