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  • Question 1 - A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to...

    Correct

    • A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to have experienced a grade III haemorrhage. The patient's weight is approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological indicators aligns with a diagnosis of grade III haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Urine output of 10 ml/hr

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded when tilting his head upwards. The patient informs you that the symptoms began today upon getting out of bed. The patient describes a sensation of dizziness and a spinning room that lasts for approximately 20 seconds before subsiding. You suspect benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Based on his symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The most suitable initial treatment option for this condition would be the Epley maneuver.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma....

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma. A member of the nursing team hands you the patient's ECG. What ECG findings would you anticipate in a patient with myxoedema coma?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Patients with myxoedema coma often exhibit several common ECG abnormalities. These include bradycardia, a prolonged QT interval, and T wave flattening or inversion. Additionally, severe hypothyroidism (myxoedema) is associated with other ECG findings such as low QRS voltage, conduction blocks, and T wave inversions without ST deviation.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman who is 15-weeks pregnant presents with bothersome hives after coming...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 15-weeks pregnant presents with bothersome hives after coming into contact with latex. The itching is extremely intense, and she is asking for something to alleviate the symptoms.
      Which of the following antihistamines is the most suitable to prescribe to this patient?

      Your Answer: 42%
      Chlorpheniramine

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a common condition that causes a red, raised, itchy rash on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be localized or spread out. Approximately 15% of people will experience urticaria at some point in their lives. There are two forms of urticaria: acute and chronic, with acute being more common.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals seeking treatment for urticaria should be offered a non-sedating antihistamine from the second-generation category. Examples of second-generation antihistamines include cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine, desloratadine, and levocetirizine.

      It is no longer recommended to use conventional first-generation antihistamines like promethazine and chlorpheniramine for urticaria. These medications have short-lasting effects and can cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects. They may also interfere with sleep, learning, and performance, as well as interact negatively with alcohol and other medications. In some cases, lethal overdoses have been reported. Terfenadine and astemizole should also be avoided as they can be harmful to the heart when combined with certain drugs like erythromycin and ketoconazole.

      It is advisable to avoid antihistamines during pregnancy if possible. There is a lack of systematic studies on their safety during pregnancy. However, if an antihistamine is necessary, chlorpheniramine is the recommended choice. For breastfeeding women, loratadine or cetirizine are preferred options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      67.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 year old is brought to the emergency department due to the...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old is brought to the emergency department due to the sudden appearance of a widespread maculopapular rash. The child's parents express concern as they recently visited relatives in Nigeria where there was a measles outbreak. The symptoms are indicative of measles. What is a potentially severe complication associated with measles?

      Your Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

      Explanation:

      SSPE, also known as subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, is a serious and potentially deadly complication that can occur as a result of measles. While pneumonia and otitis media are commonly seen complications of measles, SSPE is much rarer. This condition involves inflammation of the brain and is believed to occur either due to the reactivation of the measles virus or an abnormal immune response to the virus.

      Further Reading:

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.

      Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.

      The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.

      In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.

      When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old doctor that works in your department has recently come back from...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old doctor that works in your department has recently come back from a visit to India and has been having diarrhea 5-10 times per day for the past week. They are also experiencing mild stomach cramps and occasional fevers but have not vomited.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the globe. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience this condition. TD is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Alongside this, individuals often experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.

      Bacteria are the primary culprits behind approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. Among the various organisms, Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is the most frequently identified cause.

      In summary, TD is a common ailment that affects travellers, manifesting as loose stools, abdominal discomfort, and other associated symptoms. Bacterial infections, particularly ETEC, are the leading cause of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left renal angle and her temperature is measured at 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the laboratory.
      What is the MOST SUITABLE antibiotic to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, she is showing signs of sepsis and is pregnant, which makes it necessary to admit her for inpatient treatment.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also recommends considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and intravenous first-line options (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) include amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line option is cefalexin, and intravenous first-line option (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) is cefuroxime. Intravenous second-line options or combining antibacterials should be considered if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, and consultation with a local microbiologist is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and continuous lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her usual period. A CTG is conducted, revealing reduced variability in the fetal heart rate and late decelerations. During the examination, the uterus feels tender and firm.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption, also known as abruptio placentae, occurs when the placental lining separates from the wall of the uterus before delivery and after 20 weeks of gestation.

      In the early stages, there may be no symptoms, but typically abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding develop. Approximately 20% of patients experience a concealed placental abruption, where the haemorrhage is confined within the uterine cavity and the amount of blood loss can be significantly underestimated.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include sudden onset abdominal pain (which can be severe), variable vaginal bleeding, severe or continuous contractions, abdominal tenderness, and an enlarged, tense uterus. The foetus often shows signs of distress, such as reduced movements, increased or decreased fetal heart rate, decreased variability of fetal heart rate, and late decelerations.

      In contrast, placenta praevia is painless and the foetal heart is generally normal. The degree of obstetric shock is usually proportional to the amount of vaginal blood loss. Another clue that the cause of bleeding is placenta praevia rather than placental abruption is that the foetus may have an abnormal presentation or lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity.
      Which of the following symptoms is LEAST likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: SIADH

      Explanation:

      SIADH is a medical condition that is not brought on by lithium toxicity. However, lithium toxicity does have its own distinct set of symptoms. These symptoms include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, ataxia, confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. It is important to note that SIADH and lithium toxicity are separate conditions with their own unique characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are asked to help with a 68-year-old patient who initially arrived at...

    Correct

    • You are asked to help with a 68-year-old patient who initially arrived at the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort and was found to have a slow heart rate before experiencing a cardiac arrest. Which of the following statements about medications used during cardiac arrest and peri-arrest is accurate?

      Your Answer: Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Atropine acts as a blocker for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, making it an antagonist. It is commonly administered during peri-arrest bradycardia. In adults, a dose of 500 mcg is given every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum total dose of 3mg. On the other hand, the initial intravenous dose of amiodarone is 300 mg. Amiodarone works by prolonging repolarization and decreasing myocardial excitability. Additionally, lidocaine functions by blocking sodium channels.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son....

    Correct

    • A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication the son believes he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets over the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What ECG characteristics are linked to digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Downsloping ST depression

      Explanation:

      One way to assess for digoxin toxicity is by examining the patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG) for specific characteristics. In the case of digoxin toxicity, ECG findings may include downsloping ST depression, prolonged QT interval, tall tented T-waves, and possibly delta waves. However, a short PR interval (< 120ms) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Further Reading: Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem. Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 22 year old presents to the emergency department with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old presents to the emergency department with a complaint of hematemesis that started 30 minutes ago. The patient had a tonsillectomy 7 days ago. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 116/68 mmHg
      Pulse: 102 bpm
      Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      Temperature: 36.5ºC

      During examination, fresh clotted blood is visible in the right tonsillar fossa and there is profuse bleeding into the oropharynx. The patient's airway appears to be open. The ENT registrar has been informed and will arrive in approximately 10 minutes after finishing with a patient in the operating room. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Apply alginate ribbon to the bleeding point with Magill's forceps directing the pressure posteriorly

      Correct Answer: Apply adrenaline soaked dental roll to the bleeding point directing the pressure laterally

      Explanation:

      In patients who have undergone tonsillectomy and are experiencing severe bleeding, it is recommended to apply either Co-phenylcaine spray (a combination of lidocaine and phenylephrine) or 1:10,000 adrenaline soaked gauze/dental roll to the bleeding points. This helps to constrict the blood vessels and slow down the bleeding rate.

      To apply topical adrenaline, a dental roll or gauze soaked in 1:10,000 adrenaline solution is used. It is applied to the bleeding point using Magill’s forceps, with pressure directed laterally (not posteriorly). However, this may not be possible if the patient has a strong gag reflex. To minimize the risk of inhalation and facilitate suction, the patient’s head should be tilted to the side and/or forwards.

      For light or intermittent bleeding, hydrogen peroxide gargles can be used. However, they are not recommended for heavy bleeds.

      Further Reading:

      Tonsillectomy is a common procedure performed by ENT surgeons in the UK, with over 50,000 surgeries performed each year. While it is considered routine, there are risks of serious complications, including post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Approximately 5% of patients experience bleeding after the procedure, with most cases being self-limiting. However, severe bleeding can lead to hypovolemia and airway obstruction from clots, which can be life-threatening.

      Post-tonsillectomy bleeding can be classified as primary (reactive) or secondary (delayed). Primary bleeding occurs within 24 hours of the procedure, while secondary bleeding occurs more than 24 hours post-procedure. Secondary bleeding is often caused by factors such as sloughing of eschar, trauma from solid food ingestion, tonsil bed infection, postoperative NSAID usage, or unknown causes.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as vomiting blood, coughing up blood, tasting blood in the throat, finding blood on pillows or bed sheets, or excessive swallowing (especially in children). It is important for clinicians to assess the severity of blood loss, although it can be challenging to accurately estimate in children.

      The ABCDE approach should be used to assess patients, with a focus on airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and evidence of bleeding. Clinicians may use a head torch to identify any bleeding points, which may be actively bleeding or appear as fresh red clots. It is important to note that the tonsillar fossa may appear white or yellow, which is a normal postoperative finding.

      Investigations such as a full blood count, coagulation profile, group and save, and venous blood gas may be performed to assess the patient’s condition. Senior support from ENT or anesthesiology should be called if there is active bleeding.

      Management of post-tonsillectomy bleeding includes positioning the patient upright and keeping them calm, establishing intravenous access, administering fluids and blood products as needed, and administering tranexamic acid to stop bleeding. Bleeding points may require gentle suction removal of fresh clots, and topical medications such as Co-phenylcaine spray or topical adrenaline may be applied to the oropharynx. All patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeding should be assessed by ENT and observed for a prolonged period, typically 12-24 hours.

      If bleeding remains uncontrolled, the patient should be kept nil by mouth in preparation for surgery, and early intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You intend to administer a peripheral nerve block using 1% lidocaine to a...

    Correct

    • You intend to administer a peripheral nerve block using 1% lidocaine to a healthy young female weighing 50 kg. What is the maximum amount of lidocaine that can be given in this scenario?

      Your Answer: 150 mg lidocaine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when lidocaine is administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 500 mg.

      In this particular case, the patient weighs 50 kg, so the maximum safe dose of lidocaine hydrochloride would be 50 multiplied by 3 mg, resulting in a total of 150 mg.

      For more detailed information on lidocaine hydrochloride, you can refer to the BNF section dedicated to this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You diagnose a pediatric trauma patient with a right sided tension pneumothorax and...

    Correct

    • You diagnose a pediatric trauma patient with a right sided tension pneumothorax and plan to perform needle thoracentesis. Which of the following is the most appropriate anatomical landmark to use for needle insertion?

      Your Answer: 5th intercostal space midaxillary line

      Explanation:

      A pneumothorax is an abnormal collection of air in the pleural cavity of the lung. It can be classified by cause as primary spontaneous, secondary spontaneous, or traumatic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs without any obvious cause in the absence of underlying lung disease, while secondary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients with significant underlying lung diseases. Traumatic pneumothorax is caused by trauma to the lung, often from blunt or penetrating chest wall injuries.

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where the collection of air in the pleural cavity expands and compresses normal lung tissue and mediastinal structures. It can be caused by any of the aforementioned types of pneumothorax. Immediate management of tension pneumothorax involves the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring a patent airway, controlling the C-spine, providing supplemental oxygen, establishing IV access for fluid resuscitation, and assessing and managing other injuries.

      Treatment of tension pneumothorax involves needle thoracocentesis as a temporary measure to provide immediate decompression, followed by tube thoracostomy as definitive management. Needle thoracocentesis involves inserting a 14g cannula into the pleural space, typically via the 4th or 5th intercostal space midaxillary line. If the patient is peri-arrest, immediate thoracostomy is advised.

      The pathophysiology of tension pneumothorax involves disruption to the visceral or parietal pleura, allowing air to flow into the pleural space. This can occur through an injury to the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura, or through an entry wound to the external chest wall in the case of a sucking pneumothorax. Injured tissue forms a one-way valve, allowing air to enter the pleural space with inhalation but prohibiting air outflow. This leads to a progressive increase in the volume of non-absorbable intrapleural air with each inspiration, causing pleural volume and pressure to rise within the affected hemithorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to the feet which she sustained whilst removing an item from a lit bonfire. The patient's father is worried she has full thickness burns. Which of the following signs is indicative of a full thickness burn?

      Your Answer: Painless

      Explanation:

      Full thickness burns are devoid of pain as they result in the complete destruction of the superficial nerve endings. These burns usually display characteristics such as a lack of sensation, a coloration of the burnt skin in shades of white, brown, or black, a texture that is waxy or leathery, and a dry appearance without any blistering.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You start cephalexin treatment for a 70-year-old man with a lower respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • You start cephalexin treatment for a 70-year-old man with a lower respiratory tract infection. He has a history of chronic kidney disease, and his glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is currently 9 ml/minute.

      What is the most appropriate course of action when prescribing this medication to this patient?

      Your Answer: No prescribing modification is required

      Correct Answer: The dose frequency should be reduced

      Explanation:

      Cephalexin is a type of cephalosporin medication that is eliminated from the body through the kidneys. Cephalosporin drugs have been linked to direct harm to the kidneys and can build up in individuals with kidney problems.

      The typical dosage for cephalexin is 250 mg taken four times a day. For more severe infections or infections caused by organisms that are less susceptible to the medication, the dosage may be doubled. The manufacturer recommends reducing the frequency of dosing in individuals with kidney impairment. In cases where the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is less than 10 ml/minute, the recommended dosage is 250-500 mg taken once or twice a day, depending on the severity of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe and continuous nausea...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe and continuous nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She is struggling to retain any food and has experienced slight weight loss over the past two weeks. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 103 beats per minute, respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute, blood pressure 113/70 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft and not tender, and a urine dipstick test shows 3+ ketones.
      What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting. This condition can lead to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, malnutrition, and weight loss. It is relatively rare, affecting less than 1% of pregnancies.

      For mild cases of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, dietary adjustments and non-pharmacological measures like consuming ginger or using P6 wrist acupressure can often provide relief.

      In severe cases where heavy ketonuria and severe dehydration are present, hospital admission is usually necessary for intravenous fluid rehydration. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary (CKS) on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy recommends using oral promethazine, oral cyclizine, or oral prochlorperazine as the first-line treatment if an antiemetic is needed. After 24 hours, the situation should be reassessed to determine if the initial treatment is effective. If not, a second-line drug like metoclopramide or ondansetron should be considered.

      It’s important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in patients under the age of 20 due to the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) and histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) can be beneficial for women experiencing significant dyspepsia alongside their nausea and vomiting.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE CKS on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of abnormal...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of abnormal sensations in his right hand. During the history, the patient mentions feeling constantly fatigued and experiencing a weight gain of approximately 10 kg over the last 3 months. Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the leading cause of hypothyroidism in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      In the UK, the most prevalent cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. On a global scale, hypothyroidism is primarily caused by iodine deficiency. However, in areas where iodine levels are sufficient, such as the UK, hypothyroidism and subclinical hypothyroidism are most commonly attributed to autoimmune thyroiditis. This condition can manifest with or without a goitre, known as atrophic thyroiditis.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a bout of hemoptysis. She feels generally unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a bout of hemoptysis. She feels generally unwell and has experienced recent weight loss. Additionally, she has developed a rash. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of asthma last year and allergic rhinitis. On examination, she has a normal body temperature, her blood pressure is 180/95, and she has a purpuric rash primarily on her legs. During chest examination, a few scattered wheezes are heard.

      Recently, she had a blood test, and the results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 23.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
      - Neutrophils: 8.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
      - Lymphocytes: 2.1 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
      - Eosinophils: 15.7 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 107 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
      - Sodium (Na): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K): 4.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine (Creat): 255 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
      - Urea: 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome

      Explanation:

      This individual has presented with haemoptysis and a purpuric rash, alongside a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. Blood tests have revealed elevated inflammatory markers, pronounced eosinophilia, and acute renal failure. The most likely diagnosis in this case is Churg-Strauss syndrome.

      Churg-Strauss syndrome is a rare autoimmune vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. The American College of Rheumatology has established six criteria for diagnosing Churg-Strauss syndrome. The presence of at least four of these criteria is highly indicative of the condition:

      1. Asthma (wheezing, expiratory rhonchi)
      2. Eosinophilia of more than 10% in peripheral blood
      3. Paranasal sinusitis
      4. Pulmonary infiltrates (which may be transient)
      5. Histological confirmation of vasculitis with extravascular eosinophils
      6. Mononeuritis multiplex or polyneuropathy

      Churg-Strauss syndrome can affect various organ systems, with the most common clinical features including:

      – Constitutional symptoms: fever, fatigue, weight loss, and arthralgia
      – Respiratory symptoms: asthma, haemoptysis, allergic rhinitis, and sinusitis
      – Cardiovascular symptoms: heart failure, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction
      – Gastrointestinal symptoms: gastrointestinal bleeding, bowel ischaemia, and appendicitis
      – Dermatological symptoms: purpura, livedo reticularis, and skin nodules
      – Renal symptoms: glomerulonephritis, renal failure, and hypertension
      – Neurological symptoms: mononeuritis multiplex

      Investigations often reveal eosinophilia, anaemia, elevated CRP and ESR, elevated creatinine, and elevated serum IgE levels. Approximately 70% of patients test positive for p-ANCA.

      The mainstay of treatment for Churg-Strauss syndrome is high-dose steroids. In cases with life-threatening complications, cyclophosphamide and azathioprine are often administered.

      Polyarteritis nodosa is another vasculitic disorder that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It can impact the gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, skin, and joints, but it is not typically associated with rhinitis or asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      194
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 21 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. The patient denies having a cough. Upon examination, the patient's temperature is measured at 38.3°C, blood pressure at 122/78 mmHg, and pulse rate at 92 bpm. There is visible white exudate on both tonsils and tenderness and swelling when palpating the lymph nodes around the sternocleidomastoid muscles on both sides.

      What is the CENTOR score for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The CENTOR score is a clinical prediction rule used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a streptococcal infection, which is commonly associated with sore throat. It is based on the presence or absence of four clinical criteria: fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and absence of cough. Each criterion is assigned one point, and the total score ranges from 0 to 4. In this case, the patient has a fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and no cough, resulting in a CENTOR score of 4. A higher score indicates a higher likelihood of a streptococcal infection, and further diagnostic testing or treatment may be warranted.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving in the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 125 bpm, BP is 92/46 mmHg, respiratory rate 35 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 10 ml. She is anxious and slightly confused. The patient weighs approximately 70 kg.
      How would you classify her hemorrhage according to the ATLS hemorrhagic shock classification?

      Your Answer: Class III

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing an increased heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as a decrease in urine output. Additionally, they are feeling anxious and confused. These symptoms indicate that the patient has suffered a class III haemorrhage at this point in time.

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification connects the amount of blood loss to expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg patient. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five liters, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.

      The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is summarized as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, leth

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a hillside overnight. The rescue team informs you that according to the Swiss Staging system, he is at stage II.
      What is the most accurate description of his current medical condition?

      Your Answer: Impaired consciousness without shivering

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature drops below 35°C. It is categorized as mild (32-35°C), moderate (28-32°C), or severe (<28°C). Rescuers at the scene can use the Swiss staging system to describe the condition of victims. The stages range from clearly conscious and shivering to unconscious and not breathing, with death due to irreversible hypothermia being the most severe stage. There are several risk factors for hypothermia, including environmental exposure, unsatisfactory housing, poverty, lack of cold awareness, drugs, alcohol, acute confusion, hypothyroidism, and sepsis. The clinical features of hypothermia vary depending on the severity. At 32-35°C, symptoms may include apathy, amnesia, ataxia, and dysarthria. At 30-32°C, there may be a decreased level of consciousness, hypotension, arrhythmias, respiratory depression, and muscular rigidity. Below 30°C, ventricular fibrillation may occur, especially with excessive movement or invasive procedures. Diagnosing hypothermia involves checking the core temperature using an oesophageal, rectal, or tympanic probe with a low reading thermometer. Rectal and tympanic temperatures may lag behind core temperature and are unreliable in hypothermia. Various investigations should be carried out, including blood tests, blood glucose, amylase, blood cultures, arterial blood gas, ECG, chest X-ray, and CT head if there is suspicion of head injury or CVA. The management of hypothermia involves supporting the ABCs, treating the patient in a warm room, removing wet clothes and drying the skin, monitoring the ECG, providing warmed, humidified oxygen, correcting hypoglycemia with IV glucose, and handling the patient gently to avoid VF arrest. Re-warming methods include passive re-warming with warm blankets or Bair hugger/polythene sheets, surface re-warming with a water bath, core re-warming with heated, humidified oxygen or peritoneal lavage, and extracorporeal re-warming via cardiopulmonary bypass for severe hypothermia/cardiac arrest. In the case of hypothermic cardiac arrest, CPR should be performed with chest compressions and ventilations at standard rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the past ten years and had regular withdrawal bleeds until three years ago.

      What is the MOST suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first step in investigating postmenopausal bleeding is a transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.

      In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. A thicker endometrium indicates a higher likelihood of endometrial cancer. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness threshold of 5 mm is used. If the thickness exceeds this threshold, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer being present.

      For women with postmenopausal bleeding, if the endometrial thickness is uniformly less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%. However, in cases deemed clinically high-risk, additional investigations such as hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should be performed.

      The definitive diagnosis of endometrial cancer is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness exceeds 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended to confirm the presence of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking the morning after pill. She explains that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in seeking the morning after pill. She explains that she had unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) with her long-term partner within the past 48 hours. She is in good health and is eager to resume taking the oral contraceptive pill after addressing this situation.
      What is the BEST choice for her in this case?

      Your Answer: Levonelle 1.5 mg

      Explanation:

      Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.

      The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.

      The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65 year old is brought to the emergency department due to confusion...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old is brought to the emergency department due to confusion and mild fever. It is suspected that the patient has a urinary tract infection. The patient's family member informs you that the patient takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation but is unsure if they have taken it correctly due to confusion. An INR test is conducted and the result comes back as 8.2.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Give vitamin K 1 mg by mouth

      Explanation:

      When the INR (International Normalized Ratio) is above 8 but there is no sign of bleeding, the usual approach is to stop administering warfarin and instead provide oral vitamin K. If the INR is below 8 and there is no evidence of bleeding, it is appropriate to discontinue warfarin. However, if there is evidence of bleeding or the INR exceeds 8, reversal agents are administered. In cases where the INR is greater than 8 without any bleeding, oral vitamin K is typically prescribed at a dosage of 1-5 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Management of High INR with Warfarin

      Major Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 5 mg.
      – Administer 25-50 u/kg four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate.
      – If prothrombin complex concentrate is not available, consider using fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
      – Seek medical attention promptly.

      INR > 8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR > 8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer oral vitamin K 1-5 mg using the intravenous preparation orally.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if any symptoms or concerns arise.

      INR 5.0-8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR 5.0-8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin.
      – Reduce subsequent maintenance dose.
      – Monitor INR closely and seek medical advice if any concerns arise.

      Note: In cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered as it is faster acting than fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Your supervisor requests you to arrange a training session for the new medical...

    Correct

    • Your supervisor requests you to arrange a training session for the new medical interns on diabetes mellitus and hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Glucose levels should be checked 10-15 minutes after administering glucagon

      Explanation:

      After administering any treatment for hypoglycemia, it is important to re-check glucose levels within 10-15 minutes. This allows for a reassessment of the effectiveness of the treatment and the possibility of administering additional treatment if needed. Obesity is a significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes, while most individuals with type 1 diabetes have a body mass index (BMI) below 25 kg/m2. It is crucial to provide carbohydrates promptly after treating hypoglycemia. The correct dose of glucagon for treating hypoglycemia in adults is 1 mg, and the same dose can be used for children aged 9 and above who weigh more than 25kg. HbA1c results between 42 and 47 indicate pre-diabetes.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes Mellitus:
      – Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
      – Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
      – Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
      – Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.

      Hypoglycemia:
      – Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
      – Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
      – Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
      – Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
      – Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.

      Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
      – Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
      – Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
      – Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
      – If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.

      Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.8
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  • Question 27 - There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where...

    Incorrect

    • There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where you are currently teaching. The school administration has been notified, and an emergency situation has been declared.

      Which of the following statements about the coordination at the site of an emergency situation is accurate?

      Your Answer: The Casualty Clearing Station is located within the Gold area

      Correct Answer: Gold command is located at a distant location

      Explanation:

      The Gold-Silver-bronze Hierarchy is utilized to establish the chain of command at the site of a significant incident in the United Kingdom.

      Gold (Strategic):
      The Gold Commander assumes overall control of their organization’s resources at the incident. They are situated at a remote location known as the Gold Command. Ideally, the Gold Commanders for each organization should be co-located, but if that is not feasible, they must maintain constant communication with each other.

      Silver (Tactical):
      The Silver Commander for each organization is the highest-ranking member of each service present at the scene of the major incident. Their responsibility is to manage the available resources at the scene in order to achieve the strategic objectives set by the Gold Commander. They work closely with the Silver Commanders of other organizations and are not directly involved in dealing with the incident itself.

      Bronze (Operational):
      The Bronze Commander directly oversees their organization’s resources at the incident. They collaborate with their staff on the scene of the incident. In cases where the incident is geographically widespread, multiple Bronze commanders may assume responsibility for different areas. In complex incidents, Bronze commanders may share tasks or responsibilities.

      At the scene of the major incident, the Police and Fire Service establish a cordon to restrict access, requiring permission from the appropriate officer to enter. The Silver and Bronze areas are designated within the scene.

      The Silver area is situated within an outer cordon that surrounds the inner cordon. It houses the Casualty Clearing Station (CCS), Ambulance Parking Point, and the service incident commanders for each organization. Medical personnel are only allowed to enter the Silver area if instructed to do so by the MIO (Medical Incident Officer) and if authorized by the service responsible for safety at the scene, typically the Fire Service. Primary triage, evacuation of casualties, and treatment of trapped casualties take place in this area.

      The Bronze area is located within an inner cordon that surrounds the scene of the incident. All medical activities within the Bronze area are directed by the MIO and AIO (Ambulance Incident Officer), who work together. Doctors operate under the command of the MIO, while ambulance personnel are under the command of the AIO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      29.1
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  • Question 28 - You evaluate a 30-year-old patient who has intentionally ingested a large amount of...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old patient who has intentionally ingested a large amount of aspirin. The medical student on rotation in the emergency department inquires about the administration of activated charcoal. What are the indications for using activated charcoal in cases of salicylate overdose?

      Your Answer: Presentation within 1 hour of ingestion and ingested dose >125 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal should be administered in cases of salicylate overdose if the patient arrives at the medical facility within one hour of ingestion and the amount ingested is greater than 125 mg per kilogram of body weight.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and fever. On examination, he has tenderness in the right iliac fossa. He refuses to flex the thigh at the hip, and if you passively extend the thigh, his abdominal pain significantly worsens.

      Which clinical sign is present in this case?

      Your Answer: Psoas sign

      Explanation:

      This patient is showing the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this case, it is most likely due to acute appendicitis.

      To elicit the psoas sign, the thigh of a patient lying on their side with extended knees can be passively extended, or the patient can be asked to actively flex the thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.

      The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they cause friction against the nearby inflamed tissues. This strongly suggests that the appendix is retrocaecal in position.

      There are other clinical signs that support a diagnosis of appendicitis. These include Rovsing’s sign, which is pain in the right lower quadrant when the left lower quadrant is palpated. The obturator sign is pain experienced during internal rotation of the right thigh, indicating a pelvic appendix. Dunphy’s sign is increased pain with coughing, and Markle sign is pain in the right lower quadrant when dropping from standing on the toes to the heels with a jarring landing.

      A positive Murphy’s sign is observed in cases of acute cholecystitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a headache, fever and increasing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a headache, fever and increasing fatigue. He has had a recent flu-like illness but deteriorated this morning. He has marked neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. On examination, you note a petechial rash on his abdomen.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis group B

      Explanation:

      This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      The implementation of a vaccination program for Neisseria meningitidis group C has significantly reduced the prevalence of this particular type. However, a vaccine for group B disease is currently undergoing clinical trials and is not yet accessible for widespread use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after she accidentally spilled a cup of hot tea on her legs and feet. Her upper body is unaffected, but she is crying in agony. Her pain is evaluated using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'intense pain'.
      Which pain relief method is most suitable to be used as a temporary measure until more effective pain relief can be given?

      Your Answer: Inhaled entonox

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue and left-sided deficits in motor eye activity. He has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and a previous ischemic stroke. A CT head scan is undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a left-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral pontine syndrome

      Correct Answer: Weber’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Occlusion of the branches of the basilar artery that supply the midbrain leads to the development of Weber’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by contralateral hemiplegia, which affects the limbs, face, and tongue due to damage to the descending motor tracts within the crus cerebri. Additionally, there are ipsilateral deficits in eye motor activity caused by damage to cranial nerve III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student provides a tentative diagnosis of roseola. What is a frequent complication linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      In patients with roseola, the fever occurs before the rash appears. Therefore, once the rash is present, it is unlikely for the child to experience a febrile convulsion.

      Further Reading:

      Roseola infantum, also known as roseola, exanthem subitum, or sixth disease, is a common disease that affects infants. It is primarily caused by the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B) and less commonly by human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7). Many cases of roseola are asymptomatic, and the disease is typically spread through saliva from an asymptomatic infected individual. The incubation period for roseola is around 10 days.

      Roseola is most commonly seen in children between 6 months and 3 years of age, and studies have shown that as many as 85% of children will have had roseola by the age of 1 year. The clinical features of roseola include a high fever lasting for 2-5 days, accompanied by upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) signs such as rhinorrhea, sinus congestion, sore throat, and cough. After the fever subsides, a maculopapular rash appears, characterized by rose-pink papules on the trunk that may spread to the extremities. The rash is non-itchy and painless and can last from a few hours to a few days. Around 2/3 of patients may also have erythematous papules, known as Nagayama spots, on the soft palate and uvula. Febrile convulsions occur in approximately 10-15% of cases, and diarrhea is commonly seen.

      Management of roseola is usually conservative, with rest, maintaining adequate fluid intake, and taking paracetamol for fever being the main recommendations. The disease is typically mild and self-limiting. However, complications can arise from HHV6 infection, including febrile convulsions, aseptic meningitis, and hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child...

    Correct

    • You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child who has arrested. The team have just started the first cycle of chest compressions and have attached monitoring. You suggest briefly pausing chest compressions to check if the rhythm is shockable.

      How long should the brief pause in chest compressions last?

      Your Answer: ≤ 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      The duration of the pause in chest compressions should be kept short, not exceeding 5 seconds. This applies to both pausing to assess the rhythm and pausing to administer a shock if the rhythm is deemed shockable. It is important to note that a pulse check lasting less than two seconds may fail to detect a palpable pulse, particularly in individuals with a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You are managing a 68-year-old male patient who has been intubated due to...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 68-year-old male patient who has been intubated due to the development of acute severe respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). While adjusting the ventilator settings, your consultant emphasizes the significance of employing lung protective ventilation to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI). What is a crucial element of lung protective ventilation?

      Your Answer: Use low tidal volumes

      Explanation:

      Lung protective ventilation involves several important elements, with low tidal volumes being a crucial component. Specifically, using tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg is recommended to minimize the risk of lung injury. Additionally, it is important to maintain inspiratory pressures, also known as plateau pressure, below 30 cm of water to further protect the lungs. Lastly, permissible hypercapnia, or allowing for higher levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, is another key aspect of lung protective ventilation.

      Further Reading:

      ARDS is a severe form of lung injury that occurs in patients with a predisposing risk factor. It is characterized by the onset of respiratory symptoms within 7 days of a known clinical insult, bilateral opacities on chest X-ray, and respiratory failure that cannot be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. Hypoxemia is also present, as indicated by a specific threshold of the PaO2/FiO2 ratio measured with a minimum requirement of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) ≥5 cm H2O. The severity of ARDS is classified based on the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, with mild, moderate, and severe categories.

      Lung protective ventilation is a set of measures aimed at reducing lung damage that may occur as a result of mechanical ventilation. Mechanical ventilation can cause lung damage through various mechanisms, including high air pressure exerted on lung tissues (barotrauma), over distending the lung (volutrauma), repeated opening and closing of lung units (atelectrauma), and the release of inflammatory mediators that can induce lung injury (biotrauma). These mechanisms collectively contribute to ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI).

      The key components of lung protective ventilation include using low tidal volumes (5-8 ml/kg), maintaining inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) below 30 cm of water, and allowing for permissible hypercapnia. However, there are some contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as an unacceptable level of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia. These factors need to be carefully considered when implementing lung protective ventilation strategies in patients with ARDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 72 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with suspected COVID-19 pneumonia and sepsis. It is decided to intubate him pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation. What class of drug is suxamethonium?

      Your Answer: Depolarising neuromuscular blocker

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium, also called succinylcholine, is currently the sole depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug used in clinical settings. It functions by binding to acetylcholine (Ach) receptors as an agonist. Unlike acetylcholine, it is not broken down by acetylcholinesterase, leading to a longer duration of binding and prolonged inhibition of neuromuscular transmission. Eventually, it is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase).

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      83.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department (ED) experiencing seizures...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department (ED) experiencing seizures that have lasted for 40 minutes before his arrival. On arrival, he is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. He is a known epileptic and is currently taking phenobarbital for seizure prevention. He has received a single dose of rectal diazepam by the paramedics on the way to the hospital approximately 15 minutes ago. Upon arrival in the ED, intravenous access is established, and a dose of IV lorazepam is administered. After an additional 15 minutes, a fosphenytoin infusion is started. Another 25 minutes have passed, and he has not responded to the previous treatment.

      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?

      Your Answer: Phenobarbital bolus

      Correct Answer: Thiopental sodium bolus

      Explanation:

      Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In this case, the patient has already received two doses of benzodiazepine and is currently on a phenytoin infusion. However, despite these treatments, the seizures persist, and it has been 20 minutes since the infusion started. At this point, the preferred treatment option is to induce general anesthesia. The induction agents that can be considered include thiopental sodium, propofol, and midazolam. There is no need to administer intravenous thiamine in this situation.

      The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:

      1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
      – Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
      – Administer oxygen
      – Assess cardiorespiratory function
      – Establish intravenous access

      2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
      – Implement regular monitoring
      – Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
      – Initiate emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
      – Perform emergency investigations
      – Administer glucose or intravenous thiamine if alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition is suspected
      – Treat severe acidosis if present

      3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
      – Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
      – Notify the anesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
      – Identify and treat any medical complications
      – Consider pressor therapy if necessary

      4th stage (30-90 minutes):
      – Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
      – Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
      – Initiate long-term maintenance AED therapy
      – Perform further investigations as needed, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture

      Emergency investigations include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium levels, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be done to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations depend on the clinical circumstances and may include brain imaging or lumbar puncture.

      Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 68-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication, the son suspects he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. Which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to triggering digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin toxicity can be triggered by hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the body. This occurs because digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites, and when potassium levels are low, there is less competition for digoxin to bind to these sites. Additionally, other factors such as hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, and acidosis can also contribute to digoxin toxicity.

      Further Reading:

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.

      ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, difficulty with coordination in her right arm, and difficulty speaking.
      Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring. Some of the lesions have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing general malaise, joint pain, and a feverish feeling. You take his temperature and it is currently 39°C.
      What is the MOST appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.

      The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:

      – Sudden and abrupt onset
      – Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
      – Often painful lesions
      – Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
      – Severe acne scarring
      – Fluctuating fever
      – Painful joints and arthropathy
      – General feeling of illness (malaise)
      – Loss of appetite and weight loss
      – Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)

      It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling ill. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is a concern for infective endocarditis. What is the most characteristic clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages

      Correct Answer: Fever

      Explanation:

      The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is fever, which occurs in the majority of cases and is consistently present throughout the course of the disease. Cardiac murmurs are also frequently detected, although they may only be present in one third of patients at the initial presentation. Individuals who use intravenous drugs often develop right-sided disease affecting the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, making it challenging to detect cardiac murmurs in these cases. Splinter hemorrhages and other symptoms may also be observed.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - You are part of the team managing a pediatric trauma patient in the...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the team managing a pediatric trauma patient in the resuscitation room. You are assisting the attending physician who is performing rapid sequence induction. The attending physician asks you to apply cricoid pressure. What is the recommended amount of pressure that should be applied to the cricoid?

      Your Answer: 10-20 Newtons

      Correct Answer: 30-40 Newtons

      Explanation:

      To prevent the aspiration of gastric contents, it is recommended to apply a force of 30-40 Newtons to the cricoid cartilage during cricoid pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.

      Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?

      Your Answer: Taenia saginata

      Correct Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain began this morning and is described as the most severe pain she has ever felt. It has progressively worsened over the past 8 hours. She is unable to wear socks or shoes and had to come to the appointment in open-toed sandals. The skin over the affected area appears red and shiny.

      What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      The guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) regarding the diagnosis of gout state that if a joint becomes swollen, tender, and red, and if acute pain develops in that joint over a period of 6-12 hours, it is highly likely to be a crystal arthropathy. Pseudogout is also a possibility, but it is much less likely. In this case, gout is the most probable diagnosis.

      The joint that is most commonly affected in acute gout is the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint, which accounts for 50-75% of cases.

      The main cause of gout is hyperuricaemia, and the clinical diagnosis can be confirmed by the presence of negatively birefringent crystals in the synovial fluid aspirate.

      For the treatment of acute gout attacks, NSAIDs or colchicine are generally used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a foul-smelling vaginal discharge and itching in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a foul-smelling vaginal discharge and itching in the vulva area. She also experiences pain during urination but does not have an increased need to urinate. She has a 4-week-old baby whom she is currently nursing.

      What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is vaginal thrush. Vaginal thrush is characterized by symptoms such as vulval irritation and itching, vulval redness, and a discharge that is often described as cheesy. Some women may also experience dysuria, which is pain or discomfort during urination, but without an increase in frequency or urgency. The recommended treatment for vaginal thrush is the use of antifungal agents, with topical azoles like clotrimazole or miconazole being commonly prescribed. It is important to note that breastfeeding patients should avoid taking oral terbinafine as it can pass into breast milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after being hit in the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after being hit in the jaw during a soccer game. She is experiencing pain and swelling in her jaw.
      Where is the mandible most frequently fractured in terms of anatomical locations?

      Your Answer: Angle of the mandible

      Explanation:

      Mandibular fractures are quite common, especially among young men. The most common cause of these fractures is assault, but they can also occur due to sporting injuries, motor vehicle accidents, and falls. The mandible and skull together form a complete bony ring, with the only interruption being the temporomandibular joints (TMJs). While it is expected that mandibular fractures would occur in two places, sometimes they only occur in one location. The most frequently affected areas are the angle of the mandible (27%), mandibular symphysis (21%), mandibular condylar and subcondylar (18%), body of the mandible (15%), ramus of the mandible (5%), coronoid process (1-3%), and alveolar ridge (2%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a diastolic murmur.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a diastolic murmur.
      Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a diastolic murmur?

      Your Answer: Atrial myxoma

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid regurgitation leads to a pansystolic murmur that is most pronounced in the tricuspid area during inhalation. The primary cause of tricuspid regurgitation is right ventricular failure.

      Other clinical signs that may be present in tricuspid regurgitation include a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP) and giant C-V waves. Additionally, features of increased right atrial pressure, such as ascites and dependent edema, may be observed. Pulsatile hepatomegaly and a thrill at the left sternal edge are also possible indicators. Reverse splitting of the second heart sound, due to early closure of the pulmonary valve, and a third heart sound, caused by rapid right ventricular filling, may be heard as well.

      Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, produces an early diastolic murmur that is most audible at the lower left sternal edge when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.

      In the case of mitral stenosis, a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur is best heard at the apex while the patient is in the left lateral position and exhaling, using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Atrial myxomas are benign tumors that can develop in the heart. Most commonly found on the left side, they may obstruct the mitral valve, resulting in a mid-diastolic murmur similar to that of mitral stenosis.

      Lastly, left anterior descending artery stenosis can cause an early diastolic murmur, also known as Dock’s murmur. This murmur is similar to that of aortic regurgitation and is best heard at the left 2nd or 3rd intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent urination, and blurred vision. His blood glucose levels are elevated at 250 mg/dL. He currently takes insulin injections and metformin for his diabetes. You organize for a urine sample to be taken and find that his ketone levels are markedly elevated, and he also has biochemical abnormalities evident.
      Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is LEAST likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute poisoning rather than chronic overexposure. The primary clinical features of theophylline toxicity include headache, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, tachycardia and dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphataemia, hypo- or hypercalcaemia, and hyperglycaemia. Seizures are more prevalent in cases of acute overdose compared to chronic overexposure. In contrast, chronic theophylline overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more frequently observed in individuals who have experienced chronic overdose rather than acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis. She has noticeable stridor when upset but none at rest and mild chest retractions are present. Her level of consciousness is normal, and her air entry is normal on chest examination, with no evidence of any crackles. Her SaO2 is 96% on air and does not decrease when upset.
      What is this child's Westley croup score?

      Your Answer: 4 points

      Correct Answer: 2 points

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is usually a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms reach their peak at 1-3 days, with the cough often being worse at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly used. Nebulized budesonide can be an alternative if the child is experiencing vomiting. However, it’s important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who are experiencing increasing respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness/agitation. The Westley croup score is a useful tool for assessing the child’s condition and making appropriate management decisions. Children with moderate (score 2-7) or severe croup (score >7) may require hospital admission. On the other hand, many children with mild croup (score 0-1) can be safely discharged and treated at home.

      The Westley croup score is determined based on the following criteria: the presence of stridor when agitated, the severity of retractions, air entry, SaO2 levels below 92%, and the child’s conscious level. In this particular case, the child’s Westley croup score is 2 points, indicating the presence of stridor when agitated and mild retractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after...

    Correct

    • A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after developing severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient rates the severity as 10/10 on the visual analogue scale. You note the patient is prescribed medication for hypertension but the patient admits she rarely takes her tablets. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 180/88 mmHg
      Pulse rate 92 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 rpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. You prescribe antihypertensive therapy. What is the target systolic blood pressure in this patient?

      Your Answer: 100-120 mmHg

      Explanation:

      To manage aortic dissection, it is important to lower the systolic blood pressure to a range of 100-120 mmHg. This helps decrease the strain on the damaged artery and minimizes the chances of the dissection spreading further. In this patient, symptoms such as tearing chest pain and a widened mediastinum on the chest X-ray are consistent with aortic dissection.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - You are managing an elderly trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. The patient...

    Correct

    • You are managing an elderly trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. The patient has sustained severe chest contusions and you have concerns regarding the presence of cardiac tamponade. What is considered a classic clinical sign of cardiac tamponade?

      Your Answer: Neck vein distension

      Explanation:

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by several classic clinical signs. These include distended neck veins, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. These three signs are collectively known as Beck’s triad. Additionally, patients with cardiac tamponade may also experience pulseless electrical activity (PEA). It is important to recognize these signs as they can indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 21-year-old man comes in with a suddenly painful and swollen right testis...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man comes in with a suddenly painful and swollen right testis and intense abdominal pain. The pain started while he was asleep, and he has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. His cremasteric reflex is not present, and the testis is too sensitive to touch.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is the correct diagnosis in this case. When a patient presents with sudden, severe, and acute testicular pain, testicular torsion should be assumed until proven otherwise. There are several historical factors that support this diagnosis. These include the pain occurring suddenly, being accompanied by vomiting, happening during sleep (as half of torsions occur during sleep), a previous history of torsion in the other testis, previous episodes that have resolved recently, and a history of undescended testis.

      On examination, there are certain findings that further suggest testicular torsion. The testis may be positioned high in the scrotum and too tender to touch. The opposite testis may lie horizontally (known as Angell’s sign). Pain is not relieved by elevating the testis (negative Prehn’s sign), and the cremasteric reflex may be absent.

      It is important to recognize that testicular torsion is a surgical emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention to restore blood flow. Irreversible damage can occur within six hours of onset, so prompt treatment is crucial in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 42-year-old male patient with epilepsy complains of feeling down. You observe that...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient with epilepsy complains of feeling down. You observe that he has rough facial features, gum hypertrophy, and noticeable facial acne. Additionally, he exhibits an unsteady gait while walking.
      Which ONE anti-epileptic medication is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is a potent anti-epileptic drug that is no longer recommended as the initial treatment for generalized or partial epilepsy due to its toxic effects. Users often experience common symptoms such as ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, tremor, and dysarthria. Additionally, other side effects may include depression, decreased cognitive abilities, coarse facial features, acne, gum enlargement, polyneuropathy, and blood disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 4 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a 24 hour history of diarrhoea and vomiting. The patient's father informs you that several of the child's preschool classmates have experienced a similar illness in the past few days. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.

      Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.

      When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.

      In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.

      Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.

      Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning, she describes a right-sided, severe, throbbing headache. She has had similar symptoms previously but feels that this is the worst she has ever had. Her work is very stressful at the moment. She has also vomited this morning. Her husband is with her and is anxious as his mother has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumor. He is really worried that his wife might have the same. On examination, the patient is normotensive with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute, regular. Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, as is the examination of her peripheral nervous system. She has no scalp tenderness.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Migraine without aura typically needs to meet the specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include experiencing at least five attacks that meet the requirements outlined in criteria 2-4. The duration of these headache attacks should last between 4 to 72 hours. Additionally, the headache should exhibit at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity. Furthermore, during the headache, individuals should experience at least one of the following symptoms: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. For more detailed information, you can refer to the guidelines provided by The British Association for the Study of Headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of a sore throat and fever. The patient denies having a cough. On examination, the patient's temperature is 37.9°C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 bpm. There is visible white exudate on both tonsils, which are severely inflamed, and tenderness on palpation of the lymph nodes around the sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally.

      What is this patient's FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a clinical scoring system that helps determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and whether antibiotic treatment is necessary. It consists of several criteria that are assessed to assign a score.

      Firstly, if the patient has a fever higher than 38°C, they score 0 or 1 depending on the presence or absence of this symptom.

      Secondly, the presence of purulence, such as pharyngeal or tonsillar exudate, results in a score of 1.

      Thirdly, if the patient sought medical attention within 3 days or less, they score 1.

      Fourthly, if the patient has severely inflamed tonsils, they score 1.

      Lastly, if the patient does not have a cough or coryza (nasal congestion), they score 1.

      By adding up the scores from each criterion, the FeverPAIN score can help healthcare professionals determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and guide the decision on whether antibiotic treatment is necessary. In this particular case, the patient has a score of 4.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in a neighbor's backyard. It is suspected that the patient had consumed alcohol at a nearby club and opted to walk home in the snowy conditions. The patient's temperature is documented as 27.8ºC. The nurse connects leads to conduct a 12-lead ECG. Which of the subsequent ECG alterations is most closely linked to hypothermia?

      Your Answer: Osborn waves

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). These changes include a slower heart rate (bradycardia), the presence of Osborn Waves (also known as J waves), a prolonged PR interval, a widened QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Additionally, the ECG may show artifacts caused by shivering, as well as the presence of ventricular ectopics. In severe cases, hypothermia can lead to cardiac arrest, which may manifest as ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF), or asystole.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on...

    Correct

    • You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on head injuries & increased intracranial pressure. What is the intracranial volume of a typical adult?

      Your Answer: 1400ml

      Explanation:

      On average, the intracranial volume in adults is around 1400ml.

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.7
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  • Question 59 - You finish evaluating a 32-year-old individual who has been brought to the emergency...

    Correct

    • You finish evaluating a 32-year-old individual who has been brought to the emergency department after being involved in a physical altercation. You suspect that the patient may have a fractured mandible. What would be the most suitable examination to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orthopantomogram

      Explanation:

      The OPG is the recommended first-line imaging test for diagnosing TMJ dislocation and mandibular fractures.

      Further Reading:

      Mandibular fractures are a common type of facial fracture that often present to the emergency department. The mandible, or lower jaw, is formed by the fusion of two hemimandibles and articulates with the temporomandibular joints. Fractures of the mandible are typically caused by direct lateral force and often involve multiple fracture sites, including the body, condylar head and neck, and ramus.

      When assessing for mandibular fractures, clinicians should use a look, feel, move method similar to musculoskeletal examination. However, it is important to note that TMJ effusion, muscle spasm, and pain can make moving the mandible difficult. Key signs of mandibular fracture include malocclusion, trismus (limited mouth opening), pain with the mouth closed, broken teeth, step deformity, hematoma in the sublingual space, lacerations to the gum mucosa, and bleeding from the ear.

      The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule uses the absence of five exam findings (malocclusion, trismus, broken teeth, pain with closed mouth, and step deformity) to exclude mandibular fracture. This rule has been found to be 100% sensitive and 39% specific in detecting mandibular fractures. Imaging is an important tool in diagnosing mandibular fractures, with an OPG X-ray considered the best initial imaging for TMJ dislocation and mandibular fracture. CT may be used if the OPG is technically difficult or if a CT is being performed for other reasons, such as a head injury.

      It is important to note that head injury often accompanies mandibular fractures, so a thorough head injury assessment should be performed. Additionally, about a quarter of patients with mandibular fractures will also have a fracture of at least one other facial bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus....

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus. It is decided to administer intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction, and your consultant requests you to prepare the medication. What is a frequently observed side effect of ketamine?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine administration can lead to various side effects, including nystagmus and diplopia. Other potential side effects include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations or emergence phenomena, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, and abnormal tonic-clonic movements.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department during a heatwave after being discovered collapsed while wearing running attire. The patient appears confused and is unable to provide coherent responses to questions. A core body temperature of 41.6ºC is recorded. You determine that immediate active cooling methods are necessary. Which of the following medications is appropriate for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are helpful in reducing shivering and improving the effectiveness of active cooling techniques. They are particularly useful in controlling seizures and making cooling more tolerable for patients. By administering small doses of intravenous benzodiazepines like diazepam or midazolam, shivering can be reduced, which in turn prevents heat gain and enhances the cooling process. On the other hand, dantrolene does not currently have any role in managing heat stroke. Additionally, antipyretics are not effective in reducing high body temperature caused by excessive heat. They only work when the core body temperature is elevated due to pyrogens.

      Further Reading:

      Heat Stroke:
      – Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
      – Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
      – Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
      – Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
      – Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
      – Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
      – Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
      – Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°C

      Heat Exhaustion:
      – Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
      – Core temperature elevated but <40°C
      – Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
      – Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
      – Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and rest

      Other Heat-Related Illnesses:
      – Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
      – Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
      – Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydration

      Risk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
      – Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factors

      Management:
      – Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
      – Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
      – Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
      – Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
      – Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
      – Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      0
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  • Question 62 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Following assessment you order an X-ray of the wrist which confirms a dorsally angulated extra-articular fracture of the right distal radius. You also observe cortical thinning and increased radiolucency of the bone and consider the possibility of underlying osteoporosis. What is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopause

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis and fragility fractures are more likely to occur in individuals with low levels of estrogen. Menopause, which causes a decrease in estrogen, can lead to estrogen deficiency. Estrogen plays a role in preventing bone breakdown by inhibiting osteoclast activity. After menopause, there is an increase in osteoclast activity, resulting in a rapid decline in bone mineral density. Osteoporosis is also associated with the long-term use of corticosteroids.

      Further Reading:

      Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.

      Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.

      The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.

      There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.

      Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.

      Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.

      Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 63 - You are a member of the trauma team and have been assigned the...

    Incorrect

    • You are a member of the trauma team and have been assigned the task of inserting an arterial line into the right radial artery. When inserting the radial artery line, what is the angle at which the catheter needle is initially advanced in relation to the skin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30-45 degrees

      Explanation:

      The arterial line needle is inserted into the skin at an angle between 30 and 45 degrees. For a more detailed demonstration, please refer to the video provided in the media links section.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial line insertion is a procedure used to monitor arterial blood pressure continuously and obtain frequent blood gas samples. It is typically done when non-invasive blood pressure monitoring is not possible or when there is an anticipation of hemodynamic instability. The most common site for arterial line insertion is the radial artery, although other sites such as the ulnar, brachial, axillary, posterior tibial, femoral, and dorsalis pedis arteries can also be used.

      The radial artery is preferred for arterial line insertion due to its superficial location, ease of identification and access, and lower complication rate compared to other sites. Before inserting the arterial line, it is important to perform Allen’s test to check for collateral circulation to the hand.

      The procedure begins by identifying the artery by palpating the pulse at the wrist and confirming its position with doppler ultrasound if necessary. The wrist is then positioned dorsiflexed, and the skin is prepared and aseptic technique is maintained throughout the procedure. Local anesthesia is infiltrated at the insertion site, and the catheter needle is inserted at an angle of 30-45 degrees to the skin. Once flashback of pulsatile blood is seen, the catheter angle is flattened and advanced a few millimeters into the artery. Alternatively, a guide wire can be used with an over the wire technique.

      After the catheter is advanced, the needle is withdrawn, and the catheter is connected to the transducer system and secured in place with sutures. It is important to be aware of absolute and relative contraindications to arterial line placement, as well as potential complications such as infection, thrombosis, hemorrhage, emboli, pseudo-aneurysm formation, AV fistula formation, arterial dissection, and nerve injury/compression.

      Overall, arterial line insertion is a valuable procedure for continuous arterial blood pressure monitoring and frequent blood gas sampling, and the radial artery is the most commonly used site due to its accessibility and lower complication rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      0
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  • Question 64 - A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to their initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer a second nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide. How long would it take for the ipratropium bromide to have its maximum effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is a medication that falls under the category of antimuscarinic drugs. It is commonly used to manage acute asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it can provide short-term relief for chronic asthma, it is generally recommended to use short-acting β2 agonists as they act more quickly and are preferred.

      According to the guidelines set by the British Thoracic Society (BTS), nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) can be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.

      For mild cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief, as long as the patient is not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug like tiotropium. The maximum effect of ipratropium occurs within 30-60 minutes after use, and its bronchodilating effects can last for 3-6 hours. Typically, treatment with ipratropium is recommended three times a day to maintain bronchodilation.

      The most common side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Other potential side effects include constipation, cough, paroxysmal bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. It is important to note that ipratropium can cause urinary retention in patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction. Additionally, it can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients.

      For more information on the management of asthma, it is recommended to refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 65 - You evaluate a 82 year old who has been admitted to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 82 year old who has been admitted to the emergency department due to high fever and worsening disorientation in the past few days. During chest examination, you observe left basal crackles. A chest X-ray confirms the presence of pneumonia. Your diagnosis is pneumonia with suspected sepsis. What is the mortality rate linked to sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      The mortality rate linked to sepsis can vary depending on various factors such as the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the infection. However, on average, the mortality rate for sepsis is estimated to be around 30%.

      Further Reading:

      There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.

      The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.

      To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.

      There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.

      NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 66 - A 40-year-old man presents very sick with an acute worsening of his asthma.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents very sick with an acute worsening of his asthma.
      Which of the following is not advised in the management of acute asthma in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised magnesium

      Explanation:

      Currently, there is no evidence to support the use of nebulised magnesium sulphate in the treatment of adults with asthma. For adults experiencing acute asthma, the recommended drug doses are as follows:

      – Salbutamol: 5 mg administered through an oxygen-driven nebuliser.
      – Ipratropium bromide: 500 mcg delivered via an oxygen-driven nebuliser.
      – Prednisolone: 40-50 mg taken orally.
      – Hydrocortisone: 100 mg administered intravenously.
      – Magnesium sulphate: 1.2-2 g given intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.

      Intravenous salbutamol may be considered (250 mcg administered slowly) only when inhaled therapy is not possible, such as when a patient is receiving bag-mask ventilation.

      According to the current ALS guidelines, IV aminophylline can be considered in cases of severe or life-threatening asthma, following senior advice. If used, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be given over 20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 500-700 mcg/kg/hour. It is important to maintain serum theophylline levels below 20 mcg/ml to prevent toxicity.

      For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - You examine the X-ray of a 70 year old male who has fallen...

    Incorrect

    • You examine the X-ray of a 70 year old male who has fallen onto his outstretched right hand. The X-ray confirms a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). The patient's blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and his pulse rate is 75 bpm. What inflation pressure would you use when inflating the cuff?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 250 mmHg

      Explanation:

      During Bier’s block, the cuff is inflated to a pressure that is 100 mmHg higher than the patient’s systolic blood pressure. For example, if the systolic blood pressure is 150 mmHg, the cuff would be inflated to 250 mmHg. It is important to note that Bier’s block should not be performed if the systolic blood pressure is greater than 200 mmHg, as this is considered a contraindication. Therefore, the maximum pressure ever used during Bier’s block is 300mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 68 - A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department (ED) with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department (ED) with a decreased level of consciousness. An arterial blood gas sample is collected. The results are as follows:

      pH 7.21
      pO2 12.6 kPa
      pCO2 6.9 kPa
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L
      Chloride 96 mmol/L
      Potassium 5.4 mmol/L
      Sodium 135 mmol/L

      Which of the following options best describes the acid-base disturbance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed acidosis

      Explanation:

      In cases of mixed acidosis, both the respiratory and metabolic systems play a role in causing the low pH levels. This means that the patient’s acidotic state is a result of both low bicarbonate levels in the metabolic system and high levels of CO2 in the respiratory system.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 69 - You are requested to evaluate a teenager who is in resus with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a teenager who is in resus with a supraventricular tachycardia. The patient is stable hemodynamically but has already received 3 doses of IV adenosine and vagal maneuvers. However, there has been no improvement in their condition.
      Based on the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give IV amiodarone 5-10 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is the most common arrhythmia that occurs in children and infants, causing cardiovascular instability. According to the current APLS guidelines, if a patient with SVT shows no signs of shock and remains stable, initial attempts should be made to use vagal maneuvers. If these maneuvers are unsuccessful, the following steps are recommended:

      – Administer an initial dose of 100 mcg/kg of adenosine.
      – After two minutes, if the child is still in stable SVT, administer another dose of 200 mcg/kg of adenosine.
      – After an additional two minutes, if the child remains in stable SVT, administer another dose of 300 mcg/kg of adenosine.

      If these measures do not resolve the SVT, the guidelines suggest considering the following options:

      – Administer adenosine at a dose of 400-500 mcg/kg.
      – Perform a synchronous DC shock.
      – Administer amiodarone.

      When using amiodarone, the initial dose should be 5-10 mg/kg given over a period of 20 minutes to 2 hours. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 300 mcg/kg/hour, with adjustments made based on the response, increasing by 1.5 mg/kg/hour. The total infusion rate should not exceed 1.2 g in a 24-hour period.

      If defibrillation is necessary for the treatment of SVT in children, it should be performed as a DC synchronous shock at a dosage of 1-2 J/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 70 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing numbness and weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing numbness and weakness in his legs over the past 4 days. The symptoms seem to be spreading upwards towards his thighs, and he has also noticed some weakness in his hands. He mentions that he had a bad bout of diarrhea about three weeks ago, but otherwise, he has been healthy. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). GBS typically presents with initial symptoms of sensory changes or pain, accompanied by muscle weakness in the hands and/or feet. This weakness often spreads to the arms and upper body, affecting both sides. During the acute phase, GBS can be life-threatening, with around 15% of patients experiencing respiratory muscle weakness and requiring mechanical ventilation.

      The exact cause of GBS is unknown, but it is believed to involve an autoimmune response where the body’s immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding the peripheral nerves. In about 75% of cases, there is a preceding infection, commonly affecting the gastrointestinal or respiratory tracts.

      In this particular case, the most likely underlying cause is Campylobacter jejuni, a gastrointestinal pathogen. This is supported by the recent history of a severe diarrheal illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 71 - A 10-month-old child is brought in to the Emergency Department with a high...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old child is brought in to the Emergency Department with a high temperature and difficulty breathing. You measure his respiratory rate and note that it is elevated.
      According to the NICE guidelines, what is considered to be the threshold for tachypnoea in an infant of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: RR >50 breaths/minute

      Explanation:

      According to the current NICE guidelines on febrile illness in children under the age of 5, there are certain symptoms and signs that may indicate the presence of pneumonia. These include tachypnoea, which is a rapid breathing rate. For infants aged 0-5 months, a respiratory rate (RR) of over 60 breaths per minute is considered suggestive of pneumonia. For infants aged 6-12 months, an RR of over 50 breaths per minute is indicative, and for children older than 12 months, an RR of over 40 breaths per minute may suggest pneumonia.

      Other signs that may point towards pneumonia include crackles in the chest, nasal flaring, chest indrawing, and cyanosis. Crackles are abnormal sounds heard during breathing, while nasal flaring refers to the widening of the nostrils during breathing. Chest indrawing is the inward movement of the chest wall during inhalation, and cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygen supply.

      Additionally, a low oxygen saturation level of less than 95% while breathing air is also considered suggestive of pneumonia. These guidelines can be found in more detail in the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 72 - A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed medication for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures.
      What is the recommended initial treatment for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Oral bisphosphonates are the primary choice for treating osteoporotic fragility fractures in individuals who have already experienced such fractures. After a fragility fracture, it is advised to start taking a bisphosphonate, typically alendronic acid, and consider supplementing with calcium and vitamin D.

      There are other treatment options available for preventing fragility fractures after an initial occurrence. These include raloxifene, teriparatide, and denosumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 73 - A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department with a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department with a painful burning skin rash. She has been feeling unwell for the past 2 to 3 days, experiencing a mild fever, headache, cough, and lethargy before the rash appeared. The patient recently started taking sulfasalazine one week ago for the treatment of ulcerative colitis.

      Upon examination, the patient exhibits dark centred macules and blisters primarily on the face, neck, and upper body. The conjunctiva of her eyes appear red, and there are ulcers on her tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      The initial stage of SJS is characterized by a rash on the skin, specifically on the macular area. As the condition progresses, the rash transforms into blisters, known as bullae, which eventually detach from the skin.

      Further Reading:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) are severe mucocutaneous immune reactions characterized by blistering skin rash and erosions/ulceration of mucous membranes. SJS has less than 10% total body surface area (TBSA) involvement, SJS/TEN overlap has 10% to 30% TBSA involvement, and TEN has more than 30% TBSA involvement. The exact cause of SJS and TEN is not well understood, but it is believed to be a T-cell–mediated cytotoxic reaction triggered by drugs, infections, or vaccinations. Drugs are responsible for 50% of SJS cases and up to 95% of TEN cases, with antibiotics and anticonvulsants being the most common culprits.

      The clinical features of SJS and TEN include a prodrome of malaise, fever, headache, and cough, followed by the appearance of small pink-red macules with darker centers. These macules can coalesce and develop into larger blisters (bullae) that eventually break and cause the epidermis to slough off. Painful mucosal erosions can also occur, affecting various parts of the body and leading to complications such as renal failure, hepatitis, pneumonia, and urethritis. Nikolsky’s sign, which refers to the easy sloughing off of the epidermal layer with pressure, is a characteristic feature of SJS and TEN.

      The diagnosis of SJS, SJS/TEN overlap, and TEN can be confirmed through a skin biopsy, which typically shows desquamation at the epidermal-papillary dermal junction and the presence of necrotic epithelium and lymphocytes. Management of SJS and TEN involves supportive care, withdrawal of the causative agent if drug-related, monitoring for metabolic derangement and infection, maintaining the airway, treating respiratory function and pneumonia, fluid resuscitation, wound care, analgesia, and nutritional support. Ophthalmology consultation is also recommended. Intravenous immunoglobulin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, and plasmapheresis may be used in treatment, but there is limited evidence supporting their effectiveness.

      The prognosis of SJS and TEN can be assessed using the SCORTEN score, which comprises of 7 clinical and biological parameters, with the predicted probability of mortality ranging from 3.2% to 90.0%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 74 - Large numbers of casualties are observed after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological,...

    Incorrect

    • Large numbers of casualties are observed after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. Which combination of clinical features is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis, bronchorrhoea, salivation and muscle weakness

      Explanation:

      The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.

      The first compounds to be created are called the G agents (G stands for German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).

      In the 1950s, the V agents (V stands for venomous) were synthesized and are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).

      One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 died.

      Nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

      Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.

      The clinical features observed after exposure are a result of a combination of muscarinic, nicotinic, and central nervous system effects.

      Muscarinic effects (DUMBBELS):
      – Diarrhea
      – Urination
      – Miosis
      – Bronchorrhea
      – Bronchospasm
      – Emesis
      – Lacrimation
      – Salivation
      Plus bradycardia and hypotension.

      Nicotinic effects:
      – Sweating
      – Tremor
      – Fasciculations
      – Muscle weakness
      – Flaccid paralysis

      Central nervous system effects:
      – Agitation and irritability
      – Amnesia
      – Ataxia
      – Respiratory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
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  • Question 75 - A 3-year-old child is brought in by ambulance to the resus area of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought in by ambulance to the resus area of your Emergency Department. They have been convulsing for the past 5 minutes. You have been unable to gain IV access and plan to administer a dose of buccal midazolam.
      What is the recommended dose of buccal midazolam for treating seizures in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The recommended dosage of buccal midazolam for treating a child experiencing seizures is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 76 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting 150 paracetamol tablets in a impulsive suicide attempt. The patient is now worried about the potential liver failure and other possible injuries associated with paracetamol overdose. What other organs or systems are at risk of injury in cases of paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubule

      Explanation:

      When someone takes too much paracetamol, it can harm their liver cells and the tubules in their kidneys. This is because paracetamol produces a harmful substance called NAPQI, which is normally combined with glutathione. However, when there is too much NAPQI, it can cause damage and death to liver and kidney cells.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 77 - A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. The initial observations are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.7ºC
      Pulse rate: 126 bpm
      Blood pressure: 132/76 mmHg
      Respiration rate: 24 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      During the examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient's fingernails, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely causative organism in this particular case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus

      Explanation:

      In this case, a 70-year-old male who recently underwent aortic valve replacement is presenting with symptoms of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. Upon examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient’s fingernails, which raises suspicion of infective endocarditis. Given the patient’s history and symptoms, the most likely causative organism in this particular case is Staphylococcus.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 78 - A 3-year-old child is brought in by his father complaining of itchy skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought in by his father complaining of itchy skin on his arms. He has a history of allergies, and over the past few days, both of his arms have become covered in small red bumps. His father also reports that he has had a low-grade fever of 37.8°C. During the examination, you observe significant swelling of the lymph nodes in his neck. While speaking with his father, you notice a scabbing sore on the right side of his mouth.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eczema herpeticum

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum occurs when an individual with atopic eczema comes into contact with the herpes simplex virus. While some patients may only experience typical cold sores, others may develop a more extensive infection. This condition is often accompanied by systemic disturbance and can be quite painful. Administering antiviral treatment can help reduce the duration of the illness. In cases where the rash is widespread or there are concerns about eye complications, hospital admission may be necessary for intravenous antiviral therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 79 - A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. How much IM adrenaline should be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 300 mcg

      Explanation:

      The management of anaphylaxis involves several important steps. First and foremost, it is crucial to ensure proper airway management. Additionally, early administration of adrenaline is essential, preferably in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. Aggressive fluid resuscitation is also necessary. In severe cases, intubation may be required. However, it is important to note that the administration of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone should only be considered after early resuscitation has taken place.

      Adrenaline is the most vital medication for treating anaphylactic reactions. It acts as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist, which helps reverse peripheral vasodilatation and reduce oedema. Furthermore, its beta-adrenergic effects aid in dilating the bronchial airways, increasing the force of myocardial contraction, and suppressing histamine and leukotriene release. Administering adrenaline as the first drug is crucial, and the intramuscular (IM) route is generally the most effective for most individuals.

      The recommended doses of IM adrenaline for different age groups during anaphylaxis are as follows:

      – Children under 6 years: 150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000)
      – Children aged 6-12 years: 300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000)
      – Children older than 12 years: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)
      – Adults: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
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  • Question 80 - A 42-year-old is brought into the emergency department after becoming drowsy following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old is brought into the emergency department after becoming drowsy following a 5 day illness. Upon checking the patient's records you note a history of Addison's disease. Which of the following features would you expect in a patient with Addison's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotension

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is characterized by hypotension, which is caused by a deficiency of glucocorticoids (mainly cortisol) and mineralocorticoids (mainly aldosterone). This deficiency leads to low blood pressure. If left untreated, it can progress to hypovolemic shock (also known as Addisonian or adrenal crisis) and can be fatal. Metabolic disturbances associated with Addison’s disease include hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, and low serum cortisol levels.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old patient is worried because she has observed blood in her urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient is worried because she has observed blood in her urine for the past few days. She is not currently experiencing her menstrual cycle, and there is no possibility of pregnancy. She has not had any recent fevers but has noticed some discomfort in her lower abdomen. Additionally, she has been urinating more frequently than usual. She is not taking any medications. During the examination, her abdomen is soft, with slight tenderness in the suprapubic region. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness, and she does not experience any renal angle tenderness. Her urine appears pinkish in color and tests positive for leukocytes, protein, and blood on the dipstick.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      This is a classical history for a simple urinary tract infection. The other possible causes mentioned can also result in frank haematuria, but they would be less likely based on the given history.

      Bladder cancer typically presents with additional symptoms such as an abdominal mass, weight loss, and fatigue. Nephritis is more likely to cause renal angle tenderness and some systemic upset. It is often preceded by another infection.

      Tuberculosis may also have more systemic involvement, although it can present on its own. Renal stones commonly cause severe pain from the loin to the groin and renal angle tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 82 - You evaluate a 40-year-old man with a sudden onset entrapment neuropathy involving the...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 40-year-old man with a sudden onset entrapment neuropathy involving the ulnar nerve in his left arm.
      Which of the following muscles is MOST unlikely to be impacted in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral two lumbricals

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve provides innervation to several muscles in the hand. These include the palmar interossei, dorsal interossei, medial two lumbricals, and the abductor digiti minimi. It is important to note that the lateral two lumbricals are not affected by an ulnar nerve lesion as they are innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 83 - A 27 year old male presents to the emergency department with noticeable swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old male presents to the emergency department with noticeable swelling and bruising on his face. He reports being attacked and punched in the face repeatedly. A zygomatic fracture is suspected, prompting you to request facial X-rays. What are the two standard X-ray views included in the facial X-ray series?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occipitomental and occipitomental 30º

      Explanation:

      The standard facial X-ray series consists of two occipitomental x-rays: the Occipitomental (or Occipitomental 15º) and the Occipitomental 30º. The Occipitomental view captures the upper and middle thirds of the face, showing important structures such as the orbital margins, frontal sinuses, zygomatic arches, and maxillary antra. On the other hand, the Occipitomental 30º view uses a 30º caudal angulation, resulting in a less clear visualization of the orbits but a clearer view of the zygomatic arches and the walls of the maxillary antra.

      Further Reading:

      Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.

      Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.

      Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.

      Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.

      Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
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  • Question 84 - A 45-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with a high temperature, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with a high temperature, cough, and difficulty breathing. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with a reportable illness. You fill out the notification form and reach out to the local health protection team.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionnaires’ disease

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.

      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 85 - You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while getting out of bed. What can be helpful in identifying a femoral neck fracture on the anteroposterior X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shenton's line

      Explanation:

      Shenton’s line is a useful tool for identifying hip fractures on radiographs. It is a curved line that is drawn along the bottom edge of the upper pubic bone and the inner lower edge of the femur neck. This line should be smooth and uninterrupted. If there are any breaks or irregularities in the line, it could indicate a fracture, dysplasia, or dislocation.

      Further Reading:

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.

      There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.

      Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.

      Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.

      In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 86 - A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her last Microgynon 30 pill and it has been 48 hours since her last dose. She has been taking the rest of the pills in the packet consistently. She had unprotected sex last night and wants to know the best course of action.
      What is the MOST suitable advice to provide her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take the most recent missed pill, the remaining pills should be continued at the usual time, but no emergency contraception is required

      Explanation:

      If you have missed one pill, which means it has been 48-72 hours since you took the last pill in your current packet or you started the first pill in a new packet 24-48 hours late, you need to take the missed pill as soon as you remember. Make sure to continue taking the remaining pills at your usual time. Emergency contraception is generally not necessary in this situation, but it may be worth considering if you have missed pills earlier in the packet or during the last week of the previous packet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 87 - A 35-year-old individual presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and extending to the groin. They are also experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. The urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
      What is a reason for immediate hospital admission in a patient with ureteric colic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Signs of systemic infection

      Explanation:

      Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.

      The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the flank or loin area and radiating to the groin or testicle in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.

      The pain experienced during renal or ureteric colic is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever felt, with many women comparing it to the pain of childbirth. Restlessness and an inability to find relief by lying still are common signs, which can help differentiate renal colic from peritonitis. Previous episodes of similar pain may also be reported by the individual. In cases where there is a concomitant urinary infection, fever and sweating may be present. Additionally, the person may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.

      It is important to seek urgent medical attention if certain conditions are met. These include signs of systemic infection or sepsis, such as fever or sweating, or if the person is at a higher risk of acute kidney injury, such as having pre-existing chronic kidney disease, a solitary or transplanted kidney, or suspected bilateral obstructing stones. Hospital admission is also necessary if the person is dehydrated and unable to consume fluids orally due to nausea and/or vomiting. If there is uncertainty regarding the diagnosis, it is recommended to consult further resources, such as the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 88 - A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has a decreased level...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has a decreased level of consciousness and is challenging to awaken. She has a history of anxiety and depression and was discovered at home next to an empty bottle of diazepam tablets.

      Which acid-base disorder would you anticipate being caused by a substantial benzodiazepine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Common causes for different acid-base disorders.

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. It can also occur due to pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can occur due to lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). It can also be a result of renal failure or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 89 - A 45-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with pain in his left buttock, hip, and thigh. The pain started suddenly a few weeks ago, and he cannot recall any previous injury. During the examination, he shows wasting of his left quadriceps, struggles to stand up from a seated position, and has an absent knee jerk on the left side. Muscle fasciculations are observed in his left thigh. His BMI is 30, and he is a smoker.

      What is the SINGLE most beneficial management measure for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good glycaemic control

      Explanation:

      Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is the second most prevalent form of diabetic neuropathy. It typically manifests with pain in the buttocks, hips, or thighs and is often initially experienced on one side of the body. The pain may start off as mild and gradually progress or it can suddenly appear, as seen in this particular case. Subsequently, weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles in the lower limbs occur, potentially leading to the patient requiring assistance when transitioning from a seated to a standing position. Reflexes in the affected areas can also be impacted. Fortunately, diabetic amyotrophy can be reversed through effective management of blood sugar levels, physiotherapy, and adopting a healthy lifestyle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 90 - You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She is frail and exhibits signs of recent memory loss. You administer an abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) and record the findings in her medical records.
      Which ONE of the following is NOT included in the AMTS assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subtraction of serial 7s

      Explanation:

      The subtraction of serial 7s is included in the 30-point Folstein mini-mental state examination (MMSE), but it is not included in the AMTS. The AMTS consists of ten questions that assess various cognitive abilities. These questions include asking about age, the nearest hour, the current year, the name of the hospital or location, the ability to recognize two people, date of birth, knowledge of historical events, knowledge of the present monarch or prime minister, counting backwards from 20 to 1, and recalling an address given earlier in the test. The AMTS is referenced in the RCEM syllabus under the topic of memory loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Trauma (4/4) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/5) 20%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Allergy (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Emergencies (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (0/1) 0%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (5/5) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (3/4) 75%
Cardiology (3/4) 75%
Pain & Sedation (2/2) 100%
Resus (2/2) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (3/3) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Major Incident Management & PHEM (0/1) 0%
Surgical Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/6) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (2/2) 100%
Passmed