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  • Question 1 - At what age does the transition from the holophrastic stage to the telegraphic...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does the transition from the holophrastic stage to the telegraphic stage typically occur in children's linguistic development?

      Your Answer: 36 months

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately...

    Correct

    • How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately described?

      Your Answer: People from Black minorities have the highest rate of mental illness in UK

      Explanation:

      Institutional Racism in Psychiatry

      There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.

      While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.

      It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is an example of a closed question? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a closed question?

      Your Answer: Do you mind seeing all my patients today?

      Explanation:

      Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions

      When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position? ...

    Correct

    • What are the defining features of Klein's depressive position?

      Your Answer: Ambivalence

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - From which region of genetic material is deleted in Angelman syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • From which region of genetic material is deleted in Angelman syndrome?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What fear would be most common for an 8-year-old boy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What fear would be most common for an 8-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Fear of the dark

      Correct Answer: Fear of bodily injury

      Explanation:

      Childhood Fear: Normal Development

      It is normal for children to experience fear and anxiety as they grow and develop. According to Marks’ ‘ontogenetic parade’ theory, children’s fears follow a predictable pattern throughout their development. In the preschool years, children may fear imaginary creatures, animals, strangers, and their environment. As they enter middle childhood, fears of physical danger, bodily injury, and school performance become more prominent. During adolescence, fears about social evaluations and interactions become more common.

      Gullone’s research in 1999 identified specific fears that are prominent at different ages. For example, towards the end of the first year, children may fear strangers, heights, and separation anxiety. In preschool years, fears of being alone, the dark, and animals are common. During the school years, children may fear bodily injury, illness, social situations, supernatural phenomena, failure, and criticism. Finally, in adolescence, fears about death, economic and political concerns may persist.

      Overall, fear and anxiety are a normal part of child development, and parents and caregivers can support children by acknowledging their fears and helping them develop coping strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects?

      Your Answer: Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB)

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a delusional episode and is detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act. He firmly believes that one of the doctors on the ward is his long-lost brother, despite acknowledging that they have different facial features.
      What is the name of the syndrome he is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Fregoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      The term Fregoli syndrome refers to a delusion where the patient mistakenly identifies an unfamiliar person as someone they know. This condition is named after Leopoldo Fregoli, an Italian actor who was known for his ability to quickly change his appearance during performances. Cotard syndrome is a type of delusion that occurs in cases of psychotic depression, where the patient believes that they are already dead. Capgras syndrome is another type of misidentification delusion, but in this case, the patient believes that someone they know has been replaced by an identical imposter. Charles Bonnet Syndrome is a condition that causes complex visual hallucinations. Finally, Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, is a phenomenon where men experience symptoms similar to their pregnant partners. These conditions are all well-documented in the field of psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the opposite effect of a full agonist? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the opposite effect of a full agonist?

      Your Answer: Partial agonist

      Correct Answer: Inverse agonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Pharmacology

      In pharmacology, an agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and triggers a biological response. On the other hand, an antagonist is a substance that blocks the effects of an agonist. A partial agonist produces a response but cannot produce the maximum response even at high doses.

      Competitive antagonists bind to the receptor in a reversible way without affecting the biological response. They make the agonist appear less potent. Inverse agonists, on the other hand, have opposite effects from those of full agonists. They are not the same as antagonists, which block the effect of both agonists and inverse agonists.

      Full agonists display full efficacy at a receptor. Some substances can act as an agonist at certain receptors and as an antagonist at others. Such a substance is called an agonist-antagonist. Understanding the differences between agonists and antagonists is crucial in drug development and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by her therapist. She has a history of pursuing over 40 cases against various individuals, services, and authorities. Many of these cases have been dismissed as frivolous.

      She works as a receptionist, but presents as someone capable of more challenging work. She reports being fired from several jobs due to discrimination and mistreatment.

      Mrs. Johnson is divorced, following her husband's infidelity. After the divorce, she told her children they could either continue to see her of their father. They chose to maintain a relationship with both parents, but Mrs. Johnson is unable to accept this.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario could be consistent with various diagnoses, but the most appropriate diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by several symptoms, including excessive sensitivity to setbacks, persistent grudges, distorted perceptions of others’ actions, a strong sense of personal rights, unfounded suspicions of infidelity, self-importance, and preoccupation with conspiracies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the culture bound syndrome observed in Eskimos? ...

    Correct

    • What is the culture bound syndrome observed in Eskimos?

      Your Answer: Piblokto

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What type of apraxia is demonstrated by the difficulty in reproducing intersecting pentagons...

    Incorrect

    • What type of apraxia is demonstrated by the difficulty in reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Ideomotor

      Correct Answer: Constructional

      Explanation:

      Apraxia: Understanding the Inability to Carry Out Learned Voluntary Movements

      Apraxia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to carry out learned voluntary movements. It is important to note that this condition assumes that everything works and the person is not paralyzed. There are different types of apraxia, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics.

      Limb kinetic apraxia is a type of apraxia that affects a person’s ability to make fine of delicate movements. This can include tasks such as buttoning a shirt of tying shoelaces.

      Ideomotor apraxia, on the other hand, is an inability to carry out learned tasks when given the necessary objects. For example, a person with ideomotor apraxia may try to write with a hairbrush instead of using it to brush their hair.

      Constructional apraxia affects a person’s ability to copy a picture of combine parts of something to form a whole. This can include tasks such as building a puzzle of drawing a picture.

      Ideational apraxia is an inability to follow a sequence of actions in the correct order. For example, a person with ideational apraxia may struggle to take a match out of a box and strike it with their left hand.

      Finally, oculomotor apraxia affects a person’s ability to control eye movements. This can make it difficult for them to track moving objects of read smoothly.

      Overall, apraxia can have a significant impact on a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks. However, with the right support and treatment, many people with apraxia are able to improve their abilities and maintain their independence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Vocal tics

      Explanation:

      Tourette’s syndrome, also known as combined vocal and motor tic disorder, is characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Inattention may be present but is not a defining symptom. Coprophagia, of the act of eating feces, is not associated with Tourette’s syndrome and is more commonly seen in individuals with learning difficulties of chronic psychotic disorders. Glossolalia, of speaking in tongues, is not related to psychopathology and is not a feature of Tourette’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a true statement about the intelligence quotient? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the intelligence quotient?

      Your Answer: It is tested for using the WAIS

      Explanation:

      Mental Age and IQ

      The concept of mental age (MA) was introduced by Alfred Binet in 1905. It involves administering a series of tests to a person of child, which are then ranked according to the age at which people are expected to complete them. The mental age can be used to calculate the intelligence quotient (IQ) using the formula: IQ = MA/CA x 100, where CA is the chronological age. An IQ of 100 indicates that the mental and chronological ages are equal. IQ tends to remain stable throughout life. The Stanford-Binet test was the first IQ test, while the WAIS-IV (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) is the most commonly used IQ test today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old individual reports a sudden inability to chew food and upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old individual reports a sudden inability to chew food and upon examination, displays weakened masseter muscles. What nerve damage do you suspect?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve XII

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?

      Your Answer: The influence of stressful life events such as divorce

      Correct Answer: The influence of the relationship between and individual and the society

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A teenager feels frustrated after a difficult day at school. They go for...

    Correct

    • A teenager feels frustrated after a difficult day at school. They go for a long bike ride after school and as a result, no longer feel frustrated.

      What is the term for this coping mechanism?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      The behavior described is an example of sublimation, where unconscious impulses are redirected into socially acceptable outlets for immediate gratification. The other options listed are all examples of mature defense mechanisms, including altruism, which involves finding satisfaction in helping others; anticipation, which involves mentally preparing for potential threats; humor, which allows for the expression of difficult emotions without personal discomfort; and suppression, which involves consciously delaying the processing of uncomfortable issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which region of the brain is Broca's area located? ...

    Correct

    • In which region of the brain is Broca's area located?

      Your Answer: Brodmann areas 44 and 45

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium?

      Your Answer: QT interval prolongation

      Correct Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      According to a recent study by Ran (2019), lithium carbonate has been found to have a neuroprotective effect in individuals who have experienced a stroke. The study conducted exploratory analyses of neuroanatomical and cognitive outcomes in a poststroke population. It is interesting to note that while lithium is contraindicated in individuals with Addison’s disease, it is only cautioned in individuals with QT prolongation. Hypothyroidism (untreated) is also a contraindication for lithium. Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by inadequate production of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, gastrointestinal abnormalities, changes in skin pigmentation, and mood changes. In some cases, acute adrenal failure can occur, which is a serious condition that develops rapidly. The cause of Addison’s disease is often due to the body’s immune system mistakenly attacking the adrenal glands, causing progressive damage to the adrenal cortex.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine?

      Your Answer: Desipramine

      Correct Answer: Clomipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which hypothalamic nucleus plays the most significant role in establishing the set point...

    Correct

    • Which hypothalamic nucleus plays the most significant role in establishing the set point for daily circadian rhythms?

      Your Answer: Suprachiasmatic

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined?

      Your Answer: Synergism

      Correct Answer: Enzyme induction

      Explanation:

      Allosteric modulators bind to different sites on the receptor than the probe molecules (such as agonists of radioligands), and can alter the way they interact. This can lead to modifications in the effectiveness and/of strength of agonists.

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is removed during splicing? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is removed during splicing?

      Your Answer: Exon

      Correct Answer: Intron

      Explanation:

      Splicing of mRNA

      After the transcription of DNA into mRNA, the mRNA undergoes a crucial process known as splicing. This process involves the removal of certain portions of the mRNA, called introns, leaving behind the remaining portions known as exons. The exons are then translated into proteins. The resulting spliced form of RNA is referred to as mature mRNA. This process of splicing is essential for the proper functioning of genes and the production of functional proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are asked to review a child on the ward who the staff...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a child on the ward who the staff noted had a sudden and brief (one minute) episode whereby they went into what they described as a trance-like state. During this time the child was unresponsive and was seen to be picking aimlessly at their clothes. Following this episode the child did not recall being unresponsive but did report that before this happened they felt a strange sense of unfamiliarity. Which of the following epilepsy types would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer: Complex partial seizure

      Explanation:

      The indication of a complex partial seizure is strongly implied by the absence of knowledge regarding aura.

      Epilepsy and Aura

      An aura is a subjective sensation that is a type of simple partial seizure. It typically lasts only a few seconds and can help identify the site of cortical onset. There are eight recognized types of auras, including somatosensory, visual, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, autonomic, abdominal, and psychic.

      In about 80% of cases, auras precede temporal lobe seizures. The most common auras in these seizures are abdominal and psychic, which can cause a rising epigastric sensation of feelings of fear, déjà vu, of jamais vu. Parietal lobe seizures may begin with a contralateral sensation, usually of the positive type, such as an electrical sensation of tingling. Occipital lobe seizures may begin with contralateral visual changes, such as colored lines, spots, of shapes, of even a loss of vision. Temporal-parietal-occipital seizures may produce more formed auras.

      Complex partial seizures are defined by impairment of consciousness, which means decreased responsiveness and awareness of oneself and surroundings. During a complex partial seizure, a patient is unresponsive and does not remember events that occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 25 - What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors? ...

    Correct

    • What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors?

      Your Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - In which of the following situations may the disclosure of personal information about...

    Correct

    • In which of the following situations may the disclosure of personal information about a minor patient without consent be justified?

      Your Answer: If failure to disclose may expose others to a risk of death of serious harm

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council (GMC) emphasizes the importance of maintaining confidentiality when it comes to personal information about adult patients. However, there may be situations where disclosure without consent is necessary in order to prevent serious harm of death to others. In such cases, seeking the patient’s consent should still be attempted if possible, and any reasons for refusal should be taken into consideration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral...

    Correct

    • Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral hemispheres?

      Your Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomical Structures

      The pineal gland is a unique structure in the brain that is not present bilaterally. It is a small endocrine gland responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone derived from serotonin. Along with the pituitary gland and circumventricular organs, the pineal gland is one of the few unpaired structures in the brain.

      In contrast, the caudate nucleus is a paired structure located within the basal ganglia. It is present bilaterally and plays a crucial role in motor control and learning.

      The midbrain contains the Mammillary body, which is also a paired structure involved in long-term memory formation. These structures work together to help us remember and recall past experiences.

      Finally, the supraoptic nucleus is duplicated in each cerebral hemisphere. This structure is involved in regulating water balance and plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 28 - Ms Y is employed at the Bank. She takes twice as much time...

    Correct

    • Ms Y is employed at the Bank. She takes twice as much time as her colleagues to finish her tasks and always stays late at the office. She is very organized and aims for perfection in every detail. However, her co-workers find her tedious and overly meticulous, and she struggles to build good relationships with many of them. What is being described here?

      Your Answer: Anankastic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Anankastic personality disorder, previously known as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder in DSM-IV, is a condition where individuals are excessively focused on schedules, rules, and details. Their perfectionism can hinder their ability to meet the criteria outlined in ICD-10, which characterizes the disorder as one marked by doubt, excessive conscientiousness, preoccupation with details, checking, stubbornness, caution, and rigidity. People with this disorder may experience persistent and unwanted thoughts of impulses that do not reach the level of an obsessive-compulsive disorder. They may also struggle to function effectively at work due to difficulty completing tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
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  • Question 29 - What psychological defense mechanism is being used by a woman who was raised...

    Correct

    • What psychological defense mechanism is being used by a woman who was raised in foster care and creates a non-profit organization to offer guidance and assistance to other children in the system?

      Your Answer: Altruism

      Explanation:

      The defence mechanism of altruism is considered to be a sign of emotional maturity, as it involves channeling one’s own psychological distress towards aiding others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
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  • Question 30 - What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic and rational?

      Your Answer: Systematised

      Explanation:

      Delusional Structure

      Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.

      The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychological Development (1/3) 33%
Classification And Assessment (4/4) 100%
Social Psychology (1/2) 50%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Psychopharmacology (1/6) 17%
Descriptive Psychopathology (2/2) 100%
Diagnosis (2/2) 100%
Neurosciences (4/6) 67%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
History And Mental State (1/1) 100%
Dynamic Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed