00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly...

    Incorrect

    • You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly population and determine if there has been exposure to a particular risk factor.

      Which study design would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Meta-analysis

      Correct Answer: Case-control

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate study design to investigate an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This study design allows for the retrospective identification of patients who have developed the disease and compares their past exposure to suspected causal factors with controls who do not have the disease. A cohort study, which follows patients into the future, is not suitable for this scenario as the aim is to trace the cause of the outbreak. A cross-sectional study provides a snapshot of the condition and exposures in the overall population at a set time, but it is not suitable for finding the cause of the outbreak. Randomized controlled trials are not appropriate as there are no interventions being studied. Meta-analysis is not applicable as there is no mention of other research to review.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      107
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up. He reports feeling healthy...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up. He reports feeling healthy and has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. Tests show an eGFR of 75 mL/min/1.73m², microalbuminuria in the urinalysis, and unilateral hydronephrosis on ultrasound. What stage of chronic kidney disease is he in?

      Your Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease should only be diagnosed as stages 1 and 2 if there is supporting evidence to accompany the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). In this case, the patient has been diagnosed with stage 2 chronic kidney disease due to the eGFR and the presence of hydronephrosis and microalbuminuria, indicating structural kidney issues.

      However, if the patient had a normal ultrasound and no protein in their urine, the eGFR alone would not be enough to diagnose chronic kidney disease.

      Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is diagnosed when the eGFR is above 90, but only if there is also evidence of proteinuria and/or an abnormal ultrasound.

      Stage 3a chronic kidney disease is diagnosed when the eGFR is between 45-59, regardless of whether there is structural damage or not.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents because...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents because of concerns regarding her hearing. They have noticed she often doesn't respond when spoken to and seems to have difficulty following instructions. Three months ago, she presented with pain and discharge from her right ear and was treated with a course of amoxicillin.
      On examination, she is well. Both tympanic membranes are intact and have a grey appearance, with absent light reflexes.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hearing impairment in a child with grey eardrum and absent light reflexes

      Otitis media with effusion and other possible causes of conductive hearing loss

      The patient is a child who had received treatment for acute otitis media three months ago. The current presentation includes hearing impairment and a grey eardrum with absent light reflexes. Based on these findings, the most likely diagnosis is otitis media with effusion, which is a common sequelae of acute otitis media and a leading cause of hearing impairment in childhood. Other possible causes of conductive hearing loss include otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, and ossicular discontinuity.

      Otosclerosis is unlikely in this case because it typically presents in the early twenties and involves the fusion of the stapes with the cochlea, which is not evident on otoscopy. Cholesteatoma, on the other hand, would be visible as a perforation or retraction pocket of the tympanic membrane and requires referral to ENT specialists. Ossicular discontinuity is usually caused by trauma, which is not reported by the patient.

      Sensorineural hearing loss is another type of hearing impairment that results from damage to the hair cells in the cochlea or the vestibulocochlear nerve. However, this diagnosis is less likely in this case because the appearance of the eardrum is abnormal, indicating a conductive rather than a sensorineural problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a complete molar pregnancy.
      She wants to discuss when she can consider trying to become pregnant again.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: She should avoid pregnancy until two consecutive monthly human chorionic gonadotrophin levels are normal

      Correct Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least one year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring hCG Levels After Molar Pregnancy

      After a molar pregnancy, it is important to monitor hCG levels to detect any persistent gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) that may require treatment. During this monitoring period, women should avoid becoming pregnant as it is difficult to differentiate between hCG levels that are increasing due to a new pregnancy or persistent GTD. The first hCG measurement is taken four weeks after uterine evacuation.

      For complete hydatidiform mole, hCG monitoring is required for six months from the first normal hCG level or six months from evacuation of the uterus if the hCG level normalizes by eight weeks after evacuation. On the other hand, partial molar pregnancy has a lower risk of persistent GTD, and hCG follow-up is only necessary until two consecutive monthly levels are normal.

      If a woman undergoes chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, she should avoid pregnancy for at least one year. It is crucial to monitor hCG levels after molar pregnancy to ensure early detection and treatment of any persistent GTD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      79.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. Can you prescribe something to help her sleep?

      Is this response appropriate for a patient who has experienced a traumatic event?

      Your Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder

      Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after four weeks have passed.

      Although this scenario has the potential to develop into post-traumatic stress disorder, it is currently classified as acute stress disorder as it has only been two weeks since the event. It is important to monitor the patient’s progress and reassess in two weeks.

      Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month.

      Depression is characterized by persistent low mood and/or loss of pleasure in most activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive, pervasive, and uncontrollable worry, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms that occur on a continuum of severity. To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the symptoms must be pervasive and persistent for longer than two weeks.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
      Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.

      Your Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures

      Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.

      Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old bus driver comes to you for consultation after undergoing an abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old bus driver comes to you for consultation after undergoing an abdominal ultrasound scan as part of a routine health check. The scan reveals an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) measuring 4 cm, and he has no symptoms.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for annual ultrasound surveillance

      Explanation:

      Recommended Actions for Patients with Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

      Patients with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) require careful monitoring and appropriate actions to prevent complications. Here are some recommended actions based on the size of the AAA and the patient’s condition:

      Annual ultrasound surveillance: Asymptomatic patients with an AAA measuring 3.0–4.4 cm should undergo annual ultrasound monitoring to detect any changes in size or shape. This can help identify the need for further intervention, such as surgery or endovascular repair. In addition, patients should be advised to quit smoking, control their blood pressure, and take statins and antiplatelet therapy as needed.

      Refer for follow-up ultrasound in three months: If the AAA measures between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, a follow-up ultrasound should be arranged in three months to monitor any progression. This can help determine the optimal timing for intervention and prevent rupture or dissection.

      Advise the patient to inform the DVLA and cease driving: Patients who have an AAA and hold a Group 2 driving license must notify the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) and stop driving if the aneurysm diameter is larger than 5.5 cm. This is to ensure the safety of the patient and other road users.

      Arrange a repeat scan in one year: The recommended screening interval for AAA is determined by its size, with a maximum interval of one year. Therefore, patients with an AAA measuring more than 5.5 cm or with rapid growth should undergo repeat scans every six months to one year to monitor any changes.

      Monitor all patients with an AAA: Regardless of symptoms, all patients with an AAA measuring more than 3 cm require monitoring and appropriate actions to prevent complications. If the patient develops symptoms such as pain, they may need additional investigation and possible intervention to prevent rupture or dissection.

      By following these recommended actions, patients with an AAA can receive timely and appropriate care to prevent complications and improve their outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old Caucasian female presents with tiredness to her general practitioner. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old Caucasian female presents with tiredness to her general practitioner. She has gained a little weight of late and during the last year has become increasingly tired. She has a history of asthma for which she takes inhaled salbutamol on an as required basis (usually no more than once a week) and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes.

      Examination reveals a blood pressure of 172/98 mmHg, a body mass index of 29.7 kg/m2, and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. There are no other abnormalities of note. Her blood pressure recordings over the next month are 180/96, 176/90 and 178/100 mmHg.

      Which of the following drugs would you recommend for the treatment of this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Treatment in Type 2 Diabetes Patients

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has sustained hypertension and requires treatment. The first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetes is ACE inhibitors. These medications have no adverse effects on glucose tolerance or lipid profiles and can delay the progression of microalbuminuria to nephropathy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with vascular disease and diabetes.

      However, bendroflumethiazide may provoke an attack of gout in patients with a history of gout. Beta-blockers should be avoided for the routine treatment of uncomplicated hypertension in patients with diabetes. They can also precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma. In situations where there is no suitable alternative, a cardioselective beta blocker should be selected and initiated at a low dose by a specialist. The patient should be monitored closely for adverse effects.

      Alpha-blockers, such as doxazosin, are reserved for the treatment of resistant hypertension in conjunction with other antihypertensives. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and individual needs when selecting a treatment plan for hypertension in type 2 diabetes patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      110
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit his job as an engineer due to a motorcycle accident that resulted in a fractured femur. His orthopaedic surgeon predicts that his recovery will take several months. Currently, he works part-time as a freelance web developer, earning less than £200 per month.

      He resides in the UK with his wife and two young children. They have a combined savings of £30,000, and his wife is currently unemployed, taking care of their children.

      What advice would you offer him regarding his eligibility for Universal Credit?

      Your Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit as he is in part-time employment

      Correct Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit owing to his collective savings

      Explanation:

      To be eligible for Universal Credit, an individual must have savings below £16,000. However, in the case of co-habiting couples, the partner’s income and savings will also be taken into consideration. It is important to note that intentionally transferring or reducing savings to increase the amount of Universal Credit received is considered deprivation of capital and will be investigated by the Department of Work and Pensions. Employment doesn’t disqualify an individual from receiving Universal Credit, as long as their earnings do not exceed the administrative earnings threshold of £338 per individual or £541 for a household. Age and marital status also do not affect eligibility for Universal Credit.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein surgery. She is in good health and currently using the combined hormonal contraceptive patch for birth control. What advice should be given to her regarding her contraception?

      Your Answer: She should be offered alternative contraception from 2 weeks prior to her operation. Her combined hormonal contraceptive can be started from 4 weeks after she is fully mobilising

      Correct Answer: She should be offered alternative contraception from 4 weeks prior to her operation. Her combined hormonal contraceptive can be started from 2 weeks after she is fully mobilising

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Major Surgery

      Major surgery, which includes surgery lasting more than 30 minutes, all lower limb surgeries, and surgeries resulting in prolonged immobilization of a lower limb, requires special consideration for patients who are using combined hormonal contraceptives. To avoid potential complications, patients should be offered alternative contraception options four weeks prior to their operation. Once the patient is fully mobilizing, typically two weeks after the surgery, they can resume their combined hormonal contraceptive.

      It is important to note that patients who are unable to stop their combined hormonal contraceptive prior to surgery should not resume use until they are fully mobilizing. This information is crucial for healthcare providers to communicate to their patients to ensure safe and effective contraception management during and after major surgery. By following these guidelines, patients can avoid potential complications and continue to receive the contraceptive care they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      82.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment for osteoporosis in elderly patients.
      A recently performed randomised control trial has looked at using the new treatment in preventing vertebral fractures in patients over 70 years old. They leave you a copy of a study for you to read in more detail.

      On reading the paper, you see that there were 8,000 patients in both the treatment and control arms of the study. The number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the treatment arm was 200 and the number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the control arm was 250.
      What is the number needed to treat with the new drug in order to prevent one vertebral fracture in elderly patients over 70 years old?

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 200

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a useful measure in determining the effectiveness of a treatment. It represents the number of patients that need to be treated to prevent one additional event, such as a disease or complication. This takes into account the absolute risk of the event, making it a clinically meaningful way of comparing different interventions.

      To calculate the NNT, we first need to determine the absolute risk reduction (ARR). This is done by subtracting the absolute risk of events in the control group from the absolute risk of events in the treatment group. For example, if 350 out of 10,000 patients in the control group sustained a vertebral fracture (3.5%), and 300 out of 10,000 patients in the treatment group sustained a vertebral fracture (3%), the ARR would be 0.5%.

      The NNT is then calculated by taking the reciprocal of the ARR. In this case, the NNT would be 1/0.5% = 200. This means that 200 patients would need to be treated with the new drug to prevent one vertebral fracture. Understanding the NNT can help clinicians make informed decisions about the most effective treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      221.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular...

    Correct

    • Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks

      Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      190.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the accurate statement about depression in individuals below 18 years of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about depression in individuals below 18 years of age?

      Your Answer: There are concerns over the safety of SSRIs in adolescents

      Correct Answer: There is good evidence for the efficacy of SSRIs in the treatment of moderate to severe depression in the under 8s

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for deliberate self-harming in adolescents

      SSRIs and tricyclics are not recommended for the treatment of deliberate self-harming in adolescents. The Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) advises that the balance of risks and benefits for the use of SSRIs in individuals under 18 years is unfavorable. Fluoxetine has shown some benefit, but there are concerns regarding an increased risk of self-harm and suicidal thoughts. Therefore, counselling with family therapy is the preferred option for treating deliberate self-harming in adolescents. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of any treatment option and to work closely with healthcare professionals to determine the best course of action for each individual case. By prioritizing the mental health and well-being of adolescents, we can help prevent and manage deliberate self-harming behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      135.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer: He should be advised of the benefits and limitations of PSA testing and make an individual decision on whether to have the test

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      85.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?

      Your Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area

      Explanation:

      When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.

      Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      120.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a recent onset of yellowish tint in his vision. He mentions being on multiple medications but cannot recall their names. His medical history includes heart failure, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and COPD. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Yellow-green vision may be a side effect of digoxin.

      The use of digoxin carries a significant risk of toxicity due to its limited therapeutic range. One of the symptoms of toxicity is the appearance of yellow-tinted vision, also known as xanthopsia.

      Similarly, sildenafil use may result in cyanopsia or blue-tinted vision.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      2181.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24 hour urine collection.

      Which of the following urine albumin concentrations indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?

      Your Answer: 3.5 g/day

      Explanation:

      Understanding Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria

      Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not just an early indicator of renal involvement but also identifies an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, with an approximate twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients.

      To measure the total albumin excretion, the albumin: creatinine ratio is used as a useful surrogate. The urinary albumin:creatinine ratio is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. Microalbuminuria is indicated when the albumin:creatinine ratio is ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women). Proteinuria is indicated by a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol.

      In summary, understanding microalbuminuria and proteinuria is crucial in identifying early renal involvement and increased cardiovascular risk. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful tool in measuring total albumin excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer: Tetracyclines

      Correct Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs

      Explanation:

      Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression, and you suspect he may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome.
      Choose the accurate statement regarding the anticholinergic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that is commonly caused by certain medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, atropine, anti-parkinsonian drugs, antispasmodics, and H1-antihistamines. The symptoms of this syndrome include hot and dry skin, hypertension, tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated pupils, and agitated delirium.

      In the past, physostigmine was recommended as a treatment for anticholinergic syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that it is ineffective and can even increase the risk of cardiac toxicity. Therefore, the recommended treatment now is supportive and symptomatic care. Once the medication causing the syndrome has been excreted, the symptoms usually subside.

      It is important to be aware of the symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome and to seek medical attention if you suspect that you or someone you know may be experiencing it. With proper care and treatment, the condition can be managed effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      115.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man has a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis. He has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis. He has had courses of prednisolone for exacerbations in the past but has never persisted with prophylactic medication. He has not had a hospital review for many years. He has now had a change in bowel habit for six months, with increasing diarrhoea.
      Which of the following is the single most important management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stool microscopy and culture

      Correct Answer: Urgent colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Subacute Change in Bowel Habit and Ulcerative Colitis

      Patients with ulcerative colitis have an increased risk of developing colonic adenocarcinoma, which starts 8-10 years after the onset of the disease. Surveillance colonoscopy is recommended every 1-2 years to assess for dysplasia. In a patient with a long-standing disease and a new change in bowel habit, there should be a high index of suspicion for malignancy, especially if routine surveillance has been missed.

      An abdominal plain X-ray may be useful in acute presentations of ulcerative colitis, but it is not the best choice for subacute changes in bowel habit. Oral mesalazine may reduce the risk of developing colorectal cancer, but it doesn’t address the red flags in this case.

      Oral prednisolone may be prescribed to see if there is any resolution of symptoms, but the priority is an urgent colonoscopy to rule out a new diagnosis of colorectal cancer.

      Stool microscopy and culture are unlikely to be helpful in this case, as there is no acute-onset diarrhea or recent foreign travel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to...

    Correct

    • For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan

      Explanation:

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 14-month-old boy presents with eye-rolling followed by generalised shaking of the limbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy presents with eye-rolling followed by generalised shaking of the limbs for three minutes. He has had a cold for two days, but became very warm this morning just prior to the episode. He has no previous history of note, and had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal complications. His immunisations are up to date. There is no family history of note. On examination he is alert though febrile at 39.2°C, with flushed cheeks. He has a runny nose. Respiratory rate is 22/min and heart rate 130/min. His chest is clear and urinalysis is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion, simple

      Explanation:
      • Febrile Convulsion, Simple:
        • Characteristics:
          • Occurs between 6 months and 5 years of age.
          • Associated with fever, often due to viral infections.
          • Generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting less than 15 minutes.
          • No recurrence within 24 hours.
          • Rapid return to baseline consciousness.
        • In this case: The seizure lasted three minutes and was generalized, fitting the criteria for a simple febrile seizure.
      • Febrile Convulsion, Complex:
        • Characteristics:
          • Lasts longer than 15 minutes.
          • Focal (affects only part of the body) or recurrent within 24 hours.
          • May not return to baseline quickly.
        • In this case: The seizure was generalized and lasted only three minutes, making it unlikely to be a complex febrile seizure.
      • Encephalitis:
        • Characteristics:
          • Typically presents with fever, seizures, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits.
          • Seizures may be recurrent or focal.
        • In this case: The child does not exhibit altered mental status or focal neurological signs post-seizure.
      • Meningitis:
        • Characteristics:
          • Presents with fever, irritability, poor feeding, lethargy, and possibly neck stiffness or bulging fontanelle in infants.
          • May include seizures, but other symptoms like irritability and lethargy are more pronounced.
        • In this case: The child is alert post-seizure, and there are no signs of meningismus or altered mental status.
      • Cerebral Abscess:
        • Characteristics:
          • Usually presents with focal neurological signs, headache, fever, and possibly seizures.
          • More common in children with a history of sinusitis or otitis media.
        • In this case: There is no focal neurological deficit or history suggestive of conditions leading to an abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with 3 months of weakness in his hands, which has deteriorated to the point where he has to hold a cup of tea with two hands. On examination he has wasting and fasciculation of his hands but no sensory symptoms. His tongue appears wasted and fasciculates. He chokes on occasions when swallowing fluids.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Symptoms and Presentations

      Motor Neurone Disease, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Myasthenia Gravis, and Parkinson’s Disease are all neurological disorders that present with different symptoms and modes of onset.

      Motor Neurone Disease typically presents with minor symptoms in the hands and limbs, with no sensory symptoms and unaffected eyes. Upper and motor neurone signs are seen, and bulbar signs are present in 20% of patients.

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome presents acutely with symmetrical weakness that starts in the lower extremities and ascends progressively. Sensory symptoms also start in the lower extremities.

      Multiple Sclerosis can follow a relapsing remitting or progressive course, with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs. Objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of multiple sclerosis is necessary for diagnosis, as is the exclusion of other explanations for the clinical features.

      Myasthenia Gravis presents with varying degrees of weakness in muscle groups, with muscles tending to fatigue after exercise. Ptosis and diplopia are often the first symptoms.

      Parkinson’s Disease is a movement disorder characterised by tremor at rest, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      In summary, each neurological disorder has its own unique symptoms and presentations, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A medical research team conducts a randomized controlled trial to investigate the effect...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research team conducts a randomized controlled trial to investigate the effect of a new treatment on cognitive decline in elderly patients. Ten participants are randomly assigned to the new treatment, and 10 continue with standard care. The results show no significant difference in cognitive decline between the two groups, with a p-value of 0.18 and an absolute risk reduction of 0.03. However, subsequent research with a larger patient population reveals a significant treatment effect on cognitive decline.

      What statistical mistake did the research team likely make?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II error

      Explanation:

      The researchers have committed a type II error, which means that they accepted the null hypothesis even though it was false. In this case, they found no effect of the drug when there actually was one. It is important to note that a false-positive, which is a type I error, would occur if they found a significant drug effect when there was none. There is no indication of selection bias in the stem, so we can assume that the participants were properly randomized. It is worth noting that a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true, which is the opposite of what happened in this case. Finally, a type III error is not commonly used, but it occurs when the null hypothesis is correctly rejected for the wrong reason.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic jerks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Alzheimer’s Disease from Other Dementias

      Alzheimer’s disease is typically identified by the early onset of short term memory loss. However, other dementias may present with different symptoms that can help differentiate them from Alzheimer’s. For example, gait ataxia and urinary incontinence may suggest normal pressure hydrocephalus, while myoclonic jerks may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Visual hallucinations may be a sign of delirium or Lewy body dementia. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when evaluating patients with dementia symptoms. By identifying the specific type of dementia, appropriate treatment and management strategies can be implemented to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions comes to you...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions comes to you after discovering she is expecting. During your discussion about pregnancy supplements, she inquires if she can simply continue taking her regular over-the-counter multivitamin tablet. Can you inform her which vitamin, when consumed in excessive amounts, can be harmful to the developing fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin A

      Explanation:

      To prevent birth defects, pregnant women should not consume more than 10,000IU of vitamin A per day as it can be harmful in high doses. It is recommended that they avoid taking any supplements that contain vitamin A, including regular multivitamins, during pregnancy. In the UK, supplements are now restricted to a maximum of 6,000IU of vitamin A, so if a pregnant woman has been taking one, there is no need to worry. Additionally, liver should be avoided as it contains high levels of vitamin A.

      Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.

      When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed food allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food allergens may be encountered by routes other than ingestion e.g. skin contact, inhalation

      Explanation:

      Managing Food Allergies and Intolerances

      Food allergies and intolerances can be managed through food avoidance. Elimination diets should only exclude foods that have been confirmed to cause allergic reactions, and the advice of a dietician may be necessary. It is important to read food labels carefully, although not all potential allergens are included. Cross contact of allergens during meal preparation should be avoided, and high-risk situations such as buffets and picnics should be avoided as well. It is also important to note that there is a possibility of food allergen cross-reactivity, such as between cows’ milk and goats’ milk or between different types of fish. Additionally, there is a risk of exposure to allergens through routes other than ingestion, such as skin contact or inhalation during cooking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with minor bleeding and an INR greater than 8 should receive vitamin K1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin Therapy: Inhibiting Vitamin K Dependent Factors and Managing Bleeding

      Warfarin is a medication that competitively inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent factors, including factor II, VII, IX, X, and protein C. Its half-life is approximately 44 hours, and while it is present in breast milk, the amount is too small to have any clinical significance. Unlike heparin therapy, warfarin is less likely to cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis as side-effects.

      However, it is important to monitor patients on warfarin therapy for major bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) greater than 8, with or without bleeding. In such cases, warfarin should be stopped and phytomenadione, a form of vitamin K, should be administered either intravenously or orally. The dose may be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR falls below 5. If the INR is between 6-8 with no bleeding, warfarin can be temporarily stopped without the need for phytomenadione.

      In cases of major bleeding, dried prothrombin complex may also be necessary to replace factors II, VII, IX, and X. Understanding the mechanisms of warfarin therapy and proper management of bleeding can help ensure the safety and efficacy of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman visits your office with chronic anxiety. She recently came across...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits your office with chronic anxiety. She recently came across an article in the newspaper about breast cancer and is now concerned about her risk of developing it.

      What is a known risk factor for breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High alcohol consumption

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Breast Cancer

      Breast cancer is a major concern for women worldwide, and understanding its risk factors is crucial for prevention and early detection. According to the Royal College, having knowledge of the epidemiology of major cancers, along with risk factors and unhealthy behaviors, is essential.

      One of the significant risk factors for breast cancer is high alcohol consumption, which can increase the likelihood of developing the disease. Additionally, a late menopause can also increase the risk of breast cancer. Other risk factors include having had no children, not having breastfed, and having an early puberty.

      It is important to note that having one or more of these risk factors doesn’t necessarily mean that a person will develop breast cancer. However, being aware of these factors and taking steps to reduce their impact can help lower the risk of developing the disease. Regular breast cancer screenings and maintaining a healthy lifestyle can also aid in early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed