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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of her neck. She reports that it has been present for a few weeks and only started to bother her after a friend pointed it out. She denies any other symptoms such as weight loss or fevers. She recalls her mother having a similar swelling removed but does not remember the diagnosis. On examination, there is a small, smooth, non-tender, mobile lump. The skin overlying the lump appears normal, and it does not move on swallowing or tongue protrusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sebaceous cyst

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between various types of lumps and bumps on the body

      When it comes to lumps and bumps on the body, it can be difficult to determine what they are and whether they require medical attention. Here are some common types of lumps and their characteristics to help differentiate between them.

      Sebaceous cysts are small, smooth lumps that are caused by a blocked hair follicle. They are attached to the skin and may have a central punctum with a horn on top. If infected, they can become tender and the skin over them may become red and hot. Excision may be necessary if they are unsightly or infected.

      Lipomas are deep to the skin and are typically soft, doughy, and mobile. An ultrasound or biopsy may be necessary to rule out sarcoma or liposarcoma.

      Thyroid masses may be indicative of thyroid carcinoma or goitre. A thyroid malignancy would typically be hard, firm, and non-tender, while a goitre can be smooth or multinodular. Symptoms associated with thyroid disease may also be present.

      Sternocleidomastoid tumors are congenital lumps that appear within the first few weeks of life and are located beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle. They can restrict contralateral head movement.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any lump or bump is causing discomfort or changes in appearance.

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  • Question 2 - A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6 weeks. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day and has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past 3 months. He denies any episodes of coughing up blood. During an initial examination, an otolaryngologist observes that the right vocal fold is immobile while speaking.
      What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Left superior laryngeal nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Left-Sided Vocal Cord Paralysis

      Left-sided vocal cord paralysis can be caused by various factors, including nerve damage and stroke. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is a common cause, resulting in hoarseness due to the vocal cord lying in a paramedian position. This type of nerve damage is often associated with an underlying lung malignancy with mediastinal lymph node involvement. On the other hand, left glossopharyngeal nerve palsy does not affect the larynx, while left superior laryngeal nerve palsy is closely related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and is also more common on the left side. Cerebrovascular accidents involving the left middle or anterior cerebral artery can also cause vocal cord paralysis, but the history provided does not suggest a stroke. Accurately identifying the cause of left-sided vocal cord paralysis is crucial for appropriate management and treatment.

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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During the physical examination, the physician notes enlarged deep cervical lymph nodes. What is the cause of the hoarse voice in this patient?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Nerves in Voice Production

      The human voice is a complex system that involves the coordination of various muscles and nerves. One of the most important nerves involved in voice production is the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus. Damage to this nerve can cause hoarseness, as it innervates all the muscles of the larynx. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more commonly affected due to its longer course and proximity to mediastinal tumors.

      The internal and external branches of the superior laryngeal nerve also play a role in voice production. They innervate the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as provide secretomotor fibers to mucosal glands of the larynx above the vocal folds. However, damage to these nerves would not cause hoarseness.

      Lastly, the pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx, but does not directly affect voice production. Understanding the role of these nerves can help diagnose and treat voice disorders.

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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a mass on the right side of his neck that has been growing in size. On examination, a mass is found on the side of the neck, behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laryngocoele

      Correct Answer: Cystic hygroma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Neck Abnormalities: Cystic Hygroma, Laryngocoele, Cervical Rib, Branchial Cyst, and Enlarged Lymph Node

      Neck abnormalities can be challenging to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in proper diagnosis. Cystic hygromas are lymphatic abnormalities that are commonly found in the posterior triangle of the neck and transilluminate. They may not be noticeable at birth but typically grow as the child grows. Laryngoceles are abnormal cystic dilatations of the saccule or appendix of the laryngeal ventricle, which communicate with the lumen of the larynx and are filled with air. They are usually benign but can cause airway obstruction. Cervical ribs are extra ribs that arise from the seventh cervical vertebra and are located above the first rib. They do not transilluminate. Branchial cysts are remnants of the second branchial cleft and occur along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid, most commonly at the junction of the lower and middle thirds of the muscle. They do not transilluminate. Enlarged lymph nodes are usually secondary to an infection and settle to normal size after six to eight weeks. Understanding the characteristics of these neck abnormalities can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a lump under his chin...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a lump under his chin that causes him pain and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be functioning normally. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Correct Answer: Sialolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Submandibular Swelling: Understanding the Causes

      Submandibular swelling can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to understand the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. One of the most common causes is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition obstructs the salivary ducts and can lead to infection, resulting in pain and swelling after eating. Sialolithiasis is more common in men over the age of 40 and typically affects the submandibular gland.

      Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands, usually bilaterally. However, unilateral acute pain and swelling after eating are more typical of a salivary stone, rather than Sjögren syndrome.

      Pleomorphic adenomas are benign tumors that usually present as a painless lump, slowly enlarging over time. They do not typically cause acute pain and swelling.

      Warthin’s tumor is another slow-growing lump that is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland. Unlike sialolithiasis, it does not cause pain.

      Adenoid cystic carcinoma is a malignant tumor that presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area. It does not typically cause pain, but if left unchecked, it can invade local structures such as the facial nerve.

      In conclusion, understanding the differential diagnosis of submandibular swelling is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Sialolithiasis, Sjögren syndrome, pleomorphic adenomas, Warthin’s tumor, and adenoid cystic carcinoma are all potential causes, and each requires a different approach to management.

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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender and in the midline of the neck, just below the cricoid cartilage. A thyroglossal cyst is suspected.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Rises when patient protrudes her tongue

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal Cysts: Causes and Symptoms

      Thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can occur due to a developmental abnormality in the thyroid gland. These cysts are usually located in the midline of the neck and can cause various symptoms. Here are some important facts about thyroglossal cysts:

      Causes:
      Thyroglossal cysts occur when part of the thyroglossal duct, which connects the tongue to the thyroid gland during embryonic development, remains and transforms into a cyst. This can happen due to incomplete closure of the duct.

      Symptoms:
      One of the most distinctive symptoms of a thyroglossal cyst is that it rises upwards when the patient protrudes their tongue. This is because the cyst is still connected to the tongue. However, it remains immobile when the patient swallows. Thyroglossal cysts are usually painless, but they can become tender if infected. They are not typically associated with lymphadenopathy. Most thyroglossal cysts present in the teens or early twenties.

      Treatment:
      Surgical removal is the most common treatment for thyroglossal cysts. This involves removing the cyst and the portion of the thyroglossal duct that is still present. The surgery is usually performed under general anesthesia and has a high success rate.

      In conclusion, thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can cause distinctive symptoms. While they are usually benign, they should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out other conditions and determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because of recurrent sinus infections and failure to thrive. She is also concerned that the child has had diarrhoea for a few months, which is not resolving.
      During the examination, you notice several shiny, pink masses occupying the nasal canals.
      What is the most suitable initial step in treating this patient?

      Your Answer: Bacterial culture

      Correct Answer: Testing in which pilocarpine is administered

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Testing for Nasal Polyps in Children: The Role of Pilocarpine Sweat Test

      Nasal polyps in children should raise suspicion of cystic fibrosis (CF), especially when accompanied by other symptoms. The gold standard test for CF diagnosis is the sweat test, which involves administering the direct-acting muscarinic agonist pilocarpine and measuring the chloride content of sweat. Loratadine, a second-generation antihistamine, is not the first step in managing nasal polyps. Genetic testing is more expensive and time-consuming than the sweat test and is not the initial diagnostic choice. Biopsy is not necessary for benign nasal polyps. Bacterial culture is not relevant to the pathology underlying nasal polyps in children.

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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man, who presented to the Emergency Department a day before for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, who presented to the Emergency Department a day before for uncontrollable epistaxis, has been admitted following Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) referral. Bleeding was located and managed by posterior nasal packing. He had no complications following the procedure. However, on the next day, he developed fever, myalgia, hypotension, rashes in the oral mucocutaneous junctions, generalized oedema and several episodes of watery diarrhoea, with nausea and vomiting.
      Which of the following investigations/findings would help you make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Correct Answer: Culture and sensitivity of posterior nasal swab

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Clinical Findings in a Patient with Posterior Nasal Swab Procedure

      Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a potential complication of an infected posterior nasal swab in the management of epistaxis. Clinical signs and symptoms of multiorgan involvement, along with a positive swab from the posterior pharyngeal mucosa, would be diagnostic for TSS caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Blood cultures are not necessary for diagnosis, as they are positive in only 5% of cases. Eosinophilia is not characteristic of TSS, but rather a hallmark of drug reactions with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS). Kawasaki’s disease, another systemic inflammatory disease, is characterised by an increase in acute phase reactants (ESR, CRP) and localised oedema. A non-blanching purpuric rash is typically seen in meningococcal infection and does not match with the clinical features and history of posterior nasal swab procedure in this patient.

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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old man presents with a one-month history of feeling a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a one-month history of feeling a lump in his throat. The feeling comes and goes and has not progressed. He has no difficulty swallowing food or liquids; in fact, eating and drinking help to relieve the symptoms. He has not lost weight. He is a non-smoker. He was recently diagnosed with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and is taking a proton pump inhibitor. He also has chronic sinusitis, for which he takes a steroid nasal spray.
      Examination is normal, without cervical lymphadenopathy.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Globus pharyngeus

      Explanation:

      Globus pharyngeus is a condition where patients feel a painless lump at the back of their throat. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it is often attributed to anxiety, pharyngeal spasm, reflux disease, or hiatus hernia. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions such as thyroid disorders or cancer before diagnosing globus pharyngeus. An oesophageal ring is a benign structure at the lower end of the oesophagus that can cause swallowing difficulties. While not always symptomatic, patients may experience regurgitation and food obstruction. A diagnosis is confirmed through upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to rule out more serious causes such as oesophageal cancer. Achalasia is a disorder of the oesophagus where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty swallowing and regurgitation. A barium swallow and manometry can confirm the diagnosis. Eosinophilic oesophagitis is an allergic reaction that causes pain and heartburn upon swallowing, as well as vomiting and loss of appetite. Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma is a type of head and neck cancer associated with smoking and other carcinogens. Symptoms include hoarseness, coughing, difficulty swallowing, and systemic signs of distant metastases. However, the patient in question had no warning signs or risk factors for this type of cancer.

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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?

      Your Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function

      Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.

      External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.

      Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.

      Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
      Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.

      Vagus Nerve Damage
      Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction.

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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview

      Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.

      Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
      What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: High-dose intranasal corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use

      Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.

      IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.

      For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis

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  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in the nose during a rugby game. The bleeding is resolved with direct pressure and packing of the nose. Which vascular territory is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can occur from two areas: the anterior bleed from the Kiesselbach’s plexus and the posterior bleed from the sphenopalatine artery. The former is usually caused by trauma, while the latter is due to underlying pathologies such as hypertension or old age.

      To manage epistaxis, direct pressure to the bleeding point, packing of the nose, or surgical ligation or selective embolisation of the relevant artery may be necessary. It is important to check clotting and haemoglobin levels, especially in significant episodes of epistaxis that may lead to considerable blood loss, which can be masked by ingestion of the blood into the digestive tract.

      It is worth noting that the nasal artery and the superficial temporal artery are not involved in epistaxis, while the zygomatic artery has no significant role in it. Understanding the causes and management of epistaxis can help individuals respond appropriately to this common medical condition.

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  • Question 14 - A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in a pediatric patient. He incises the skin and the platysma in the neck below the gland, then proceeds to dissect the gland free of its bed. As he dissects the deep lobe, he notes the submandibular duct, which he mobilises, ligates and cuts anteriorly.
      When cutting the duct, which of the following needs the most care to be taken to avoid damage?

      Your Answer: The mandibular branch of the facial nerve

      Correct Answer: The lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland and Related Structures

      The submandibular gland is composed of a superficial and deep part, with the facial artery passing between the gland and mandible and the facial vein indenting it superiorly. To access the deep lobe of the gland, both structures must be ligated and cut. The mandibular branch of the facial nerve is at risk of damage during the initial incision, while the lingual nerve is closely related to the submandibular duct and carries various fibers. The facial artery and vein may also be ligated during dissection, but are not as intimately related to the duct as the lingual nerve. The lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve carries parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland and synapses in the otic ganglion.

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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in the left parotid area for the past week. The pain is triggered when the patient is eating or about to eat. The GP suspects a parotid duct stone.
      Regarding the parotid gland, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: It contains within it branches of the facial nerve deep to the retromandibular vein

      Correct Answer: It has secretomotor action via the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland is innervated by parasympathetic nerves originating in the inferior salivary nucleus at the lower pons. These nerves travel along the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves, and synapse in the otic ganglion before hitch-hiking with the auriculotemporal nerve to reach the gland. Injury to these nerves during parotidectomy can cause Frey syndrome. The gland consists of superficial and deep lobes separated by the neurovascular bundle, and its duct passes around the anterior border of the masseter muscle before piercing the buccinator muscle and exiting opposite the second upper molar tooth. The gland produces mainly serous secretion, which is why salivary stones are rarely found in the parotid gland.

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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a lump in the neck. On examination, there is a 2-cm smooth, round lump at the anterior border of the upper third of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Common Neck Swellings and Their Characteristics

      There are several types of neck swellings that can occur, each with their own unique characteristics. Here are some common neck swellings and their descriptions:

      1. Branchial cyst – This type of cyst typically appears as a painless, smooth swelling in young adults. The cause is unknown, but surgical removal is usually recommended to prevent the development of an abscess.

      2. Goitre – A goitre, or thyroid lump, is a swelling that rises on swallowing and is usually located in the midline of the neck.

      3. Acute parotitis – This condition presents as a painful swelling in front of the ear.

      4. Cystic hygroma – These benign cystic structures are typically found in infants and are located in the posterior triangle of the neck.

      5. Thyroglossal cyst – This type of cyst is located in the midline of the neck and moves as the tongue protrudes.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you notice any unusual swelling in your neck, as some of these conditions may require treatment.

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  • Question 17 - Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Although she has difficulty getting up from sleep, she does not have any daytime somnolence. However, her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. They have done a lot of research on the Internet and are demanding that Sophie has her tonsils removed. On examination, Sophie has a short, thick neck and grade III tonsils, but no other abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken, even though adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA. Childhood OSA is characterised by disordered breathing during sleep, which includes both apnoea and hypopnoea. Symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity and behavioural problems are typically observed.

      It is important to reassure parents that snoring loudly is normal in children of this age, and their child’s behaviour pattern will improve as they mature. Elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure is an option, but a polysomnographic study should be performed first to confirm the diagnosis.

      While dental splints have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment. Therefore, it is important to consider all available treatment options and choose the most appropriate one for each individual case.

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  • Question 18 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department by her mother who informs the Consultant of her repeated nosebleeds. She is an avid basketball player, and her mother has noticed multiple bruises after games. The Consultant goes through the list of recent laboratory investigations ordered by the girl’s Paediatrician. Full blood count (FBC), haemoglobin, platelet count, white blood cell count and clotting times [prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT)] were all found to be within normal values. Additional haematological test results were also normal, including activity assays for factor VIII and XIII, platelet aggregation assay and von Willebrand factor (vWF) antigen.
      Which of the following physical findings would give the most effective information regarding her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypermobility of fingers and toes

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values

      Introduction:
      Bleeding problems with normal haematological values can be challenging to diagnose. This article discusses possible diagnoses for such cases based on physical findings.

      Hypermobility of Fingers and Toes:
      Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, a collagen-based disorder, is a possible diagnosis for bleeding problems with normal haematological values. This is associated with hypermobility of the fingers and toes, ocular cutaneous haemorrhages, joint hypermobility, and increased skin elasticity.

      Subconjunctival Haemorrhages:
      Subconjunctival haemorrhages can be caused by ocular or systemic factors. Systemic causes include hypertension, diabetes, and bleeding disorders. It is difficult to diagnose the specific cause without further investigation.

      Bruises in the Shins:
      Easy bruising of the skin can be attributed to platelet disorders, drugs, and hepatic disorders. However, since the coagulation profiles and levels of clotting factors are normal, it is difficult to diagnose the specific cause. Further investigation is necessary.

      Petechial Rashes on Pressure Sites:
      Petechial rashes, conjunctival haemorrhages, and bruising over the shins can indicate an associated bleeding disorder. However, normal haematological values make it difficult to diagnose a specific condition.

      Visual Acuity Defects and Albinism:
      Normal haematological values do not rule out bleeding disorders. Hermansky–Pudlak syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition, can cause visual acuity defects and albinism along with bleeding tendencies. However, the platelet aggregation assay is typically deranged in these cases, which is not the case in this scenario.

      Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values and Associated Physical Findings

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  • Question 19 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain, swelling, and itching. Her mother reports that it all started after her daughter began swimming lessons two months ago. During examination, the clinician notes tenderness when pulling the right ear upwards. Otoscopy is challenging due to the painful, swollen ear canal and white discharge. Additionally, the girl has tender cervical lymph nodes on the right side below the ear and experiences pain when moving her jaw sideways. She has a mild fever (38.3 °C), but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical acetic acid 2% spray (with wick placement) and oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for this patient’s severe otitis externa involves a combination of topical acetic acid 2% spray with wick placement and oral antibiotics. The use of wick placement is necessary due to the swelling in the ear canal, which can hinder the effectiveness of the topical solution. Oral antibiotics are necessary in cases where the infection has spread to adjacent areas, as evidenced by the patient’s tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Flucloxacillin or clarithromycin are commonly used for severe cases. Cleaning and irrigation of the ear canal may be performed under otoscope guidance to remove debris and promote better absorption of topical medication. Oral aminoglycosides are effective but should only be used if the tympanic membrane is intact. NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief but are not sufficient for treating severe otitis externa. While topical acetic acid 2% spray is a first-line treatment for mild cases, a combination of topical therapy and oral antibiotics is necessary for severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain on and off for about 2 weeks, particularly during meals. However, the pain has increased significantly over the last 2 days. During examination, he is found to be febrile at 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals poor dental hygiene and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Left Submandibular Gland Infection

      Left submandibular gland infection can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them for proper treatment. Sialolithiasis, or a submandibular gland calculus, is a common cause and presents with dull pain around the gland, worsened by mealtimes or sour foods. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes sharp tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth. Mumps parotitis affects younger patients and presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth. However, if left untreated, it can progress to Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth. Ludwig’s angina typically follows a dental infection and requires early specialist intervention to secure the airway and prevent fatal consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      64
      Seconds

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ENT (11/20) 55%
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