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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.

    Preceding this, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.

      Preceding this, he fell three weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.

      Three weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.

      The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation for this man?

      Your Answer: Computed tomograms of the head

      Correct Answer: Serum alcohol concentration

      Explanation:

      Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly

      The patient’s history of a previous fall and subsequent development of confusion and neurological symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of chronic subdural haematoma. The best investigation for this condition is a CT scan, which is the preferred choice over a skull x-ray that may only reveal a fracture.

      Chronic subdural haematoma is a common condition in the elderly, and it occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination. If left untreated, chronic subdural haematoma can lead to serious complications, such as seizures, coma, and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her records, you find out that she has been taking 40 mg of Temazepam for 20 years. After some questioning, she expresses a desire to discontinue use. How should this situation be handled?

      Your Answer: Convert to an equivalent dose of diazepam and then reduce slowly

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Hypnotic Dependence

      Hypnotic dependence remains a significant concern, as benzodiazepines and Z-class drugs have the potential to cause dependence without proven efficacy in treating chronic insomnia. Withdrawal from these drugs can lead to rebound insomnia and even seizures with high doses of benzodiazepines. Additionally, hypnotics have a street value and can be diverted for non-medical use. To mitigate these risks, it is recommended that prescriptions for hypnotics be limited to one week. If a doctor wishes to withdraw a patient from a hypnotic, they should first convert the dosage to an equivalent dose of diazepam, which has a longer half-life, allowing for a slower withdrawal process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A man visits your clinic after a year as he requires an increase...

    Correct

    • A man visits your clinic after a year as he requires an increase in his dosage of methylphenidate. As per NICE guidelines, what assessments will you need to conduct as a physician?

      Your Answer: Check height, weight, HR and BP

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Side Effects of Methylphenidate Therapy for ADHD

      Height and growth should be regularly monitored and plotted on a growth chart for children receiving methylphenidate therapy for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Growth retardation is a serious potential side effect, and weight loss may also occur. In addition, heart rate and blood pressure should be monitored and recorded on a centile chart before and after each dose change, as well as routinely every three months. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that is used as part of a comprehensive treatment program for children with severe ADHD. However, patients who experience sustained resting tachycardia, arrhythmia, or systolic blood pressure greater than the 95th percentile (or a clinically significant increase) measured on two occasions should have their dose reduced and be referred to a pediatrician. Routine blood tests and ECGs are not recommended unless there is a clinical indication. It is important to record pulse, blood pressure, psychiatric symptoms, appetite, weight, and height at initiation of therapy, following each dose adjustment, and at least every six months thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while...

    Correct

    • A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Flying while pregnant with twins

      When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.

      Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP due to vaginal bleeding. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP due to vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon amount of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate is 85 beats per minute, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the next recommended management step based on the current NICE CKS guidelines?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient urgently to the early pregnancy assessment unit for an outpatient scan

      Correct Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for women, often leading them to seek medical attention. The main causes of bleeding during this time include miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. Of these causes, ectopic pregnancy is the most important to rule out as it can be life-threatening if missed.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal or pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman experiences bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat.

      For pregnancies under six weeks gestation and no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, expectant management is appropriate. Women should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops, to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test indicates a miscarriage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage bleeding in the first trimester and ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A menopausal woman in her early 50s comes to discuss a change in...

    Incorrect

    • A menopausal woman in her early 50s comes to discuss a change in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with you. She is experiencing PMS type symptoms, breast tenderness, and low mood with her current formulation. She finds it difficult to cope with the mood swings and the hot flashes are very troublesome despite wearing loose fitting clothing and opening windows at night. She doesn't have any risk factors preventing the use of HRT. She has never had any operations, has 2 grown up children by normal delivery, and uses no contraception.

      Which of the following would be most appropriate to use instead?

      Your Answer: Topical oestrogen therapy

      Correct Answer: Tibolone

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Progestogenic Side Effects of HRT

      When a woman experiences progestogenic side effects from her current hormone replacement therapy (HRT), there are several options for managing the symptoms. However, the best solution is switching to Mirena and oestrogen therapy. The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (IUS), also known as Mirena, delivers progestogen locally to the uterus, resulting in low systemic levels of levonorgestrel. This can significantly reduce bleeding and amenorrhoea in women experiencing persistent progestogenic adverse effects from systemic HRT. The levonorgestrel-releasing IUS is also appropriate for women who require contraception along with HRT in the perimenopause or have heavy withdrawal bleeds on sequential HRT.

      Oral oestrogen therapy alone is not suitable for women with an intact uterus as they require endometrial protection. Topical oestrogen therapy is generally used for women with vaginal atrophy and will not treat vasomotor symptoms. Tibolone can be used but is not as effective as combined HRT. The copper coil doesn’t offer endometrial protection. Therefore, the best viable option is oral oestrogen with protection afforded by the Mirena coil, which is licensed for this use.

      It is important to note that management of side effects of HRT is an important topic that may appear in exams. It is advisable to read through references to be fully prepared to answer questions correctly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      376.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for review, as she is concerned about her frequent ear and chest infections. She was born full term with no complications. Her mother reports that she tried to breastfeed but ended up converting to formula as she was failing to thrive, and she still often brings food up through her nose.
      On examination, she has low-set ears, hypertelorism (wide-set eyes) and hooded eyelids. She makes some babbling noises but doesn't say any words yet. A set of blood tests reveal low calcium. There is no family history of recurrent infections.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between immunodeficiency disorders in a pediatric patient

      This patient presents with symptoms of immunodeficiency, including hypocalcaemia, developmental delay, facial dysmorphism, and feeding difficulties. The differential diagnosis includes DiGeorge syndrome, selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency, Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), and physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a genetic syndrome that commonly presents with mild immunodeficiency due to reduced thymus function or absence of a thymus. Facial dysmorphism, such as low-set ears, hypertelorism, and hooded eyelids, is also common.

      Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary antibody deficiency and may be associated with autoimmune disease or allergies. It is not associated with characteristic facies or low calcium.

      Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia is an X-linked immunodeficiency that presents with severe respiratory tract infections in male infants. It is unlikely in this case as the patient is female with a different clinical picture.

      CVID is the most common primary immunodeficiency in adults and presents with recurrent bacterial infections. It is not associated with the characteristic facies described here or developmental delay, feeding difficulties, or hypocalcaemia.

      Physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy is a common phenomenon where babies gradually lose their mother’s immunoglobulin G and replace it with their own. It is not associated with any additional facial features, blood abnormalities, or developmental or feeding delay.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation and testing are necessary to differentiate between these immunodeficiency disorders in this pediatric patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      153.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship and has started having sexual intercourse while using condoms as contraception. She expresses her desire to switch to hormonal contraception and has chosen the combined contraceptive pill, Rigevidon, as she has no contraindications. During the consultation, you discover that she is on day 4 of her menstrual cycle. What guidance do you provide her regarding commencing the pill at this stage of her cycle?

      Your Answer: Start pill - there is no need for additional contraception

      Explanation:

      To avoid the need for additional barrier contraception, the woman should begin taking the pill immediately as she is currently menstruating and therefore not at risk of pregnancy. The combined contraceptive pill, except for Qlaira and Zoely, can be started within the first five days of a menstrual cycle without requiring further contraception. If started on day six or later, seven days of barrier contraception or abstinence is recommended. Waiting until day eight or the next menstrual period is unnecessary as the starting rules remain the same.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Abuse of which of the following substances is implicated most frequently as the...

    Incorrect

    • Abuse of which of the following substances is implicated most frequently as the cause of occupational accidents and injuries among workers aged 18 to 25?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Marijuana

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Consumption and Occupational Injuries

      Workers who consume alcohol are at a higher risk of experiencing occupational injuries compared to non-users. According to research, even light and moderate drinking can result in significant personal and societal costs. The majority of alcohol-related problems in the workplace are caused by light and moderate drinkers, not just those who drink on the job. Heavy drinking outside of work can also contribute to these issues. Hangover-related health problems, such as an increased risk of heart attacks, reduced cognitive abilities, and a psychiatric disorder known as Elpenor syndrome, which is characterized by irrational behavior, can further exacerbate the negative effects of alcohol consumption in the workplace. It is important for employers to address alcohol use among their employees to ensure a safe and productive work environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Sophie is a 12-week-old infant who has been brought in by her mother...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 12-week-old infant who has been brought in by her mother due to recurrent episodes of regurgitation after feeds and frequent crying during feeding for the past week. She is otherwise well.

      Sophie was born at term and is formula-fed. Her mother explains that each feed is around 180ml and she has 5-6 feeds over a 24 hour period. Sophie's current weight is 5.5kg.

      After a full assessment, you suspect that this is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Reduce the total volume of feeds to 900 ml over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, formula-fed infants with GORD should undergo a stepped care approach starting with a review of their feeding history. If the volume of feeds is excessive for the child’s weight, the next step is to reduce it to a total of 150 mL/kg body weight over 24 hours (6-8 times a day). Currently, Bobbie is consuming 1200-1400 ml over 24 hours, which is more than the recommended amount of 900 ml for his weight of 6kg. Therefore, his feeds should be reduced to 900 ml over 24 hours while maintaining the current frequency of 6-7 times a day. Decreasing the volume of each feed to 100ml would result in an insufficient total intake of 600-700ml over 24 hours. Reducing the frequency of feeds is not recommended for GORD, as smaller, more frequent feeds are more effective in improving symptoms. If reducing feed volume and frequency doesn’t significantly improve symptoms, a trial of feed thickeners or alginate therapy added to formula can be considered as options in the stepped care approach.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      88.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral otosclerosis?

      Your Answer: Rinne positive both sides with central Weber

      Correct Answer: Rinne negative both sides with central Weber

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis and its Effects on Hearing

      Otosclerosis is a condition that leads to conductive deafness, which means that bone conduction is better than air conduction. When testing for this condition, you would expect to see bilateral negative Rinne with central Weber. However, if the disease is in its early stages, the Rinne test may be equivocal. It is important to note that the second and third options do not make sense in the context of otosclerosis. Understanding the effects of otosclerosis on hearing can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking advice on how to lose weight. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      As per the latest NICE guidelines on weight loss, what would be your first-line recommendation to him?

      Your Answer: Suggest increased physical activity

      Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      The latest guidance from NICE recommends bariatric surgery as the primary option for adults with a BMI exceeding 50 kg/m2, rather than lifestyle changes or medication. Therefore, patients falling under this category should be referred for bariatric surgery evaluation.

      In cases where the waiting time for surgery is prolonged, drug treatment with orlistat may be prescribed to maintain or reduce weight. Orlistat is approved for adults aged 18-75 years with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors, when used in conjunction with a mildly hypocaloric diet.

      In addition to referral consideration, advising the patient to follow a low-calorie diet and increase physical activity would be beneficial. As this patient is at high risk of developing type 2 diabetes, testing for it may be necessary, but should not delay urgent intervention to reduce their BMI.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum. She is using the lactational amenorrheoic method (LAM) for contraception.
      Which of the following should she be advised may increase her risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Menstruation returning

      Explanation:

      Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) as a Contraceptive

      Breastfeeding can be used as a form of contraception through the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM). This method works by suppressing ovarian activity, which prevents the return of menstrual periods after childbirth. For LAM to be effective, a woman must engage in full breastfeeding, which includes exclusive or almost exclusive breastfeeding with no other liquids or solids given.

      If the frequency or duration of breastfeeding decreases, the risk of menstrual periods and fertility increases. Women who experience bleeding within the first six months after childbirth have a higher risk of pregnancy than those who remain amenorrhoeic. To use LAM as a contraceptive, a woman must meet all three criteria: fully or nearly fully breastfeeding day and night, no long intervals between feeds, and amenorrhoeic and less than six months postpartum.

      When the rules of LAM are strictly followed, failure rates are less than 2%. Therefore, LAM can be an effective and natural form of contraception for women who choose to breastfeed their infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells...

    Incorrect

    • Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.

      On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.

      Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Reassure Bill, but advise him to report any rectal bleeding promptly

      Correct Answer: Take a full family history

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

      Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.

      If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.

      It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old gentleman has come to discuss his recent blood test results.

    A few...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gentleman has come to discuss his recent blood test results.

      A few months previously he had a private health screening that showed an abnormality on his liver function tests. He was subsequently told to see his GP for further advice. You can see that a liver function test done at that time showed a bilirubin level of 41 µmol/L (normal 3-20) with the remainder of the liver function profile being within normal limits.

      Prior to seeing you today a colleague has repeated the liver function with a few other tests. The results show a normal full blood count, renal function and thyroid function.

      Repeat LFTs reveal:
      Bilirubin 40 µmol/L
      ALT 35 U/L
      ALP 104 U/L
      Conjugated bilirubin 7 μmol/L

      He is well in himself and has no significant past medical history. General systems examination is normal.

      What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Elevated Bilirubin Levels in Asymptomatic Patients

      This patient has an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is not experiencing any symptoms. The bilirubin level is twice the upper limit of normal, which has been confirmed on interval testing. The next step is to determine the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If greater than 70% is unconjugated, as is the case here, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome.

      If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, then no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor bilirubin levels in asymptomatic patients to detect any potential underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain that has been gradually worsening for the past 14 days. He reports that the pain is worse in the evening after a long day at work and improves with rest, but it wakes him up at night. He denies any history of trauma and has been taking paracetamol to manage the pain. What is the most likely feature in his history to indicate severe underlying pathology such as spinal fracture or cancer?

      Your Answer: Pain that disturbs sleep

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags for Spinal Malignancy: Understanding the Clinical Picture

      When evaluating a patient with back pain, it is important to consider red flags that may indicate an underlying pathology, such as spinal malignancy. However, it is crucial to understand that suspicion should not be based on a single red flag, but on the overall clinical picture, including the patient’s medical history and risk factors.

      One red flag is aching night-time pain that disturbs sleep, which may suggest spinal malignancy. Another is sudden severe central spinal pain that is relieved by lying down, which may indicate spinal fracture. However, nonspecific lower back pain that varies with posture and is exacerbated by movement is more likely to be a diagnosis for most patients.

      Age is also a factor, as new onset of back pain in those over 50 years old is a risk factor for cancer. However, for patients under 50 years old, this is not the most likely indicator of an underlying pathology. Additionally, thoracic pain is more concerning for spinal malignancy and aortic aneurysm, while lower back pain is less specific.

      In summary, identifying red flags for spinal malignancy requires a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s clinical picture, including their medical history and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. She has a history of atopic eczema and has depigmented areas on her hands. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Correct Answer: Trichotillomania

      Explanation:

      Co-Existence of Vitiligo and Alopecia Areata

      This girl is experiencing a combination of vitiligo and alopecia areata, two conditions that can co-exist and have a similar autoimmune cause. Alopecia areata is highly suggested by the presence of discrete areas of hair loss and normal texture on the scalp. These conditions can cause significant emotional distress and impact a person’s self-esteem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.

      Which of the following measurements would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 7.5 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: A urine dipstick analysis showing +++ glucose

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus

      Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or a fasting plasma glucose level above 7 mmol/L. Another option is the two-hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance may be indicated by a post-OGTT plasma glucose level between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose level between 6.1 and 7.

      For certain groups, an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point for diagnosing diabetes. However, it is important to note that a value below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) doesn’t necessarily exclude a diabetes diagnosis using glucose tests. It is crucial to familiarize oneself with the exceptions to these guidelines.

      Overall, the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of various factors and tests to ensure accurate identification and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions...

    Correct

    • Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?

      Your Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms

      Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.

      In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.

      Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.

      Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed away recently. He shares that he woke up this morning thinking she was lying next to him and heard her voice calling his name. He acknowledges that this is not feasible, but it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he might be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health

      Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.

      Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.

      The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.

      In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      29.6
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  • Question 22 - A 25-week pregnant lady comes to see you to ask about vaccination. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-week pregnant lady comes to see you to ask about vaccination. She feels well in herself and there have been no complications in the pregnancy. She has been seeing her midwife regularly who has reported no problems.

      When should she have the pertussis vaccination?

      Your Answer: She can receive the vaccination now

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations during Pregnancy

      The seasonal influenza vaccine and pertussis vaccination are both recommended for pregnant women. The influenza vaccine can be given at any stage of pregnancy, while the pertussis vaccine is ideally administered between 16-32 weeks to maximize antibody transfer to the unborn infant. Both vaccines are inactivated and can be given at the same time or at any interval from each other.

      It is important not to delay the administration of the influenza vaccine. The pertussis vaccine should not be given in early pregnancy as antibody levels would decline throughout the pregnancy, resulting in minimal transfer across the placenta. However, it is safe to give in the second trimester. Both vaccines protect against different illnesses and are advised during pregnancy.

      It is not recommended to give the pertussis vaccine during labor as antibody production peaks two weeks after vaccination. By following these guidelines, pregnant women can protect themselves and their unborn infants from preventable illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      30.2
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma. He is given intravenous glucose to revive him. He tells the physician that he was unaware that he had hypoglycaemia.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about hypoglycaemia in a diabetic patient.

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemic unawareness is a contraindication to driving

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemic unawareness, where a person with diabetes is unable to recognize the symptoms of low blood sugar, is a reason why they should not drive according to the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). To be considered fit to drive, a person with diabetes must have experienced no more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the past year and be aware of the symptoms. Symptoms of mild hypoglycaemia include hunger, anxiety, irritability, palpitations, sweating, and tingling lips. As blood glucose levels drop further, symptoms may progress to weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, confusion, and irrational behavior. Severe hypoglycaemia can result in seizures and loss of consciousness, and between 4 and 10% of deaths in people with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus are due to hypoglycaemia. Recurrent exposure to hypoglycaemia can lead to a loss of early warning symptoms, making it more difficult for a person to recognize when their blood sugar is low. While most patients with impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia can recognize their symptoms and correct the hypoglycaemia with a small amount of fast-acting carbohydrate taken by mouth, severe hypoglycaemia occurs when patients require treatment by another person because they are incapable of self-management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over the past 4 weeks. It seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day and lasts for approximately 2 hours. The pain makes him feel nauseous although he has not vomited. He has been significantly stressed with personal issues recently. Interestingly, he also reports his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation. He has no loss of visual acuity.

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are characterized by intermittent severe frontotemporal headaches lasting up to 2 hours at a time, with ipsilateral autonomic disturbance. These clusters typically last from 4 to 12 weeks and are more common in men than women. Glaucoma may cause a change in visual acuity, but headaches related to brain tumors would not exhibit ipsilateral autonomic disturbance and would not be as severe or intermittent. While migraine is a possibility, it would be unusual to experience such frequent episodes over a 4-week period and without ipsilateral autonomic disturbance.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red...

    Correct

    • A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red eyes. There was no known injury to her eyes. She has clear discharge from both eyes and no symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but both upper eyelids are swollen and the conjunctiva is red bilaterally. There is no lymphadenopathy and she is not running a fever. You suspect she has acute infective conjunctivitis.

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise his symptoms should improve within 7 days without treatment

      Explanation:

      Antimicrobial treatment is often unnecessary for most cases of infective conjunctivitis, regardless of whether it is caused by a virus or bacteria. It can be challenging to differentiate between the two, although bacterial conjunctivitis may present with purulent discharge instead of watery discharge. Patients can alleviate symptoms with self-care measures such as cold compresses and ocular lubricants. If symptoms persist after seven days, patients should seek further medical attention. In severe cases of suspected bacterial conjunctivitis, chloramphenicol ointment can be purchased over the counter, while fusidic acid may be used as a second-line antimicrobial. Herpetic conjunctivitis, which causes a painful red eye with vesicular eyelid lesions, can be treated with aciclovir. Swabs are not useful in diagnosing conjunctivitis.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      16.7
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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature would indicate possible opioid overdose?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Opioid Toxicity

      Acute opioid toxicity is a serious condition that can result in drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and respiratory depression. The severity of symptoms may be exacerbated if alcohol or other sedatives are also involved. Hypotension is a common occurrence, and both tachycardia and bradycardia may be observed. Hypoventilation can lead to hypoxia-induced cardiac arrhythmias, and pinpoint pupils may be present. Sweating is more commonly associated with acute opioid withdrawal. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you suspect acute opioid toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      9.4
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old teacher presents with joint pains. Over the past few months, she...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old teacher presents with joint pains. Over the past few months, she has been experiencing intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints of her hands and feet. The stiffness tends to improve during the day, but the pain tends to worsen. She has also noticed stiffness in her back but cannot recall any injury that may have caused it. During an acute attack, blood tests were taken and the results are as follows:

      Rheumatoid factor: Negative
      Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody: Positive
      Uric acid: 0.3 mmol/l (0.18 - 0.48)
      ESR: 41 mm/hr

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly linked to the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies, which are highly specific to this condition.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 28 - You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who...

    Correct

    • You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.

      She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.

      On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.

      What is the next most appropriate acute action?

      Your Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients

      This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.

      For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.

      When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last two to three months he is opening his bowels four to five times a day and the consistency of his stools has become very loose. He has noticed small amounts of blood in his faeces but put this down to 'piles'.

      Previously, he used to open his bowels on average once a day and has no personal history of any gastrointestinal problems. There is no family history of bowel problems, he has not lost any weight and he denies any rectal blood loss. Stool mc&s is normal as are his recent blood tests which show that he is not anaemic. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.

      He tells you that he is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about two months ago he submitted his bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that his screening tests were negative. What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?

      Your Answer: Refer him urgently to a specialist for investigation of his lower gastrointestinal tract

      Explanation:

      Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms

      Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to mention that they are not worried as they have done their bowel screening and it was negative.

      In the case of a 66-year-old man with persistent changes in bowel habit towards looser stools with some rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary. It is important to note that relying on recent bowel screening results may falsely reassure patients and delay necessary medical attention.

      Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient’s current symptoms and promptly refer them for further evaluation, regardless of their previous screening results. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients with bowel symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - Which statement is accurate regarding the evaluation of a patient's ability to make...

    Correct

    • Which statement is accurate regarding the evaluation of a patient's ability to make decisions?

      Your Answer: For a person to have capacity, they must be able to retain the information that you give them about the decision they are being asked to make

      Explanation:

      Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions

      Capacity to make decisions can vary and may change over time. A person who has the capacity to make one decision may not necessarily have the capacity to make another, and vice versa. To determine if a patient has the capacity to make a particular decision, they must understand the information given to them and be able to retain it long enough to weigh it and come to a decision for themselves. It is not necessary for a psychiatrist or psychogeriatrician to assess capacity, but seeking a specialist view may be helpful if there are doubts. Irrational decisions do not necessarily indicate a lack of capacity. Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, an individual can appoint an attorney to make decisions on their behalf if they become mentally incapacitated in the future. The attorney can only make decisions when the patient has lost the capacity to make those decisions for themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      15.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Older Adults (2/3) 67%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed