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Question 1
Incorrect
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In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis and Other Joint Pathologies
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, reactive arthritis presents with uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that doesn’t involve the DIP. Gout, another joint pathology, doesn’t typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) arthritis. Lastly, it is important to note that bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with a red left eye. She reports experiencing an itchy, gritty sensation in the left eye for the past 24 hours. She notes some grey-green discharge at the lid margins and mentions using an eye bath she purchased from the pharmacy to clear it this morning. Her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and both pupils are equal and reactive with no other abnormalities detected. Fluorescein staining shows no focal lesion. She has no history of eye problems and doesn't wear contact lenses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe antibacterial topical treatment (e.g., chloramphenicol)
Correct Answer: Prescribe a regular ocular lubricant
Explanation:Antibiotic Stewardship in the Management of Acute Infective Conjunctivitis
In the management of acute infective conjunctivitis, it is important to consider good antibiotic stewardship and follow national guidance from NICE. While it can be difficult to differentiate between bacterial and viral conjunctivitis, most cases are self-limiting and resolve within 1-2 weeks without the need for antibiotics. Lubricant eye drops can help reduce discomfort, and patients should clean away infected secretions with a cotton wool ball soaked in water. Additionally, up to 10% of patients may experience adverse reactions to topical antibiotics.
According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge summary, treatment with topical antibiotics should be reserved for severe cases where other serious causes have been ruled out, for schools and childcare organizations requiring treatment before allowing a child to return, and for patients who understand the limitations of treatment but still prefer it. If patients prefer early treatment with antibiotics, they should consider delaying treatment to see if the condition resolves spontaneously within 7 days.
If a patient presents with an acute red eye and normal visual acuity without any red flag features, immediate eye casualty referral is not necessary. Management in primary care is the most appropriate approach at this stage. However, if the patient experiences reduced visual acuity, immediate referral for further specialist assessment is warranted. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure appropriate management of acute infective conjunctivitis while promoting antibiotic stewardship.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the family General Practitioner (GP) as she is concerned about his development. He has not yet started to walk and was not able to sit unaided until the age of 18 months. For the first few months of his life, the health visitor had seen him frequently for poor weight gain, though for the last year, his appetite has seemed insatiable.
On examination, his height is in the 25th centile (25th centile at 18 months) and his weight is in the 90th centile (50th centile at 18 months). He has small, descended testes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome (FXS)
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS)
Explanation:Diagnosing a Child with Developmental Delay, Excessive Appetite, and Small Testes: Differential Diagnosis
Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS), a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, learning disability, excessive appetite, and obesity, is a possible diagnosis for a child presenting with these symptoms. However, other conditions must be considered in the differential diagnosis. Obesity, while becoming more common in childhood, would not account for the developmental delay or small testes. Angelman syndrome, another genetic cause of developmental delay, is not associated with excessive hunger, obesity, or hypogonadism. Fragile X syndrome (FXS), the commonest cause of sex-linked learning disability, is characterized by large testicles, but the small testes in this case make FXS unlikely. Hyperphagic short stature syndrome (HSS), a behavioral disease associated with growth-hormone insufficiency, leading to short stature and an insatiable appetite, doesn’t account for the symptoms of developmental delay and small testes seen in this case. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He recently experienced a seizure and was referred to a neurologist for further investigation. Despite showing symptoms of a seizure, all tests, including EEG and imaging, came back normal. The neurologist concluded that it was a solitary fit and advised against medication. The patient has been discharged from further follow-up but was instructed to inform the DVLA. He has come to you for guidance on how long he should refrain from driving his car after the initial seizure.
Can you provide information on the potential causes of seizures in adults?Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 1 month
Explanation:Understanding DVLA Driving Restrictions for Patients with Neurological Conditions
There are important pieces of information to consider when it comes to driving restrictions for patients with neurological conditions. In the case of a banking assistant who experienced a solitary seizure, the latest DVLA guidance suggests refraining from driving for six months after the seizure. This applies to Group 1 entitlement drivers, which includes cars and motorcycles. If the patient was an HGV driver, the restriction would be five years.
It’s important to note that this was an isolated seizure with normal test results and no medication. If the patient had epilepsy, the driving restriction would be one year following the attack. It’s crucial to be familiar with the latest guidance and any new changes, as questions about driving restrictions often come up in the MRCGP exam.
Understanding the impact of these restrictions on patients’ working and personal lives is also important. As part of the curriculum map for neurological problems, candidates should have an understanding of the current DVLA restrictions on driving, particularly with regard to epilepsy. It’s essential to be aware of any new restrictions or amendments and to pass on this information to patients. By staying informed, doctors can help patients navigate the potential consequences of driving restrictions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in aiding patients and their caregivers in managing it. What is the typically acknowledged sequence of the phases of bereavement?
Your Answer: Bargaining, denial, anger, acceptance, depression
Correct Answer: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Explanation:Understanding the Five Stages of Grief: Insights from Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her pioneering work in supporting and counseling individuals experiencing personal trauma, grief, and grieving, particularly in relation to death and dying. Her ideas, particularly the five stages of grief model, have been widely used to help people cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
The first stage is denial, which involves a conscious or unconscious refusal to accept the reality of the situation. This can be a defense mechanism that some people use to cope with traumatic changes. However, denial can also hinder the healing process if it is not addressed.
The second stage is anger, which can manifest in different ways. People may direct their anger towards themselves or others, especially those close to them. It is important to understand that anger is a natural response to grief and to remain non-judgmental when dealing with someone who is upset.
The third stage is bargaining, which often involves attempting to make deals with a higher power or trying to negotiate a better outcome. However, this rarely provides a sustainable solution for grief.
The fourth stage is depression, which can include feelings of sadness, regret, fear, and uncertainty. It is a sign that the person is beginning to accept the reality of the situation.
The final stage is acceptance, which varies depending on the individual’s circumstances. It is an indication that the person has achieved some emotional detachment and objectivity. People who are dying may enter this stage long before their loved ones, and they must go through their own unique stages of grief.
While Kübler-Ross’s concepts were developed through extensive interviews with dying patients, some have criticized her one-size-fits-all approach as being too simplistic. Not everyone will experience all of these stages, and they may not occur in a specific order. Nonetheless, understanding these stages can provide valuable insights into the grieving process and help individuals cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old lady with symptoms fitting with a UTI.
Her notes mention an allergy to Septrin.
Which of the following treatment options is contraindicated?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Allergy to Septrin
Patient notes may indicate an allergy to Septrin, which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim. This medication is also known as co-trimoxazole. It is important to note that it is not possible to determine which component of Septrin the patient is allergic to. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient avoids both trimethoprim and sulfonamides to prevent any potential allergic reactions. Proper communication with healthcare providers is crucial to ensure that the patient receives appropriate treatment without any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for a few weeks. The rash appears erythematous, greasy, and has a fine scale on her cheeks, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, nasal bridge, and scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often the culprit behind an itchy rash that appears on the face and scalp. This condition is characterized by its distribution pattern, which affects these areas. It can be distinguished from acne rosacea, which typically doesn’t involve the nasolabial folds and is marked by the presence of telangiectasia and pustules.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding her desire to start a family with her partner. She is currently taking methotrexate and wants to know if it is safe to conceive.
What would be the best course of action to recommend?Your Answer: He should wait at least 3 months and his partner should take folic 5 mg od
Correct Answer: He should wait at least 6 months after stopping treatment
Explanation:Men and women who are undergoing methotrexate treatment must use reliable contraception throughout the duration of the treatment and for a minimum of 6 months after it has ended.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old teacher presents to the out-of-hours General Practice with complaints of conjunctivitis. She wears contact lenses. She has been using over-the-counter Brolene® drops for the last two days to try to treat the problem herself, but now finds her vision blurred in the affected eye. On examination, she has florid keratoconjunctivitis and visual acuity of 6/36 in her affected eye. Fluorescein stain is taken up centrally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Unilateral Eye Condition
One possible diagnosis for a patient with a unilateral eye condition is a corneal ulcer, which can be caused by contact lens use and may lead to serious complications if left untreated. However, other conditions should also be considered. Viral conjunctivitis, which is typically bilateral and accompanied by copious discharge, may follow a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Chlamydial conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is not usually unilateral and doesn’t involve fluorescein uptake. A dendritic ulcer, caused by herpes simplex virus, is characterized by small branching epithelial dendrites and doesn’t exhibit central fluorescein uptake. Finally, a foreign body may cause similar symptoms, but would typically be visible upon examination and not involve central fluorescein staining. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient’s eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as required, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler and breathing out before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. However, he immediately repeats this process for the second dose without taking a break.
How could he improve his technique?Your Answer: She should wait 15 seconds before repeating the dose
Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose
Explanation:To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a graphic designer because of previously undiagnosed red-green colour blindness. She has been told that she has inherited this from her parents and feels that it is their fault that she has been barred from her chosen career.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the cause of red-green colour blindness?Your Answer: Red-green colour blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait
Explanation:Understanding Red-Green Colour Blindness: Causes, Prevalence, and Implications for Driving and Employment
Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour vision deficiency, affecting 8% of men and 0.4% of women. This condition is usually congenital and inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. While less common forms of colour blindness are acquired and associated with macular disease, red-green colour blindness is often present from birth.
To assess red-green colour vision, Ishihara plates are commonly used as a screening tool. It is important to test colour vision in suspected optic nerve lesions and thyroid eye disease, as colour vision can be affected before visual acuity is impacted.
While the DVLA need not be informed of red-green colour blindness, certain occupations may exclude individuals with this condition. However, driving is generally not limited as traffic lights can be distinguished by their position.
Understanding the causes, prevalence, and implications of red-green colour blindness is important for individuals with this condition and their healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 44-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game the previous weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.
During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noticeable. He can bear weight and move around the room with ease. However, his range of motion is restricted by pain, particularly during external rotation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acetabular labral tear
Explanation:Acetabular labral tear is a condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of trauma, while older adults may develop it due to degenerative changes. The main symptoms of this condition include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking sensations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?
Your Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
What is the most appropriate advice to give her?Your Answer: Her baby will be tested for hepatitis B, and, if negative, then a course of vaccinations can be commenced
Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth
Explanation:Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
– The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
– Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
– Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
– The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
– The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
– The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General Practitioner by her parents. She has recently been unwell with a sore throat, which resolved without antibiotics. She is otherwise well but is found to have a platelet count of 20 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). The rest of her full blood count is normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms and avoid contact sports
Explanation:Management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a self-limiting disorder that commonly occurs in children following an infection or immunization. Treatment is based on clinical symptoms rather than platelet count alone. In children with severe thrombocytopenia, who are often asymptomatic, avoiding antiplatelets and non-contact sports and reporting any change in symptoms urgently is recommended. Splenectomy is rarely indicated and only used in life-threatening bleeding or severe symptoms present for 12-24 months. High-dose dexamethasone is a second-line treatment used when first-line treatments, such as prednisolone, have failed. Platelet transfusions are rarely used in emergency management. Prednisolone is the first-line management if significant symptoms or a clinical need to raise the platelet count are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman has poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. She is unable to tolerate metformin and so takes sitagliptin. Given her poor control, pioglitazone is added. She has read some information online about pioglitazone and would like some more information.
What is the best advice you can provide her about the potential effects of pioglitazone use?Your Answer: Monitoring of liver function advisable
Explanation:Important Considerations for the Use of Pioglitazone in Diabetes Management
Pioglitazone is a medication approved for the treatment of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. It can be used alone or in combination with other medications, including metformin or sulphonylurea, or with insulin. However, there are several important considerations to keep in mind when using pioglitazone.
Liver function monitoring is advisable before starting treatment and periodically thereafter due to rare reports of liver dysfunction. Pioglitazone should not be used during pregnancy due to demonstrated toxicity in animal studies. Additionally, it is associated with a small increased risk of bladder cancer and should not be used in those with active bladder cancer, a history of bladder cancer, or those under investigation for haematuria.
While pioglitazone can be prescribed together with metformin as second-line management for diabetes, it should not be used in patients with heart failure or a history of heart failure. The incidence of heart failure is increased when pioglitazone is combined with insulin, especially in patients with predisposing illness such as myocardial infarction.
In summary, pioglitazone can be a useful medication for diabetes management, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits and monitor patients appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of 2 days. She had been fasting for religious reasons during this time and has no past medical history of jaundice. The patient is asymptomatic and her abdominal examination is unremarkable. Upon blood testing, her FBC and reticulocyte count are normal, as well as her blood film. She has predominantly unconjugated bilirubin levels of 50 µmol/L (normal range 3 - 17) and otherwise normal LFTs. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:If a person has an increased serum bilirubin concentration with normal liver function tests, it may indicate Gilbert’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by a rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress and may cause mild jaundice during fasting. However, it doesn’t require treatment or monitoring and cannot progress to chronic liver disease. Therefore, reassurance is the most appropriate option, and hospital admission or ultrasound scanning is unnecessary. Additionally, as Gilbert’s syndrome is not associated with upper GI malignancies, a 2-week wait clinic is not required. Repeating liver function tests in 48 hours would not change the management plan for this condition.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A physician needs a Home Office license to prescribe which of the following controlled substances to a minor drug addict?
Your Answer: Temazepam
Correct Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Prescribing Controlled Drugs to Addicts
A doctor must obtain a Home Office licence to prescribe diamorphine, dipipanone, and cocaine to addicts. These drugs are classified as class A drugs under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which means they are highly addictive and subject to strict control to prevent illegal misuse. However, non-addicts can receive these drugs without a licence if it is clinically appropriate.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 outlines the authorised individuals who can supply and possess controlled drugs. It is important to note that prescribing these drugs to addicts requires a special licence due to the potential for misuse and addiction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of cow's milk protein allergy for the past 2 weeks. The baby is increasingly unsettled around 30-60 minutes after feeds, with frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhoea. Mild eczema is present on examination, but the baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. The baby was started on an extensively hydrolysed formula, but there is still some persistence of symptoms reported by the parents. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's condition?
Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula to continue
Correct Answer: Amino-acid based formula trial
Explanation:Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to review a urine result of a 26-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks pregnant. The urine sample was collected during her recent appointment with her midwife and the result has returned showing the presence of Escherichia coli. You speak to the patient on the phone to discuss the results and learn that she is well with no history of urinary symptom, abdominal pain or temperature.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: doesn't require any treatment as Escherichia coli are common commensal bacteria found in urine during pregnancy
Correct Answer: Antibiotic prescription for 7 days
Explanation:The immediate treatment of antibiotics is recommended for pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria. This condition is prevalent and poses a risk for pyelonephritis, premature delivery, and low birth weight, according to NICE guidelines. Treatment for seven days is currently advised. Escherichia coli, which can cause urinary tract infections and gastroenteritis, is a pathogenic organism.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test after hearing about a friend of his father who was diagnosed with prostate cancer. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Give him a patient information leaflet with details of the PSA test and allow him to make the choice
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.
PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her cervical screening outcomes. Regrettably, her last two samples have been reported as insufficient. What is the best course of action for these findings?
Your Answer: Return to routine recall
Correct Answer: Colposcopy within 6 weeks
Explanation:If a woman has two consecutive inadequate samples during cervical cancer screening, she should be referred for colposcopy. This is because if the cytology results are abnormal and show high-grade dyskaryosis (moderate or severe), colposcopy should be offered within 2 weeks. For those with inadequate, borderline, or low-grade dyskaryosis (mild) results, they should receive an appointment within 6 weeks. It is not possible for the woman to return to routine recall as her samples were inadequate. Repeat hrHPV tests would only be necessary if the woman had positive hrHPV and normal cytology results.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
On examination, there are no obvious features.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: An ultrasound (US) scan of the liver is now necessary
Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely
Explanation:Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection
Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis takes oral steroids. She complains of watering of both eyes and occasional blurred vision while working on a computer.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Glaucoma
Correct Answer: Dry eyes
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Eye Conditions Caused by Corticosteroid Treatment
Corticosteroid treatment can cause various eye conditions, including dry eyes, cataracts, and glaucoma. Dry eye syndrome is characterized by a burning or gritty sensation, dryness, intermittent blurring of vision, redness, itching, and photosensitivity. Cataracts caused by corticosteroids are typically posterior and subcapsular, leading to gradually progressive blurring of vision. Glaucoma may also occur due to raised intraocular pressure, resulting in optic nerve damage and peripheral vision loss. However, any optic nerve damage is irreversible. In contrast, corticosteroid eye drops may be used to manage inflammatory eye disorders associated with dry eyes. Fluctuating blood sugar levels caused by corticosteroids can also result in osmotic swelling of the lens, leading to intermittent blurring of vision. Finally, a transient ischaemic attack may cause acute transient loss of vision or transient diplopia, but it is not related to corticosteroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?
Your Answer: Prescribe emollients
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy
Explanation:Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a year of backpacking in a remote area of India. He has been experiencing diarrhea for two weeks and the laboratory confirms that he has giardiasis.
What is true about giardiasis?Your Answer: Diagnosis is made by culture of stool
Explanation:Giardiasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Giardiasis is a parasitic infection caused by Giardia lamblia. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-2 weeks. Symptoms include diarrhea, but it is not bloody like in dysentery. The organism attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. Metronidazole and tinidazole are commonly used in treatment.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool samples are examined microscopically for cysts, not cultures. It may be necessary to collect several samples to confirm the diagnosis as cysts may not be present in every stool. Infection can be contracted from any contaminated water, whether it is still or running. It is important to practice good hygiene and avoid drinking untreated water to prevent giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Correct
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What are the two drug classes that should not be used as a primary treatment for Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Anticholinergics
Explanation:First Line Treatments for Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that affects movement and can cause tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. When it comes to treating PD, there are several options available, but not all of them are suitable as first-line treatments.
Anticholinergics, for example, should be avoided as a first-line treatment due to their association with an increased frequency of neuropsychiatric and cognitive adverse effects. This is especially important to consider for PD patients with cognitive impairment or clinically significant psychiatric illness.
On the other hand, there are other options that can be used as first-line treatments, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and monoamine oxidase B inhibitors. However, ergot-derived dopamine agonists like cabergoline and pergolide should not be used as first-line treatments due to the risk of cardiac fibrosis with long-term use and the need for additional monitoring.
In summary, it’s important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options for PD, and to choose the most appropriate first-line treatment based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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