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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man receives a blood transfusion. Shortly after the transfusion is started,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man receives a blood transfusion. Shortly after the transfusion is started, he experiences a high body temperature, shivering, and severe shaking. Blood samples are collected for testing, and a diagnosis of bacterial infection related to the transfusion is confirmed.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Explanation:

      Transfusion transmitted bacterial infection is a rare complication that can occur during blood transfusion. It is more commonly associated with platelet transfusion, as platelets are stored at room temperature. Additionally, previously frozen components that are thawed using a water bath and red cell components stored for several weeks are also at a higher risk for bacterial infection.

      Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have been implicated in transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are known to cause more severe illness and have higher rates of morbidity and mortality. Among the bacterial organisms, Yersinia enterocolitica is the most commonly associated with this type of infection. This particular organism is able to multiply at low temperatures and utilizes iron as a nutrient, making it well-suited for proliferation in blood stores.

      The clinical features of transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection typically manifest shortly after the transfusion begins. These features include a high fever, chills and rigors, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, hypotension, and even circulatory collapse.

      If there is suspicion of a transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, it is crucial to immediately stop the transfusion. Blood cultures and a Gram-stain should be requested to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly. Furthermore, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank urgently for culture and Gram-stain analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea that has been ongoing for two days. The patient mentions experiencing a similar episode six months ago, although it was less severe and resolved within a week. The possibility of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) crosses your mind. Which of the following statements about IBD is accurate?

      Your Answer: In Crohn's disease inflammation is limited to the mucosal layer of the bowel

      Correct Answer: The terminal ileum is the most common site affected by Crohn's

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by skip lesions, which are not present in ulcerative colitis. Unlike ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease causes inflammation throughout the entire thickness of the intestinal wall, not just the mucosa. Interestingly, smoking increases the risk of developing Crohn’s disease but decreases the risk of ulcerative colitis. Additionally, having an appendicectomy before adulthood is believed to protect against ulcerative colitis, whereas it actually increases the risk of developing Crohn’s disease for about 5 years after the surgery.

      Further Reading:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.

      Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68 year old man presents to the emergency department due to increasing...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man presents to the emergency department due to increasing confusion and drowsiness over the past few days. The patient's wife tells you the patient has had a cough for the past week and apart from lisinopril takes no other regular medication. On examination you note cool extremities, diffuse non-pitting oedema and reduced tendon reflexes. Observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 100/64 mmHg
      Pulse 44 bpm
      Respiration rate 10 bpm
      Temperature 34.3ºC

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myxoedema coma

      Explanation:

      Patients who have myxoedema coma usually show symptoms such as lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, worsening mental state, seizures, and/or coma. This patient has hypothyroidism and takes thyroxine regularly, which aligns with the signs and symptoms of myxoedema coma. It is worth noting that infections often act as a trigger, and this patient has developed a cough in the last week.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      84.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body of his left testis. Upon examination, the lump is firm, located within the testis, and does not show transillumination.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Varicocele

      Correct Answer: Testicular cancer

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is the most common form of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 34. In recent times, there have been campaigns aimed at raising awareness about the importance of self-examination for early detection. Some risk factors for this type of cancer include having undescended testes, especially if it affects both testicles, which increases the risk by ten times. Additionally, individuals who have had testicular cancer in the past have a 4% chance of developing a second cancer.

      The typical presentation of testicular cancer is a painless swelling in the testicles. When examined, the swelling feels hard and is located within the testis. It cannot be illuminated when light is shone through it. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and usually confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. If seminomas are diagnosed at stage 1 (confined to the testis only), the 5-year survival rate is 98%. The remaining 40% of cases are teratomas, which can grow at a faster rate and often coexist with seminomas. In cases where the tumors are of mixed type, they are treated as teratomas due to their more aggressive nature. The main treatment for testicular cancer is surgery, with the possibility of additional chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62 year old male with a history of alcohol dependence is brought...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male with a history of alcohol dependence is brought into the emergency department by a social worker who is concerned that the patient appears to be growing more confused and drowsy in recent days. The social worker informs you that the patient had been behaving normally but had mentioned intending to visit his primary care physician regarding obtaining medication for his constipation. You suspect hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following medications would be the most suitable to administer?

      Your Answer: Rifaximin

      Explanation:

      Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition caused by the accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the body due to impaired liver function. These waste products cross the blood brain barrier and contribute to the production of glutamine, leading to changes in astrocyte osmotic pressure, brain edema, and neurotransmitter dysfunction.

      To address hepatic encephalopathy, the first-line drugs used are Rifaximin and lactulose. Rifaximin is an oral antibiotic that helps reduce the presence of ammonia-producing bacteria in the intestines. Lactulose, on the other hand, converts soluble ammonia into insoluble ammonium and aids in relieving constipation.

      It is important to note that Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, may be used to treat alcohol withdrawal but should be avoided in cases of hepatic encephalopathy as it can worsen the condition.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class I haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class I haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Urine output of 10 ml/hr

      Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty breathing. Bedside echocardiography reveals significant mitral regurgitation. What is a common clinical characteristic of mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Loud S1 with opening snap

      Correct Answer: A 3rd heart sound

      Explanation:

      Mitral regurgitation is characterized by several clinical features. One of the main signs is a pansystolic murmur that can be heard throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur often radiates to the left axilla. Another notable feature is a soft S1 heart sound, which is the first heart sound heard during the cardiac cycle. Additionally, a 3rd heart sound, also known as an added sound, can be detected in patients with mitral regurgitation. As the condition progresses to moderate to severe levels, signs such as a laterally displaced apex beat with a heave may become apparent.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level. Upon reviewing the salicylate result, you commence the urinary alkalinisation protocol. What is the desired treatment range?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary pH is 7.5-8.5

      Explanation:

      Urinary alkalinisation aims to achieve a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5. This process helps enhance the elimination of salicylates. It is important to regularly monitor urinary pH, ideally on an hourly basis.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman came in ten days ago with a fever, tenderness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman came in ten days ago with a fever, tenderness in the suprapubic area, and discharge from the vagina. The doctor diagnosed her with pelvic inflammatory disease and started her on antibiotics. She initially got better but now she is back with intense pain in her lower abdomen and a temperature of 39.5°C.

      What is the MOST suitable first test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      This patient is highly likely to have developed a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA), which is a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease. TOA occurs when a pocket of pus forms in the fallopian tube and/or ovary. If the abscess ruptures, it can lead to sepsis and become life-threatening.

      The initial imaging modality of choice is transabdominal and endovaginal ultrasound. This imaging technique often reveals multilocular complex retro-uterine/adnexal masses with debris, septations, and irregular thick walls. These masses can be present on both sides.

      Urgent hospital admission is necessary, and the usual management involves draining the abscess and administering intravenous antibiotics. The abscess drainage can be guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.

      In some cases, laparotomy or laparoscopy may be required to drain the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due to a recent onset of high fever and feeling unwell that has worsened over the past day, with the patient becoming increasingly drowsy. Despite initial resuscitation efforts, there is minimal response and it is decided to intubate the patient before transferring to the intensive care unit for ventilatory and inotropic support. Your consultant requests that you apply pressure over the cricoid during the procedure. What is the reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevent aspiration of gastric contents

      Explanation:

      Cricoid pressure is applied during intubation to compress the oesophagus and prevent the backflow of stomach contents, reducing the risk of aspiration.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 11 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
      What dose of phenytoin is recommended in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes

      Explanation:

      If a child who is experiencing convulsions reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, it is recommended to prepare a phenytoin infusion. This infusion should be administered at a dosage of 20 mg/kg over a period of 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 12 - You evaluate the ECG of a 62-year-old male who has come in with...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the ECG of a 62-year-old male who has come in with episodes of Presyncope. What is the most suitable threshold to utilize in differentiating between a normal and prolonged QTc?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 450 ms

      Explanation:

      An abnormal QTc, which is the measurement of the time it takes for the heart to recharge between beats, is generally considered to be greater than 450 ms in males. However, some sources may use a cutoff of greater than 440 ms as abnormal in males. To further categorize the QTc, a measurement of 430ms or less is considered normal, 431-450 ms is borderline, and 450 ms or more is considered abnormal in males. Females typically have a longer QTc, so the categories for them are often quoted as less than 450 ms being normal, 451-470 ms being borderline, and greater than 470ms being abnormal.

      Further Reading:

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a condition characterized by a prolonged QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG), which represents abnormal repolarization of the heart. LQTS can be either acquired or congenital. Congenital LQTS is typically caused by gene abnormalities that affect ion channels responsible for potassium or sodium flow in the heart. There are 15 identified genes associated with congenital LQTS, with three genes accounting for the majority of cases. Acquired LQTS can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and bradycardia from other causes.

      The normal QTc values, which represent the corrected QT interval for heart rate, are typically less than 450 ms for men and less than 460ms for women. Prolonged QTc intervals are considered to be greater than these values. It is important to be aware of drugs that can cause QT prolongation, as this can lead to potentially fatal arrhythmias. Some commonly used drugs that can cause QT prolongation include antimicrobials, antiarrhythmics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiemetics, and others.

      Management of long QT syndrome involves addressing any underlying causes and using beta blockers. In some cases, an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) may be recommended for patients who have experienced recurrent arrhythmic syncope, documented torsades de pointes, previous ventricular tachyarrhythmias or torsades de pointes, previous cardiac arrest, or persistent syncope. Permanent pacing may be used in patients with bradycardia or atrioventricular nodal block and prolonged QT. Mexiletine is a treatment option for those with LQT3. Cervicothoracic sympathetic denervation may be considered in patients with recurrent syncope despite beta-blockade or in those who are not ideal candidates for an ICD. The specific treatment options for LQTS depend on the type and severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 32 year old male who is a type 1 diabetic presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male who is a type 1 diabetic presents to the emergency department feeling unwell with a 2 day history of right sided earache. The patient's observations are shown below. On examination, you note the tympanic membrane is bulging and pink. There is no mastoid tenderness or palpable lymphadenopathy in the head or neck. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.

      Blood pressure: 128/84 mmHg
      Pulse: 82 bpm
      Respiration rate: 18 bpm
      Temperature: 37.9ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on air

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with prescription for amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Patients who have acute otitis media (AOM) and are immunocompromised or systemically unwell should be given an immediate prescription for antibiotics. However, for most patients with AOM, antibiotics are not necessary or can be delayed. An immediate antibiotic prescription should be offered to patients who are systemically unwell but do not require hospitalization, patients at high risk of complications due to underlying health conditions, and patients whose symptoms have persisted for four days or more without improvement. The recommended first choice antibiotic for AOM is amoxicillin.

      Further Reading:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

      Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.

      Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

      Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.

      The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old girl presents with her father. She is very active and enjoys...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with her father. She is very active and enjoys participating in various sports at a high level. Lately, she has been worried about experiencing pain in her right ankle. There is no history of injury, instability, or swelling. She is in good overall health. She can walk and run without discomfort, and the pain does not worsen after prolonged periods of rest. During the examination of her ankle, you observe tenderness and slight swelling around the lateral malleolus.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Osgood-Schlatter disease is commonly observed in active teenagers and is characterized by pain and tenderness in the tibial tuberosity. Rest is typically recommended as part of the treatment plan, and the diagnosis is made based on clinical evaluation.

      Chondromalacia patella is most prevalent in teenage girls and is often accompanied by knee pain while going up and downstairs. Discomfort tends to worsen after prolonged periods of sitting. Treatment options include pain relief medication and physiotherapy.

      Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is linked to excessive kneeling.

      Pseudogout is an inflammatory arthritis caused by the accumulation of pyrophosphate crystals. While the knees are frequently affected, it is unlikely to occur in this age group.

      Still’s disease accounts for approximately 10% of cases of juvenile chronic arthritis. It typically involves multiple systems in the body and is often characterized by fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a health condition during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a health condition during the 2nd trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn developed kernicterus and early closure of the ductus arteriosus.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The use of low-dose aspirin during pregnancy is considered safe and can be used to manage recurrent miscarriage, clotting disorders, and pre-eclampsia. On the other hand, high-dose aspirin carries several risks, especially if used in the third trimester. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus (a condition that affects the brain due to high levels of bilirubin). Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if high-dose aspirin is used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
      Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimester, ACE inhibitors can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
      Adverse effects: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity (damage to the ear) and deafness.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He has also vomited several times. He has recently been prescribed a course of amoxicillin for a presumed sinus infection by his primary care physician. You are unable to obtain a coherent medical history from him, but he has his regular medications with him, which include: ibuprofen, atorvastatin, and metformin. He has a friend with him who states he stopped taking his medications a few days ago. His vital signs are: temperature 38.9°C, heart rate 138, respiratory rate 23, blood pressure 173/96, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm is a rare condition that affects only 1-2% of patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is crucial to diagnose it promptly because it has a high mortality rate of approximately 10%. Thyroid storm is often triggered by a physiological stressor, such as stopping antithyroid therapy prematurely, recent surgery or radio-iodine treatment, infections (especially chest infections), trauma, diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar diabetic crisis, thyroid hormone overdose, pre-eclampsia. It typically occurs in patients with Graves’ disease or toxic multinodular goitre and presents with sudden and severe hyperthyroidism. Symptoms include high fever (over 41°C), dehydration, rapid heart rate (greater than 140 beats per minute) with or without irregular heart rhythms, low blood pressure, congestive heart failure, nausea, jaundice, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, confusion, agitation, delirium, psychosis, seizures, or coma.

      To diagnose thyroid storm, various blood tests should be conducted, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, blood glucose, coagulation screen, CRP, and thyroid profile (T4/T3 and TSH). A bone profile/calcium test should also be done as 10% of patients develop hypocalcemia. Blood cultures should be taken as well. Other important investigations include a urine dipstick/MC&S, chest X-ray, and ECG.

      The management of thyroid storm involves several steps. Intravenous fluids, such as 1-2 liters of 0.9% saline, should be administered. Airway support and management should be provided as necessary. A nasogastric tube should be inserted if the patient is vomiting. Urgent referral for inpatient management is essential. Paracetamol (1 g PO/IV) can be given to reduce fever. Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam (5-20 mg PO/IV), can be used for sedation. Steroids, like hydrocortisone (100 mg IV), may be necessary if there is co-existing adrenal suppression. Antibiotics should be prescribed if there is an intercurrent infection. Beta-blockers, such as propranolol (80 mg PO), can help control heart rate. High-dose carbimazole (45-60 mg/day) is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has a history of bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome 10 years ago. During the examination of her visual fields, a bitemporal hemianopia is discovered.

      What is the MOST LIKELY single biochemical finding in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated ACTH levels

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.

      The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.

      ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.

      The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 17 year old girl is admitted to the emergency department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old girl is admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt. The patient consumed a container of expired insecticide and reports feeling unwell shortly after ingestion, resulting in two episodes of vomiting. After consulting toxbase, it is determined that the product is an organophosphate.

      Which of the following is an established antidote for organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Atropine and pralidoxime are both considered antidotes for treating organophosphate poisoning. Organophosphates work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase at nerve synapses. In addition to providing supportive care and administering antidotes, it is important to decontaminate patients as part of their treatment plan for organophosphate poisoning.

      While both atropine and pralidoxime are recognized as antidotes, pralidoxime is not commonly used. Atropine works by competing with acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors. On the other hand, pralidoxime helps reactivate acetylcholinesterase-organophosphate complexes that have not lost an alkyl side chain, known as non-aged complexes. However, pralidoxime is not effective against organophosphates that have already formed or rapidly form aged acetylcholinesterase complexes. The evidence regarding the effectiveness of pralidoxime is conflicting.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 19 - A 14 year old patient is brought into the emergency department struggling to...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old patient is brought into the emergency department struggling to breathe. Upon initial assessment, you observe tracheal deviation to the right, absence of breath sounds in the left hemithorax, and hyper-resonant percussion in the left hemithorax.

      What is the most crucial immediate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocentesis

      Explanation:

      The key initial management for tension pneumothorax is needle thoracocentesis. This procedure is crucial as it rapidly decompresses the tension and allows for more definitive management to be implemented. It is important to note that according to ATLS guidelines, needle thoracocentesis should no longer be performed at the second intercostal space midclavicular line. Studies have shown that the fourth or fifth intercostal space midaxillary line is more successful in reaching the thoracic cavity in adult patients. Therefore, ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adult patients.

      Further Reading:

      A pneumothorax is an abnormal collection of air in the pleural cavity of the lung. It can be classified by cause as primary spontaneous, secondary spontaneous, or traumatic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs without any obvious cause in the absence of underlying lung disease, while secondary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients with significant underlying lung diseases. Traumatic pneumothorax is caused by trauma to the lung, often from blunt or penetrating chest wall injuries.

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where the collection of air in the pleural cavity expands and compresses normal lung tissue and mediastinal structures. It can be caused by any of the aforementioned types of pneumothorax. Immediate management of tension pneumothorax involves the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring a patent airway, controlling the C-spine, providing supplemental oxygen, establishing IV access for fluid resuscitation, and assessing and managing other injuries.

      Treatment of tension pneumothorax involves needle thoracocentesis as a temporary measure to provide immediate decompression, followed by tube thoracostomy as definitive management. Needle thoracocentesis involves inserting a 14g cannula into the pleural space, typically via the 4th or 5th intercostal space midaxillary line. If the patient is peri-arrest, immediate thoracostomy is advised.

      The pathophysiology of tension pneumothorax involves disruption to the visceral or parietal pleura, allowing air to flow into the pleural space. This can occur through an injury to the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura, or through an entry wound to the external chest wall in the case of a sucking pneumothorax. Injured tissue forms a one-way valve, allowing air to enter the pleural space with inhalation but prohibiting air outflow. This leads to a progressive increase in the volume of non-absorbable intrapleural air with each inspiration, causing pleural volume and pressure to rise within the affected hemithorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 20 - A 58 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing dizziness...

    Incorrect

    • A 58 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing dizziness and fainting. An ECG reveals bradycardia with a pulse rate of 44 bpm. His blood pressure is 90/60. The resident physician administers atropine. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication for giving atropine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Atropine is a medication that slows down the movement of the digestive system and is not recommended for use in individuals with intestinal blockage. It works by blocking the effects of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine, which is responsible for promoting gastrointestinal motility and the emptying of the stomach. Therefore, atropine should not be given to patients with gastrointestinal obstruction as it can further hinder the movement of the intestines.

      Further Reading:

      Types of Heart Block:

      1. Atrioventricular (AV) Blocks:
      – Disrupt electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles at the AV node.
      – Three degrees of AV block: first degree, second degree (type 1 and type 2), and third degree (complete) AV block.

      – First degree AV block: PR interval > 0.2 seconds.
      – Second degree AV block:
      – Type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs.
      – Type 2 (Mobitz II): PR interval is constant, but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
      – Third degree (complete) AV block: no association between the P waves and QRS complexes.

      Features of complete heart block: syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia (30-50 bpm), wide pulse pressure, JVP (jugular venous pressure) cannon waves in neck, variable intensity of S1.

      2. Bundle Branch Blocks:
      – Electrical conduction travels from the bundle of His to the left and right bundle branches.
      – Diagnosed when the duration of the QRS complex on the ECG exceeds 120 ms.

      – Right bundle branch block (RBBB).
      – Left bundle branch block (LBBB).
      – Left anterior fascicular block (LAFB).
      – Left posterior fascicular block (LPFB).
      – Bifascicular block.
      – Trifascicular block.

      ECG features of bundle branch blocks:
      – RBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, RSR’ pattern in V1-3 (M-shaped QRS complex), wide S wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6).
      – LBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, dominant S wave in V1, broad, notched (‘M’-shaped) R wave in V6, broad monophasic R wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6), absence of Q waves in lateral leads, prolonged R wave peak time > 60 ms in leads V5-6.

      WiLLiaM MaRROW is a useful mnemonic for remembering the morphology of the QRS in leads V1 and V6 for LBBB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old man has a history of a severe headache, high fever, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has a history of a severe headache, high fever, and worsening drowsiness. He recently had flu-like symptoms but his condition deteriorated this morning, prompting his partner to call the GP for a home visit. The man exhibits significant neck stiffness and sensitivity to light, and the GP observes the presence of a petechial rash on his arms and legs. The GP contacts you to arrange for the patient to be transferred to the Emergency Department and requests an ambulance.

      What is the MOST appropriate next step for the GP to take in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 1.2 g

      Explanation:

      This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In the prehospital setting, the most suitable medication and method of administration is intramuscular benzylpenicillin 1.2 g. This medication is commonly carried by most General Practitioners and is easier to administer than an intravenous drug in these circumstances.

      For close household contacts, prophylaxis can be provided in the form of oral rifampicin 600 mg twice daily for two days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
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  • Question 22 - A 2-year-old toddler comes in with a high-grade fever, excessive drooling, and inability...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler comes in with a high-grade fever, excessive drooling, and inability to speak. The child has evident stridor and a rapid heart rate. During the examination, there is tenderness in the front of the neck around the hyoid bone and swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
      What is the immediate urgent treatment needed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intubation

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.

      In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.

      The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.

      To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.

      When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
    Where...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old individual is brought to the emergency department by a companion who...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual is brought to the emergency department by a companion who discovered the patient in tears next to a bottle of tablets. The patient claims to have ingested about 40 aspirin tablets approximately 1 hour ago. A blood gas sample is collected for testing. Which of the following acid-base imbalances is linked to an overdose of aspirin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis followed by a metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning initially leads to respiratory alkalosis, followed by metabolic acidosis. Salicylates, like aspirin, stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla, causing hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. This is usually the first acid-base imbalance observed in salicylate poisoning. As aspirin is metabolized, it disrupts oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria, leading to an increase in lactate levels due to anaerobic metabolism. The accumulation of lactic acid and acidic metabolites then causes metabolic acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and a sense of panic and anxiety. He measured his blood pressure at home during one of these episodes and found it to be 190/110 mmHg. You measure it today and find it to be normal at 118/72 mmHg. He mentions that his brother has a similar condition, but he can't recall the name of it.

      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioimmunoassay for urinary/plasma metanephrines

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that originates from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. There are also less common tumors called extra-adrenal paragangliomas, which develop in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system. Both types of tumors secrete catecholamines, leading to symptoms and signs associated with hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

      The most common initial symptom is hypertension, which can be either sustained or paroxysmal. Other symptoms tend to be intermittent and can occur frequently or infrequently. As the disease progresses, these symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.

      In addition to hypertension, patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience the following clinical features: headache, profuse sweating, palpitations or rapid heartbeat, tremors, fever, nausea and vomiting, anxiety and panic attacks, a sense of impending doom, epigastric or flank pain, constipation, hypertensive retinopathy, postural hypotension due to volume contraction, cardiomyopathy, and café au lait spots.

      To confirm a suspected diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma, elevated levels of metanephrines (catecholamine metabolites) can be measured in the blood or urine. This can be done through methods such as a 24-hour urine collection for free catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrines, high-performance liquid chromatography for catecholamines in plasma and/or urine, or radioimmunoassay (RIA) for urinary/plasma metanephrines.

      Once the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is biochemically confirmed, imaging methods can be used to locate the tumor. The first imaging modality to be used is a CT scan, which has an overall sensitivity of 89%. An MRI scan is the most sensitive modality for identifying the tumor, especially in cases of extra-adrenal tumors or metastatic disease, with an overall sensitivity of 98%. In cases where CT or MRI does not show a tumor, a nuclear medicine scan such as MIBG scintigraphy can be useful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 28 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. The patient mentions that he has been experiencing a dry cough on and off for the past day or two. During the examination, the patient's temperature is measured at 38.4°C, blood pressure at 132/86 mmHg, and pulse rate at 90 bpm. Both tonsils appear inflamed with white/yellow exudate visible on their surface, and there is tenderness when palpating the enlarged anterior cervical lymph nodes.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe phenoxymethylpenicillin 500 mg four times daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for treating streptococcal sore throat, especially in patients with a CENTOR score of 3/4 and a FeverPAIN score of 4/5. In such cases, antibiotics are necessary to effectively treat the infection.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 27 - You receive a call from the paramedics notifying you that they are bringing...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the paramedics notifying you that they are bringing a 45-year-old male patient to the emergency department (ED) who experienced a cardiac arrest. What is the survival rate to hospital discharge for patients who suffer an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7-8%

      Explanation:

      The percentage of patients who survive to hospital discharge after experiencing an out of hospital cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
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  • Question 28 - You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a...

    Incorrect

    • You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that requires suturing.
      Which ONE statement concerning the utilization of 1% lidocaine, in this scenario, is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine works by blocking fast voltage-gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily utilized as a local anesthetic. It can also be employed in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias. The mechanism of action of lidocaine as a local anesthetic involves its diffusion in the form of an uncharged base through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane. It then reaches the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels, where it exerts its effect by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. This alteration in signal conduction prevents the depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron’s membrane, thereby inhibiting the transmission of pain signals.

      In a plain 1% lidocaine solution, each 1 ml contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg/kg, with a maximum limit of 500 mg. It is important to note that the combination of lidocaine and adrenaline should not be used in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose due to the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis.

      The half-life of lidocaine ranges from 1.5 to 2 hours. It exhibits a rapid onset of action within a few minutes and has a duration of action of 30 to 60 minutes when used alone. However, when co-administered with adrenaline, its duration of action is prolonged. It is worth mentioning that lidocaine tends to induce vasodilation, primarily attributed to the inhibition of action potentials in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves through the blocking of sodium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 29 - A student nurse on a clinical rotation in the Emergency Department experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A student nurse on a clinical rotation in the Emergency Department experiences a needlestick injury from a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis B.
      Which ONE statement about hepatitis B prophylaxis is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An accelerated regime is available for post-exposure prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B vaccination is included in the routine childhood immunisation schedule to provide long-term protection against hepatitis for children under 1 year of age. For these children, the vaccination consists of a primary course that includes the diphtheria with tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, poliomyelitis, and Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine. This primary course is given at 4 weekly intervals.

      The Hepatitis B vaccine is a conjugate vaccine that contains a surface antigen of the hepatitis virus (HBsAg) and is combined with an aluminium adjuvant to enhance its effectiveness. It is produced using a recombinant DNA technique.

      When administering the vaccine to adults and older children, the preferred injection site is the deltoid muscle. However, in younger children, the anterolateral thigh is the preferred site. It is not recommended to inject the vaccine in the gluteal area as it has been found to have reduced efficacy.

      The standard vaccination regime for Hepatitis B consists of three primary doses. The initial dose is followed by further doses at one and six months later. A booster dose is recommended at five years if the individual is still at risk.

      In cases of post-exposure prophylaxis, an accelerated vaccination regime is used. This involves administering a vaccination at the time of exposure, followed by repeat doses at one and two months later.

      In high-risk situations, Hepatitis B immunoglobulin can be given up to 7 days after exposure. Ideally, it should be administered within 12 hours, but according to the BNF, it can still be effective if given within 7 days after exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar. She has been hit multiple times in the face and has a noticeable swelling on her right cheek. Her facial X-ray shows a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture but no other injuries.
      Which of the following will NOT be visible on her X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fracture of the superior orbital rim

      Explanation:

      Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures, also known as quadramalar or tripod fractures, make up around 40% of all midface fractures and are the second most common facial bone fractures after nasal bone fractures.

      These injuries typically occur when a direct blow is delivered to the malar eminence of the cheek. They consist of four components:

      1. Widening of the zygomaticofrontal suture
      2. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
      3. Fracture of the inferior orbital rim and the walls of the anterior and posterior maxillary sinuses
      4. Fracture of the lateral orbital rim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed