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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a hillside overnight. The rescue team informs you that according to the Swiss Staging system, he is at stage II.
What is the most accurate description of his current medical condition?Your Answer: Clearly conscious and shivering
Correct Answer: Impaired consciousness without shivering
Explanation:Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature drops below 35°C. It is categorized as mild (32-35°C), moderate (28-32°C), or severe (<28°C). Rescuers at the scene can use the Swiss staging system to describe the condition of victims. The stages range from clearly conscious and shivering to unconscious and not breathing, with death due to irreversible hypothermia being the most severe stage. There are several risk factors for hypothermia, including environmental exposure, unsatisfactory housing, poverty, lack of cold awareness, drugs, alcohol, acute confusion, hypothyroidism, and sepsis. The clinical features of hypothermia vary depending on the severity. At 32-35°C, symptoms may include apathy, amnesia, ataxia, and dysarthria. At 30-32°C, there may be a decreased level of consciousness, hypotension, arrhythmias, respiratory depression, and muscular rigidity. Below 30°C, ventricular fibrillation may occur, especially with excessive movement or invasive procedures. Diagnosing hypothermia involves checking the core temperature using an oesophageal, rectal, or tympanic probe with a low reading thermometer. Rectal and tympanic temperatures may lag behind core temperature and are unreliable in hypothermia. Various investigations should be carried out, including blood tests, blood glucose, amylase, blood cultures, arterial blood gas, ECG, chest X-ray, and CT head if there is suspicion of head injury or CVA. The management of hypothermia involves supporting the ABCs, treating the patient in a warm room, removing wet clothes and drying the skin, monitoring the ECG, providing warmed, humidified oxygen, correcting hypoglycemia with IV glucose, and handling the patient gently to avoid VF arrest. Re-warming methods include passive re-warming with warm blankets or Bair hugger/polythene sheets, surface re-warming with a water bath, core re-warming with heated, humidified oxygen or peritoneal lavage, and extracorporeal re-warming via cardiopulmonary bypass for severe hypothermia/cardiac arrest. In the case of hypothermic cardiac arrest, CPR should be performed with chest compressions and ventilations at standard rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, headache, and muscle spasms. Upon examination, the patient is found to have hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 198/96 mmHg. In order to screen for secondary causes of hypertension, which of the following tests would be the most suitable for detecting Conn's syndrome?
Your Answer: Plasma metanephrines
Correct Answer: Aldosterone and renin levels
Explanation:The preferred diagnostic test for hyperaldosteronism is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR). Hyperaldosteronism is also known as Conn’s syndrome and can be diagnosed by measuring aldosterone and renin levels. By calculating the aldosterone-to-renin ratio, an abnormal increase (>30 ng/dL per ng/mL/h) can indicate primary hyperaldosteronism. Adrenal insufficiency can be detected using the Synacthen test. To detect phaeochromocytoma, tests such as plasma metanephrines and urine vanillylmandelic acid are used. The dexamethasone suppression test is employed for diagnosing Cushing syndrome.
Further Reading:
Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.
The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.
Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.
Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.
Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35 year old homeless patient presents with blistered and discolored feet after spending multiple days on the streets during freezing temperatures. Frostbite is diagnosed, and the plan is to initiate Rewarming of the affected area. Which of the following statements about frostbite is accurate?
Your Answer: Reperfusion is usually very painful
Explanation:Reperfusion after a frostbite injury can be extremely painful, so it is important to provide strong pain relief. If there are clear blisters, they should be opened and aloe vera should be applied every 6 hours. However, if there are blisters with blood, they should not be opened, but aloe vera can still be used topically. Taking 400 mg of ibuprofen orally, if there are no contraindications, can help reduce inflammation and improve the outcome of frostbite. Technetium-99m pertechnetate scintigraphy is the preferred method for assessing blood flow in the affected area. To treat frostbite, it is recommended to re-warm the affected areas by immersing them in warm water.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A child with a known severe peanut allergy is brought into the emergency room after experiencing lip swelling and difficulty breathing following a suspected exposure. Which medication is the most suitable to administer to patients with anaphylaxis after initial resuscitation?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Cetirizine
Explanation:In cases of anaphylaxis, it is important to administer non-sedating antihistamines after adrenaline administration and initial resuscitation. Previous guidelines recommended the use of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone as third line treatments, but the 2021 guidelines have removed this recommendation. Corticosteroids are no longer advised. Instead, it is now recommended to use non-sedating antihistamines such as cetirizine, loratadine, and fexofenadine, as alternatives to the sedating antihistamine chlorpheniramine. The top priority treatments for anaphylaxis are adrenaline, oxygen, and fluids. The Resuscitation Council advises that administration of non-sedating antihistamines should occur after the initial resuscitation.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while riding her bike. The patient was not wearing a helmet and suffered a head injury from hitting the pavement. She has a significant scalp contusion and appears drowsy. There is a suspicion of increased intracranial pressure. How does intracranial pressure affect cerebral perfusion pressure?
Your Answer: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) = mean arterial pressure (MAP) - intracranial pressure (ICP)
Explanation:Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by adding the intracranial pressure (ICP) to the diastolic blood pressure (DBP).
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents with cold-like symptoms that have been present for over two weeks. She is originally from South America. Her mother reports that she has been extremely tired and has been complaining of various aches and pains. During the examination, enlarged lymph nodes are found in her neck, and splenomegaly is detected. She has multiple petechiae on her legs and arms. Her blood test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 7.4 g/dl (11.5-15.5 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (75-87 fl)
Platelets: 34 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
White Cell Count (WCC): 34.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common type of leukaemia that occurs in childhood, typically affecting children between the ages of 2 and 5 years. The symptoms of ALL can vary, but many children initially experience an acute illness that may resemble a common cold or viral infection. Other signs of ALL include general weakness and fatigue, as well as muscle, joint, and bone pain. Additionally, children with ALL may have anaemia, unexplained bruising and petechiae, swelling (oedema), enlarged lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy), and an enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly).
In patients with ALL, a complete blood count typically reveals certain characteristics. These include anaemia, which can be either normocytic or macrocytic. Approximately 50% of patients with ALL have a low white blood cell count (leukopaenia), with a white cell count below 4 x 109/l. On the other hand, around 60% of patients have a high white blood cell count (leukocytosis), with a white cell count exceeding 10 x 109/l. In about 25% of cases, there is an extreme elevation in white blood cell count (hyperleukocytosis), with a count surpassing 50 x 109/l. Additionally, patients with ALL often have a low platelet count (thrombocytopaenia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she discovered in her father's bag.
Which of the following symptoms of ibuprofen overdose is more frequently observed in children compared to adults?Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Hyperpyrexia and hypoglycemia are more frequently observed in children than in adults due to salicylate poisoning. Both adults and children may experience common clinical manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, deafness, sweating, dehydration, hyperventilation, and cutaneous flushing. However, it is important to note that xanthopsia is associated with digoxin toxicity, not salicylate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are conducting a research project and audit based on patients who presented to the emergency department with back pain and were subsequently diagnosed with a ruptured aortic aneurysm. As part of the audit, you need to collect the ages of all patients in the study. What steps would you take before starting the research to ensure the appropriate use and protection of patient data throughout the course of the project?
Your Answer: Register with the information commissioner's office (ICO) and submit a data storage & processing plan
Correct Answer: Submit a Caldicott request
Explanation:If you are conducting research or an audit that involves using patient identifiable information, you must submit a Caldicott request to the designated Caldicott guardian for the trust.
Further Reading:
Principles of Medical Ethics:
1. Autonomy: Competent adults have the right to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
2. Beneficence: Healthcare professionals should take actions that serve the best interests of patients.
3. Non-maleficence: Healthcare professionals should not take actions that may injure or harm patients.
4. Justice: Healthcare professionals should take actions that are fair and equitable to both the individual and society as a whole.Confidentiality:
1. Use minimum necessary personal information and consider anonymizing information if possible.
2. Manage and protect personal information to prevent improper access, disclosure, or loss.
3. Understand and adhere to information governance appropriate to your role.
4. Comply with the law when handling personal information.
5. Share relevant information for direct care unless the patient objects.
6. Obtain explicit consent to disclose identifiable information for purposes other than care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or justified in the public interest.
7. Inform patients about disclosures of personal information they would not reasonably expect, unless not practicable or undermines the purpose of the disclosure.
8. Support patients in accessing their information and respecting their legal rights.Obtaining Patient’s Consent for Disclosure:
– Consent should be obtained for disclosing personal information for purposes other than direct care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or not appropriate or practicable.
Situations Where Patient Consent is Not Required for Disclosure:
– Adults at risk of or suffering abuse or neglect, as required by law.
– Adults lacking capacity, if neglect or harm is suspected, unless not overall beneficial to the patient.
– When required by law or approved through a statutory process.
– When justified in the public interest, such as for the prevention, detection, or prosecution of serious crime, patient’s fitness to drive, serious communicable disease, or posing a serious risk to others through being unfit for work.Confidentiality Following a Patient’s Death:
– Respect the patient’s confidentiality even after their death.
– If the patient previously requested not to share personal information with those close to them, abide by their wishes.
– Be considerate, sensitive, and responsive to those close to the patient, providing as much information as possible.The Law & Caldicott Guardians:
Data Protection Act:
– Sets rules and standards for the use and handling of personal data by organizations.
– Personal data must be used fairly, lawfully, transparently, and for specified purposes.
– Individuals have rights -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 9
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 18 kg.
What is this child's daily maintenance fluid requirements when in good health?Your Answer: 1540 ml/day
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg. In older children, the intravascular volume is around 70 ml/kg.
Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can. Shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space, while clinical dehydration is only noticeable after total losses of more than 25 ml/kg.
The maintenance fluid requirements for healthy, typical children are summarized in the table below:
Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kgTherefore, this child’s daily maintenance fluid requirement can be calculated as follows:
– First 10 kg: 100 ml/kg = 1000 ml
– Second 10 kg: 50 ml/kg = 500 ml
– Subsequent kg: 20 ml/kg = 40 mlTotal daily maintenance fluid requirement: 1540 ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a ‘lump’ in her right breast. She is very worried that she may have breast cancer. On examination, she has a painless, well-defined mass that can be felt separate from the breast tissue. The mass is transilluminating.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocoele
Correct Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Epididymal cysts are commonly observed in men who are over the age of 40. They often appear in multiple numbers and can be found on both sides. These cysts are typically well-defined, soft to the touch, and can be illuminated when light is passed through them. Since they develop in the epididymis, they can be felt as separate from the testis, which helps to differentiate them from hydroceles. In most cases, these cysts cause no significant issues and do not require any treatment. However, larger cysts can become bothersome and may need to be drained or surgically removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old individual experiences a stroke. The primary symptoms include weakness in the limbs on the right side, particularly affecting the right leg and right shoulder, as well as dysarthria.
Which blood vessel is most likely to be impacted in this case?Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to assess for the presence of a haemoperitoneum.
Where is free fluid most likely to be observed if a haemoperitoneum is present?Your Answer: Liver
Explanation:A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information is crucial for making decisions regarding further management of the patient.
The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.
During a standard FAST scan, four regions are examined. The subxiphoid transverse view is used to assess for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injury, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are used to examine the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.
In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may be performed to assess the left and right thoracic regions. This helps determine the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.
The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when the patient is lying flat. Consequently, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female presents at the emergency department with a circular saw laceration. You opt to examine the wound using local anesthesia. What is the maximum dosage of Prilocaine that can be administered?
Your Answer: 3 mg/Kg
Correct Answer: 6 mg/Kg
Explanation:The highest amount of Prilocaine that can be administered without adrenaline is 6 mg per kilogram of body weight. However, if Prilocaine is used in combination with adrenaline, the maximum dose increases to 8mg per kilogram.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by two members of the public after collapsing in a nearby park. The patient appears confused, looking around the room but not responding to questions or commands. Verbal output is limited to grunting and coughing. Observations are taken and are shown below:
Blood pressure 148/76 mmHg
Pulse 90 bpm
Respirations 18 bpm
Temperature 36.8ºC
Oxygen Saturations 98% on air
Capillary glucose 1.2 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Give glucagon 1 mg via intramuscular injection
Explanation:The use of glucose infusion is not recommended due to its hypertonic nature, which can potentially increase the risk of extravasation injury.
Further Reading:
Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She complains of nausea, extreme fatigue, and overall feeling unwell.
What is the indication for using DigiFab in this patient?Your Answer: Potassium level of 2.6 mmol/l
Correct Answer: Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).
DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.
The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:
Acute digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Potassium level >5 mmol/l
– Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
– Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
– Digoxin level >12 ng/mlChronic digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
– Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 16
Correct
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You are caring for a pediatric patient in the resuscitation bay. Your attending physician notices you selecting an oropharyngeal airway adjunct (OPA) and recommends using a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) instead. Which of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of using a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is correct?
Your Answer: Greater risk of inducing laryngospasm using LMA compared to endotracheal intubation
Explanation:The use of a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) carries a higher risk of inducing laryngospasm compared to endotracheal intubation. However, LMAs are still considered excellent alternatives to bag masks as they reduce the risk of gastric inflation and aspiration. While they do decrease the risk of aspiration, they are not as protective as endotracheal tubes. Complications associated with LMA use include laryngospasm, nausea and vomiting, and a low risk of aspiration. LMAs have advantages over bag-mask ventilation, such as more effective ventilation, less gastric inflation, and a lower risk of aspiration. However, they also have disadvantages, including the risk of hypoventilation due to air leak around the cuff, greater gastric inflation compared to endotracheal intubation, and a very low risk of aspiration.
Further Reading:
Techniques to keep the airway open:
1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.
2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.
3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.
Airway adjuncts:
1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.
2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.
Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):
– Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
– Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
– Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
– Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of medication. He experiences nausea, perspiration, and ringing in the ears. His arterial blood gas reveals a respiratory alkalosis, and his ECG displays an elongation of the QRS complex.
Which drug is he most likely to have overdosed on?Your Answer: Cocaine
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. Some common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, and dehydration. Additionally, individuals may experience rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever, particularly in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid accumulation in the lungs unrelated to heart problems, and unstable cardiovascular function may occur.
Early on in the overdose, arterial blood gas analysis typically reveals a respiratory alkalosis due to overstimulation of the respiratory center. As the overdose progresses, especially in moderate to severe cases, a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap may develop as a result of elevated levels of protons in the blood.
Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities that may be observed include widening of the QRS complex, atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 18
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with fevers and severe pain in the left hypochondrium that radiates to her back. The pain has been present for 24 hours. On examination, she is tender in the left upper quadrant, and Murphy’s sign is positive. Her temperature is 38°C.
Her blood results are as follows:
CRP: 94 mg/l (< 5 mg/l)
Hb: 12.4 g/dl (11.5-16 g/dl)
WCC: 14.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
Neut: 11.6 x 109/l (2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
Bilirubin 18 mmol (3-20)
ALT 34 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms strongly suggest a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. This condition occurs when a gallstone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation and inflammation of the gallbladder wall. As a result, the gallbladder fills with pus, which is initially sterile but can become infected with bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.
The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the upper right quadrant or epigastric, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are also commonly present, along with nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign, a physical examination finding, is highly sensitive and has a high positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.
In acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. Liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, and ALP, may also be elevated but can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant elevation in AST, ALT, ALP, or bilirubin, it may indicate other biliary tract conditions, such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.
It is important to differentiate acute cholecystitis from other conditions with similar presentations. Renal colic, for example, presents with pain in the loin area and tenderness in the renal angle, which is different from the symptoms seen in acute cholecystitis. Cholangiocarcinoma, a rare type of cancer originating from the biliary epithelium, typically presents with painless jaundice and itching.
To help distinguish between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following summarizes their key differences:
Biliary colic:
– Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
– Fever: Absent
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Normal
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
– Bilirubin: NormalAcute cholecystitis:
– Pain duration: More than 12 hours
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Positive
– WCC & -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A child presents to the Pediatric Emergency Department with stridor, a hoarse voice, and difficulty breathing. After a comprehensive history and examination, acute epiglottitis is suspected as the diagnosis.
What is the preferred and most accurate investigation to confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer: Soft tissue lateral X-ray of neck
Correct Answer: Fibre-optic laryngoscopy
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the epiglottis. It can be life-threatening as it can completely block the airway, especially if not diagnosed promptly. In the past, the most common cause was Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), but with the widespread use of the Hib vaccine, it has become rare in children and is now more commonly seen in adults caused by Streptococcus spp like Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus pneumonia. Other bacterial causes include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat (initially resembling a viral sore throat), painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (seen as drooling in children), muffled voice (referred to as ‘hot potato’ voice), rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, cervical lymph node enlargement, and rapid deterioration in children.
To diagnose acute epiglottitis, the gold standard investigation is fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which allows direct visualization of the epiglottis. However, laryngoscopy should only be performed in settings prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case upper airway obstruction occurs. If laryngoscopy is not possible, a lateral neck X-ray may be helpful, as it can show the characteristic ‘thumbprint sign’.
Management of acute epiglottitis usually involves conservative measures such as intravenous or oral antibiotics. However, in some cases, intubation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 20
Correct
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A 62 year old man is brought into the emergency department by his daughter. The patient had been dozing on the beach chair for a few hours during the scorching weather but then became increasingly disoriented and started vomiting. The patient takes furosemide for swollen ankles. The patients observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 118/68 mmHg
Pulse 108 bpm
Respiratory rate 24 bpm
Temperature 41.4ºC
Oxygen sats 96% on air
The patient's skin is hot and dry to the touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Heat stroke
Explanation:Anhydrosis, or the inability to sweat, is frequently observed in individuals who experience heat stroke. This patient exhibits the main characteristics of heat stroke, including a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and encephalopathy, which is evident through significant confusion. Additionally, the patient’s use of diuretics and advanced age are risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing severe heat-related illness. It is important to note that in the UK, most fatalities resulting from heat stroke occur in individuals aged 70 or older, typically within the initial days of a heat wave.
Further Reading:
Heat Stroke:
– Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
– Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
– Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
– Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
– Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
– Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
– Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
– Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°CHeat Exhaustion:
– Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
– Core temperature elevated but <40°C
– Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
– Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
– Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and restOther Heat-Related Illnesses:
– Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
– Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
– Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydrationRisk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
– Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factorsManagement:
– Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
– Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
– Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
– Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
– Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
– Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 days ago. On direct questioning it was approximately 80 hours ago. She is hesitant to have a coil inserted due to a negative past experience and is curious about alternative options that may be available to her.
What is the MOST appropriate choice for her?Your Answer: Copper IUD
Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Explanation:Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.
The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.
The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?
Your Answer: Wheeze
Correct Answer: Rash
Explanation:Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.
Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.
During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.
Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.
Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.
Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee.
What dosage of IV hydrocortisone should be administered in this situation?Your Answer: 100 mg
Correct Answer: 50 mg
Explanation:Corticosteroids can be beneficial in preventing or reducing prolonged reactions. According to the current APLS guidelines, the recommended doses of hydrocortisone for different age groups are as follows:
– Children under 6 months: 25 mg administered slowly via intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) route.
– Children aged 6 months to 6 years: 50 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Children aged 6 to 12 years: 100 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Children over 12 years: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Adults: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.It is important to note that the most recent ALS guidelines do not recommend the routine use of corticosteroids for treating anaphylaxis in adults. However, the current APLS guidelines still advocate for the use of corticosteroids in children to manage anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.
Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then treating it with a zinc chloride solution to increase its concentration. This process creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This allows it to effectively inhibit the absorption of toxins by up to 50%.
The usual dose of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.
However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. These include cases where the patient is unconscious or in a coma, as there is a risk of aspiration. It should also be avoided if seizures are imminent, as there is a risk of aspiration. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, activated charcoal should not be used to prevent the risk of obstruction.
Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with certain drugs and toxins, such as aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in cases of overdose with iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.
There are potential adverse effects associated with the use of activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhalation of charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A young colleague has encountered a 28-year-old mountaineer who has developed frostbite to the toes of the left foot after being stranded on a snowy peak for several hours. Your colleague wants to start Rewarming the affected area by immersing it in water and seeks your guidance. What temperature should the water be maintained at for the Rewarming process?
Your Answer: 30-32ºC
Correct Answer: 40-42ºC
Explanation:To treat frostbite, it is important to quickly warm the affected area by immersing it in water that is consistently kept at a temperature of 40-42ºC. The Rewarming process should be continued until the affected area feels flexible and shows signs of redness, which typically takes around 15 to 30 minutes. It is recommended to provide strong pain relief medication during this process, as reperfusion can be extremely painful.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. Facial X-rays and CT scans show the presence of a Le Fort I fracture.
What is the most probable cause of this injury?Your Answer: A force through the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla
Correct Answer: A force directed in a downward direction against the upper teeth
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are intricate fractures of the midface, which involve the maxillary bone and the surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the separation of the pterygomaxillary due to trauma. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening situations and disfigurement.
The causes of Le Fort fractures vary depending on the type of fracture. Common mechanisms include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, assaults, and falls from significant heights. Patients with Le Fort fractures often have concurrent head and cervical spine injuries. Additionally, they frequently experience other facial fractures, as well as neuromuscular injuries and dental avulsions.
The specific type of fracture sustained is determined by the direction of the force applied to the face. Le Fort type I fractures typically occur when a force is directed downward against the upper teeth. Le Fort type II fractures are usually the result of a force applied to the lower or mid maxilla. Lastly, Le Fort type III fractures are typically caused by a force applied to the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 27
Correct
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You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents with a high fever, and you have concerns about the potential occurrence of neutropenic sepsis.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding neutropenic sepsis?Your Answer: Specialist management in an acute hospital setting involves implementing the standard UK Sepsis Trust 'Sepsis Six' bundle
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious complication that can occur in individuals with low neutrophil counts, known as neutropenia. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including certain medications like chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies. In adults, mortality rates as high as 20% have been reported.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have either a temperature higher than 38°C or other signs and symptoms consistent with significant sepsis. Cancer treatments can suppress the bone marrow ability to respond to infections, making neutropenic sepsis more likely. This is most commonly seen with systemic chemotherapy but can also occur after radiotherapy.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), adult patients with acute leukemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumors who are expected to experience significant neutropenia due to chemotherapy should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, such as ciprofloxacin. This should be taken during the expected period of neutropenia.
When managing neutropenic sepsis, it is important to promptly implement the UK Sepsis Trust Sepsis Six bundle within the first hour of recognizing sepsis. This involves specialist assessment and management in an acute hospital setting.
The NICE guidelines recommend using piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) as the initial empiric antibiotic therapy for patients suspected of having neutropenic sepsis. It is advised not to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological indications.
Reference:
NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.
Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.
If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the mode of action of VX gas in a suspected CBRN incident with a high number of casualties?
Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are referred to as the G agents (with G representing German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (with V standing for venomous) were synthesized, and they are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.
The nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are part of the team managing a conscious patient in the emergency room. You decide to insert a nasopharyngeal airway adjunct. How should you determine the appropriate size of the nasopharyngeal airway?
Your Answer: Sized according to the distance between the nostril and the angle of the mandible
Correct Answer: Sized according to the distance between the nostril and the tragus of the ear
Explanation:Nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts (NPAs) are selected based on their length, which should match the distance between the nostril and the tragus of the ear.
Further Reading:
Techniques to keep the airway open:
1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.
2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.
3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.
Airway adjuncts:
1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.
2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.
Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):
– Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
– Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
– Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
– Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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