00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A father thinks his 4-year-old daughter may have a peanut allergy. Twice, recently,...

    Correct

    • A father thinks his 4-year-old daughter may have a peanut allergy. Twice, recently, she has complained of an itchy mouth after eating a peanut butter sandwich. On the second occasion, her mouth became swollen and her father stopped her eating the sandwich and the symptoms gradually resolved. He wonders what he should do and has come to ask your advice.

      What is the most appropriate advice you can give him regarding peanut allergy?

      Your Answer: The only treatment is to avoid peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peanut Allergy: Myths and Facts

      Peanut allergy is a serious condition that affects a significant number of people, especially children. However, there are many misconceptions about this allergy that can lead to dangerous situations. Here are some myths and facts about peanut allergy:

      Myth: Most children with peanut allergy will outgrow the condition by school age.
      Fact: While some children may outgrow their peanut allergy, only about 20% do so by the time they reach school age. Even if they seem to have outgrown it, the allergy may still recur.

      Myth: Only peanuts should be implicated.
      Fact: About half of patients with peanut allergy are also allergic to other nuts, with almond being the most frequently cross-reacting nut.

      Myth: Skin-prick tests will confirm the diagnosis.
      Fact: While skin-prick testing can be done, it is positive in only 50-70% of those with confirmed nut allergy. It is useful in excluding allergy but less so in confirming it. The RAST test is less sensitive and may not confirm clinical allergy. Oral food challenge is potentially risky.

      Myth: They need only be concerned about visible pieces of nut.
      Fact: For some people with peanut allergy, even small amounts of peanuts can cause a serious reaction. Food that is exposed to peanuts during processing or handling can also be problematic. Aerosols or dust containing peanuts may give symptoms, as can direct skin contact.

      The only treatment for peanut allergy is to avoid peanuts. It is important to take this allergy seriously and to educate oneself and others about the risks and precautions necessary to prevent a potentially life-threatening reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Jacob is a 27-year-old man with asthma, eczema, hayfever, type 1 diabetes and...

    Incorrect

    • Jacob is a 27-year-old man with asthma, eczema, hayfever, type 1 diabetes and coeliac disease. He also suffers from oral allergy syndrome and reacts to banana, carrots and kiwifruit.

      Among Jacob's health conditions, which one is most closely linked to oral allergy syndrome?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Hayfever

      Explanation:

      Seasonal variation is a common feature of oral allergy syndrome, which is closely associated with pollen allergies such as hayfever.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with complaints of nasal congestion, itchy eyes and throat irritation that usually occur during the spring months. What is the best guidance to offer this mother regarding the management of her son's symptoms?

      Your Answer: It cannot be a pollen allergy if the symptoms start at the beginning of spring

      Correct Answer: Avoid drying washing outdoors when pollen count is high

      Explanation:

      Managing Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: Tips for Reducing Pollen Exposure

      Seasonal allergic rhinitis is a condition where the nasal mucosa becomes sensitized to allergens, such as pollen, causing inflammation and symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes. To reduce pollen exposure, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends avoiding drying laundry outdoors when pollen counts are high. Showering and washing hair after potential exposure can also help alleviate symptoms. While the tree pollen season can start as early as March, there is no need to eat locally produced honey or resort to ineffective nasal irrigation with saline. By following these simple tips, individuals with seasonal allergic rhinitis can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally thought to be asthmatic, but his response to treatment has been poor. He does respond to antibiotics, but the courses he has had in the previous 12 months have totalled 2 months. Primary immunodeficiency is suspected.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate test?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin assay

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Variable Immunodeficiency: Prevalence, Diagnosis, and Delayed Treatment

      Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is the most prevalent primary antibody deficiency, affecting approximately 1 in 25,000 individuals. However, due to its rarity, only a small fraction of healthcare professionals will encounter a patient with CVID during their career. This, coupled with a delay in diagnosis, increases the risk of irreversible lung damage and bronchiectasis.

      Defects in humoral immunity account for 50% of primary immunodeficiencies, with combined humoral and cellular deficiencies making up 20-30% of cases. Inherited single-gene disorders are the most common cause of primary immune deficiencies. While many of these defects present in infancy and childhood, CVID typically presents after the age of five, with a peak in the second or third decade of life.

      A diagnosis of CVID is based on defective functional antibody formation, accompanied by decreased serum immunoglobulin levels (IgG and IgA), generally decreased serum IgM, and exclusion of other known causes of antibody deficiency. Identifying defective functional antibody formation may involve measuring the response to a vaccine such as the pneumococcal vaccine.

      Overall, understanding the prevalence, diagnosis, and delayed treatment of CVID is crucial in providing appropriate care for individuals with this rare but potentially debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he has had for 2 hours. He started taking a new medication yesterday. During the examination, his lips are found to be swollen. His blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg and his pulse is 70 beats per minute. He reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.

      What medication could be responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      Angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling under the skin, can be caused by various allergens as well as certain medications such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. antihistamines are a common treatment option depending on the underlying cause. However, the medications listed other than ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs are not known to cause angioedema.

      Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment

      Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
      Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?

      Your Answer: Contact allergic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings

      Explanation:

      Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies

      Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
      Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.

      Peanut Allergy:
      Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.

      Allergic Rhinitis:
      Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.

      Chronic Urticaria:
      Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.

      Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
      This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity

      Explanation:

      postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery

      Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:

      1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.

      2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.

      3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.

      4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.

      5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.

      6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
      On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough

      A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.

      While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.

      In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which he has experienced over the last six months. He obtains relief by taking antihistamine tablets. He takes no other medications and has restricted his diet to fresh food in an attempt to reduce the histamine exposure in his diet. He has not been in contact with any new chemicals or materials.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An autoimmune response

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Causes of Urticaria

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, can be caused by a variety of factors. It can be idiopathic, immunological, or non-immunological. Chronic urticaria is diagnosed when a patient experiences daily or episodic wheals for at least six weeks. Histamine-releasing autoantibodies are present in at least 30% of patients with chronic urticaria. Contact urticaria is a rapid, localised reaction to certain triggering substances. Pseudoallergens, such as certain drugs or food additives, can aggravate wheals in any form of urticaria. Type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are immunoglobulin E mediated, can cause acute urticaria. Type IV hypersensitivity and contact irritant effects are seen in contact allergic dermatitis and contact irritant dermatitis. Understanding the different causes of urticaria can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect...

    Incorrect

    • What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect their unborn infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Vaccine Information

      Most combined vaccine formulations for pertussis contain neomycin. However, the only reason an individual cannot receive the vaccine is if they have an anaphylactic reaction. Boostrix-IPV is an inactivated vaccine that will not be affected by anti-D treatment. Even if a pregnant woman has a feverish illness or suspected whooping cough, the pertussis vaccine should still be offered to provide optimal antibody levels for the baby. Evidence shows that immunization during pregnancy can increase pertussis antibodies in breast milk, potentially protecting the baby from the illness. However, this doesn’t replace the need for the infant to complete the recommended primary immunization schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old healthcare worker presents to her General Practitioner with an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old healthcare worker presents to her General Practitioner with an itchy rash on her hands. She reports that the rash develops quickly while she is wearing gloves at work and is diagnosed with a latex allergy. She also mentions experiencing similar symptoms related to food. Which of the following foods is she most likely allergic to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Banana

      Explanation:

      Latex-Fruit Syndrome: Allergies to Certain Fruits and Vegetables

      Latex allergies are immediate hypersensitivity reactions that can cause itching, urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis, and other symptoms. Latex-fruit syndrome occurs when there is a co-existing allergy to latex and certain fruits or vegetables due to cross-reactivity. The most common fruits associated with this syndrome are bananas, chestnuts, kiwi fruit, avocado, and tomato. Melon, apple, papaya, and potato are less commonly associated with this syndrome. It is believed that the resemblance of these fruits and vegetables to a latex protein component is responsible for the cross-reactivity. If you have a latex allergy, it is important to be aware of the potential for cross-reactivity with certain fruits and vegetables.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of a persistent dry cough, gradually worsening breathlessness on exertion and fevers. He usually easily walks for fifteen minutes to the park, but is now unable to walk there as he gets too breathless.
      On examination, he has difficulty taking a full breath due to painful inspiration, and has fine bilateral crackles on auscultation. Oxygen saturations drop from 96% to 90% on walking around the consulting room. He is a non-smoker with no significant past medical history but has had multiple prescriptions for bacterial skin infections and athlete's foot over the years with increasing frequency more recently.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Respiratory Presentation: A Case Study

      Possible diagnoses for a respiratory presentation can be numerous and varied. In this case study, the patient presents with a persistent dry cough, fever, increasing exertional dyspnoea, decreasing exercise tolerance, chest discomfort, and difficulty in taking a deep breath. The following are the possible diagnoses and their respective likelihoods:

      Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP): This is the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s symptoms and history of recurrent fungal infections. PCP is an opportunistic respiratory infection associated with HIV infection and can be fatal if diagnosed late.

      Pulmonary embolism (PE): Although this is a potentially fatal medical emergency, it is unlikely in this case as the patient has no suspicion of DVT, tachycardia, recent immobilisation, past history of DVT/PE, haemoptysis, or history of malignancy.

      Bronchiectasis: This is less likely as the patient’s persistent dry cough is not typical of bronchiectasis.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): This is also less likely as the patient is a non-smoker and has a shorter history of respiratory symptoms.

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF): This is a possibility, but the onset would generally be over a longer time course, and pleuritic chest pain is not a typical feature.

      In conclusion, PCP is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and the patient needs acute medical assessment and treatment. Other possible diagnoses should also be considered and ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
      What is the most appropriate advice to give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth

      Explanation:

      Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
      – Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
      – Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
      – The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
      – The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
      – The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.

      In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of bilateral erythematous palms....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of bilateral erythematous palms. She reports itching and the presence of some vesicles. She has observed this developing quickly at work, where she has just begun a new job as a hairdresser.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Allergic Contact Dermatitis, Atopic Eczema, Scabies, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, and Ringworm

      Skin conditions can vary in their causes and symptoms. Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs upon contact with an allergen, such as nickel, hair dyes, bleaches, perfumes, fragrances, and rubber antioxidants in gloves. Atopic eczema is a chronic skin condition that presents with red, itchy skin localized to the flexor surfaces and doesn’t normally develop vesicles. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by exposure to mites, which is very itchy and often starts between the fingers, but it would not normally flare up while at work. Hand, foot and mouth disease is a common childhood condition caused by the Coxsackievirus, characterized by a vesicular rash on the hands, feet, and mouth. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection that is usually circular with a silver scale and can be itchy, but it would be unlikely to cause bilateral hand symptoms and doesn’t cause the vesicular rash described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels of iron in his blood. You suspect coeliac disease and want to investigate further.
      Choose from the options below the immunoglobulin that may be deficient in individuals with coeliac disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Selective IgA Deficiency

      Coeliac disease is more common in individuals with selective IgA deficiency, which affects 0.4% of the general population and 2.6% of coeliac disease patients. Diagnosis of coeliac disease relies on detecting IgA antibodies to transglutaminase or anti-endomysial antibody. However, it is crucial to check total serum IgA levels before ruling out the diagnosis based on serology. For those with confirmed IgA deficiency, IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA are the appropriate serological tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery where she has recently registered. She is experiencing sneezing, an itchy nose, and itchy, watery eyes. She suspects that her symptoms are due to allergies and would like to undergo comprehensive allergy testing to inform her workplace and make necessary adjustments. She also wonders if she should carry an EpiPen.
      What is the most probable cause of this patient's allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seasonal rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Common Allergic and Non-Allergic Conditions: Causes and Differences

      Seasonal rhinitis, atopic eczema, chronic urticaria, lactose intolerance, and coeliac disease are common conditions that can cause discomfort and distress. Understanding their causes and differences is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Seasonal rhinitis, also known as hay fever, is caused by allergens such as tree pollen, grass, mould spores, and weeds. It is an IgE-mediated reaction that occurs at certain times of the year.

      Atopic eczema can be aggravated by dietary factors in some children, but less frequently in adults. Food allergy should be suspected in children who have immediate reactions to food or infants with moderate or severe eczema that is not well-controlled.

      Chronic urticaria may have an immunological or autoimmune cause, but can also be idiopathic or caused by physical factors, drugs, or dietary pseudo allergens. It presents with a rash.

      Lactose intolerance is due to an enzyme deficiency and is different from milk allergy, which is IgE-mediated. It can occur following gastroenteritis.

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that affects the small intestine in response to gluten exposure. It is not a gluten allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman arrived as an immigrant in the UK two years ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrived as an immigrant in the UK two years ago, and it is not clear what vaccines she has received in her own country. You enquire about her immune status relating to measles.
      What is the minimum requirement to satisfy you that she is immune to measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella-virus-specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies in the serum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rubella Immunity: Factors to Consider

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can have serious consequences for pregnant women and their unborn babies. To prevent maternal infection and congenital rubella syndrome, it is important to ensure immunity through vaccination or past infection. Here are some factors to consider when assessing rubella immunity:

      – MMR Vaccine: The MMR vaccine is recommended for children and adults, with a two-dose schedule providing the best protection. A single dose can still offer high levels of immunity, but a booster may be necessary.
      – Immunisation History: Individuals who have received rubella-containing vaccines in their country of origin may have some level of immunity, but it is important to verify their vaccination status. Those without a reliable history of immunisation should be assumed as unimmunised.
      – Childhood History: A history of rubella in childhood may indicate immunity, but it can be difficult to diagnose. Other viral exanthems can have similar symptoms, so a clinical diagnosis may not be reliable.
      – Rubella Antibodies: The presence of rubella-virus-specific IgG antibodies in the serum indicates immunity from past infection or immunisation. However, immunity can wear off over time, so it is important to check immunity levels before every pregnancy. Rubella-virus-specific IgM antibodies in the serum can indicate recent or current infection, but these antibodies can persist for up to 12 months after infection or immunisation.

      By considering these factors, healthcare providers can help ensure that individuals are protected against rubella and its potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.

      Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.

      The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old male patient complains of bloating and changes in his bowel movements....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male patient complains of bloating and changes in his bowel movements. He has been maintaining a food diary and suspects that his symptoms may be due to a food allergy. Laboratory results reveal normal full blood count, ESR, and thyroid function tests. Anti-endomysial antibodies are negative. What is the most appropriate test to explore the possibility of a food allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin prick test

      Explanation:

      Skin prick testing is the preferred initial approach as it is cost-effective and can assess a wide range of allergens. Although IgE testing is useful in food allergy, it is specific IgE antibodies that are measured rather than total IgE levels.

      Types of Allergy Tests

      Allergy tests are used to determine the specific allergens that trigger an individual’s allergic reactions. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. If a patient has an allergy, a wheal will typically develop. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen allergies.

      Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      Skin patch testing is another type of allergy test that is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours.

      Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, the choice of allergy test depends on the individual’s specific needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)

      Explanation:

      The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness and swelling about ten minutes after being stung by a bee. The boy's condition has worsened since the sting and he is now having increased difficulty breathing, although he can still speak in complete sentences. Currently, he is lying on the couch and appears to be unwell. An initial diagnosis of anaphylaxis is suspected. They reside in the same town as your clinic, and the father has transportation and is willing to bring his son to the clinic. How would you handle this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An emergency ambulance should be called

      Explanation:

      Managing Anaphylaxis: The Importance of Immediate Medical Attention

      Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. If a patient presents with symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as difficulty breathing, swelling, and hives, it is crucial to call for an ambulance right away. Basic life support and possible cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) may be necessary.

      Transporting the patient in a personal vehicle should only be considered if there are no other options. In most cases, an emergency ambulance will be quicker at responding. If the patient presents at a medical facility, adrenalin should be administered intramuscularly, along with antihistamines and steroids. Adrenalin can be repeated after five minutes if the patient is not responding.

      While the use of auto-inject pens is debated, some GPs trained in this area do prescribe them. It is important to remember that anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can have serious consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
      On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient

      Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
      Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected

      Explanation:

      Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment

      Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.

      The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.

      Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.

      Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.

      While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old woman complains of light-headedness, weakness, nausea and difficulty breathing within minutes...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of light-headedness, weakness, nausea and difficulty breathing within minutes of a wasp sting. A neighbour brings her into the surgery. She is hypotensive and wheezy. You decide to administer adrenaline.
      Select from the list the single correct option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 ml 1 : 1000) intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Administering Adrenaline: Dosage and Site of Injection

      When administering adrenaline, it is recommended to inject it intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This site is considered safe, easy, and effective. The standard adult dose is 0.5 ml 1:1000, while children aged 6-12 years should receive 0.3 ml. For younger children, the dose varies from 0.15 ml for those aged 6 months to 6 years, and 0.1-0.15 ml for infants younger than 6 months. If there is no improvement after 5 minutes, a repeat dose of intramuscular adrenaline may be necessary. In some cases, patients may require intravenous adrenaline, which should only be administered by trained and experienced medical professionals such as anaesthetists and A&E consultants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands suggestive of contact dermatitis, possibly related to wearing protective gloves at work. She requests confirmatory tests.
      Select the single test that is most likely to be helpful establishing the diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patch testing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Patch Testing for Contact Allergic Dermatitis

      Patch testing is a diagnostic tool used to identify substances that may be causing delayed hypersensitivity reactions, such as contact allergic dermatitis. This type of reaction occurs when the skin comes into contact with an allergen, resulting in a localized rash or inflammation. During patch testing, diluted chemicals are placed under patches on a small area of the back to produce a reaction. The chemicals included in the patch test kit are the most common offenders in cases of contact allergic dermatitis, including metals, rubber, leather, hair dyes, formaldehyde, lanolin, fragrance, preservatives, and other additives. If a patient has identified a possible allergen, such as shavings from the inside of gloves, it can be included in the test. Patches are removed after 48 hours, and the skin is inspected for reactions. The patient may return after 96 hours to check for late reactions.

      Skin-prick testing, intradermal testing, and measurement of specific IgE are used to investigate immediate hypersensitivity reactions. However, direct exposure to gloves is not usually helpful in diagnosing contact allergic dermatitis, as the patient needs to continue wearing them. Additionally, not all cases of hand eczema are allergic in origin and may be caused by constitutional eczema or irritant dermatitis. In these cases, patch testing may be negative or show an irrelevant result. Understanding patch testing and its limitations can help healthcare providers accurately diagnose and treat contact allergic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood pressure visits her doctor complaining of itchy hives on her arms after wearing latex gloves for 30 minutes. She reports no difficulty breathing or facial swelling. Her vital signs are within normal range.
      What is the probable mechanism involved in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Characteristics

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause damage to the body. There are different types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with their own characteristics.

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity is a type of reaction that involves the release of antibodies against an antigen, resulting in mast cell degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators. This type of reaction is characterized by the presence of weals and occurs within one hour of contact with the allergen. Atopic individuals, such as those with asthma and hay fever, are more susceptible to this type of reaction.

      Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions produce symptoms 48-72 hours after contact with an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of this type of reaction, which causes redness, itching, swelling, blistering, or bumps on the skin.

      Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions occur when antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, interfering with cell function and marking the cells for destruction. This type of reaction is the basis for autoimmune diseases and haemolytic diseases in newborns.

      Contact irritant dermatitis occurs when irritants remove oils and natural moisturizing factors from the skin, allowing chemical irritants to penetrate the skin barrier and trigger inflammation. This type of reaction presents acutely with redness, papules, swelling, and blistering, and progresses to redness, dryness, and cracking in the chronic stage.

      Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies bind to free-floating antigens, forming antigen-antibody complexes that can deposit in susceptible tissue and cause inflammation and damage. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an example of a disease caused by this mechanism.

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a wasp sting during a picnic at the park. She reports swelling and redness at the site of the sting that had begun to spread to her face.

      What is the best course of action for long-term management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for venom immunotherapy and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)

      Explanation:

      Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Allergy And Immunology (1/6) 17%
Passmed