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  • Question 1 - You are evaluating a patient in the Emergency Department who has been treated...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient in the Emergency Department who has been treated for a head injury. He has recently been advised by his doctor to cease driving, but his daughter informs you that he is still driving.
      What would be the initial course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Talk to the patient and ascertain whether he understands the risks to himself and others and see if you can help him realise that he should stop driving

      Explanation:

      This question evaluates your ability to effectively communicate while promoting patient self-care and understanding of managing long-term conditions.

      The most appropriate answer would be to initially talk to the patient himself. This approach allows for an assessment of the patient’s capacity to make decisions on his own. It is a gentle approach that respects his ability to make safe and sensible decisions.

      In some cases, it can be helpful to include other close family members or friends when explaining a situation to a patient. However, it is important to avoid being coercive. While this option may be a good choice, it is not the best first step to take.

      If all reasonable means have been tried and the patient continues to drive, there may come a time when it is necessary to contact the DVLA. However, this should be expressed in a less confrontational manner.

      Suggesting to the patient’s wife to sell the car is not appropriate as it is not your place to make such a suggestion. Additionally, his wife may still need to use the car even if he cannot drive. This is not a suggestion that should be made by you.

      It is not necessary to inform the DVLA immediately, as this could negatively impact the doctor-patient relationship in the future.

      For more information, you can refer to the DVLA guidance on medical conditions affecting driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
    Which...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized complication of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection does not have a connection with infective endocarditis. However, it is associated with various extra-pulmonary complications. These include skin conditions such as erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. In the central nervous system, it can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome, meningitis, encephalitis, optic neuritis, cerebellar ataxia, and cranial nerve palsies. Gastrointestinal symptoms may include anorexia, nausea, diarrhea, hepatitis, and pancreatitis. Hematological complications can manifest as cold agglutinins, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can also cause pericarditis and myocarditis. Rheumatic symptoms such as arthralgia and arthritides may occur, and acute glomerulonephritis can affect the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You evaluate a 32-year-old woman with grip weakness. During your examination, you find...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 32-year-old woman with grip weakness. During your examination, you find that 'Froment's sign' is positive.
      Which nerve is most likely to be affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Ulnar nerve lesions can be assessed using Froment’s sign. To perform this test, a piece of paper is placed between the patient’s thumb and index finger. The examiner then tries to pull the paper out of the patient’s pinched grip. If the patient has an ulnar nerve palsy, they will struggle to maintain the grip and may compensate by flexing the flexor pollicis longus muscle of the thumb to maintain pressure. This compensation is evident when the patient’s interphalangeal joint of the thumb flexes. Froment’s sign is a useful indicator of ulnar nerve dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department as the parents are...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department as the parents are worried about the child's cough and noisy breathing. You diagnose croup.

      What is the probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Parainfluenza viruses

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is primarily caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while whooping cough is caused by pertussis.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Following assessment you order an X-ray of the wrist which confirms a dorsally angulated extra-articular fracture of the right distal radius. You also observe cortical thinning and increased radiolucency of the bone and consider the possibility of underlying osteoporosis. What is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Menopause

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis and fragility fractures are more likely to occur in individuals with low levels of estrogen. Menopause, which causes a decrease in estrogen, can lead to estrogen deficiency. Estrogen plays a role in preventing bone breakdown by inhibiting osteoclast activity. After menopause, there is an increase in osteoclast activity, resulting in a rapid decline in bone mineral density. Osteoporosis is also associated with the long-term use of corticosteroids.

      Further Reading:

      Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.

      Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.

      The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.

      There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.

      Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.

      Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.

      Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55 year old female patient is brought into the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old female patient is brought into the emergency department with urosepsis. It is decided to intubate her pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI). What is the recommended dose of suxamethonium for RSI in adults?

      Your Answer: 1.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The appropriate dosage of suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) in adults is between 1 and 1.5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding has ingested an...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding has ingested an excessive amount of ferrous sulfate.
      What are the possible antidotes that can be administered in cases of iron salt poisoning?

      Your Answer: Desferrioxamine

      Explanation:

      There are various specific remedies available for different types of poisons and overdoses. The following list provides an outline of some of these antidotes:

      Poison: Benzodiazepines
      Antidote: Flumazenil

      Poison: Beta-blockers
      Antidotes: Atropine, Glucagon, Insulin

      Poison: Carbon monoxide
      Antidote: Oxygen

      Poison: Cyanide
      Antidotes: Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate

      Poison: Ethylene glycol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Heparin
      Antidote: Protamine sulphate

      Poison: Iron salts
      Antidote: Desferrioxamine

      Poison: Isoniazid
      Antidote: Pyridoxine

      Poison: Methanol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Opioids
      Antidote: Naloxone

      Poison: Organophosphates
      Antidotes: Atropine, Pralidoxime

      Poison: Paracetamol
      Antidotes: Acetylcysteine, Methionine

      Poison: Sulphonylureas
      Antidotes: Glucose, Octreotide

      Poison: Thallium
      Antidote: Prussian blue

      Poison: Warfarin
      Antidote: Vitamin K, Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

      By utilizing these specific antidotes, medical professionals can effectively counteract the harmful effects of various poisons and overdoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the baby is born prematurely with pale gray skin and cyanosis. The baby also has weak muscle tone, low blood pressure, and difficulty with feeding.

      Which of the following antibiotics is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in neonates, especially premature babies, as a result of the build-up of the antibiotic chloramphenicol. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including ashen grey skin color, poor feeding, vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, hypothermia, hypotonia, cardiovascular collapse, abdominal distension, and respiratory difficulties.

      During pregnancy, there are several drugs that can have adverse effects on the developing fetus. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, if given in the second and third trimesters, can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may lead to phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can result in fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol, as mentioned earlier, can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride, as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You evaluate a 68-year-old individual who has been admitted to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 68-year-old individual who has been admitted to the emergency department with suspected sepsis. Upon assessment, you observe that the patient is experiencing hypotension and you intend to prescribe intravenous fluids. In the case of a septic patient with hypotension, what is the recommended initial volume for intravenous fluid therapy in an adult?

      Your Answer: 15 ml/kg of crystalloid fluid

      Correct Answer: 30 ml/kg of crystalloid fluid

      Explanation:

      For patients with sepsis and hypotension, it is recommended to administer 30ml of crystalloid fluid per kilogram of body weight. However, if the patient does not have acute kidney injury, is not hypotensive, and has a lactate level below 2 mmol/l, a 500ml immediate dose may be given.

      Further Reading:

      There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.

      The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.

      To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.

      There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.

      NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a fever, headache, and feeling nauseous. After a diagnosis, it is determined that she has contracted yellow fever.

      Upon examination, it is observed that she has an uncommon combination of an extremely high body temperature (39.7°C) and a relative bradycardia (48 bpm).

      What is the name of the clinical sign that she has developed, which is named after a person?

      Your Answer: Faget sign

      Explanation:

      Faget sign is a unique occurrence where a fever and a relatively slow heart rate, known as bradycardia, are observed together. This phenomenon is sometimes called sphygmothermic dissociation. It can be observed in various infectious diseases, such as yellow fever, typhoid fever, tularaemia, brucellosis, Colorado tick fever, Legionella pneumonia, and Mycoplasma pneumonia. Normally, when a person has a fever, their heart rate increases, but in cases of Faget sign, the heart rate remains slow. Another term used to describe the combination of fever and increased heart rate is Leibermeister’s rule.

      Auspitz’s sign is a characteristic feature seen in psoriasis. When the scales of psoriasis are scraped off, small bleeding spots, known as punctate bleeding spots, appear. This sign helps in the diagnosis of psoriasis.

      Frank sign is a term used to describe a diagonal crease that appears on the earlobe. It has been hypothesized that this crease may be linked to cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

      Levine’s sign refers to a specific response to chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, known as ischemic chest pain. In this sign, the person clenches their fist and holds it over their chest in an instinctive reaction to the pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been present for the past five days. The pain has been gradually increasing and there is now noticeable swelling of the testis. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. He has a history of lung cancer for which he is currently receiving radiation therapy. His observations are as follows: HR 92 bpm, BP 130/80, SaO2 98% on air, temperature 38.9°C. A diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis is suspected.
      According to the current NICE guidelines what is the cut off point for the neutrophil count for a diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis to be made?

      Your Answer: 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious complication that can arise when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is commonly seen in individuals undergoing treatments such as cytotoxic chemotherapy or taking immunosuppressive drugs. Other causes of neutropenia include infections, bone marrow disorders like aplastic anemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, as well as nutritional deficiencies.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for specific criteria in patients receiving anticancer treatment. These criteria include having a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per liter or lower, along with either a body temperature higher than 38°C or other signs and symptoms that indicate a clinically significant sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning, she describes a right-sided, severe, throbbing headache. She has had similar symptoms previously but feels that this is the worst she has ever had. Her work is very stressful at the moment. She has also vomited this morning. Her husband is with her and is anxious as his mother has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumor. He is really worried that his wife might have the same. On examination, the patient is normotensive with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute, regular. Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, as is the examination of her peripheral nervous system. She has no scalp tenderness.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Migraine without aura typically needs to meet the specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include experiencing at least five attacks that meet the requirements outlined in criteria 2-4. The duration of these headache attacks should last between 4 to 72 hours. Additionally, the headache should exhibit at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity. Furthermore, during the headache, individuals should experience at least one of the following symptoms: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. For more detailed information, you can refer to the guidelines provided by The British Association for the Study of Headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening abdominal pain and distension over the past 2 weeks. The patient has a history of alcohol dependence with multiple alcohol related visits to the hospital over the past 8 years. On examination, you observe a significantly swollen abdomen consistent with tense ascites which you suspect is due to liver cirrhosis. Which scoring system is utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality?

      Your Answer: Child Pugh score

      Explanation:

      The scoring system utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality is the Child Pugh score. This scoring system takes into account several factors including the patient’s bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, presence of ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each factor is assigned a score and the total score is used to classify the severity of liver cirrhosis into three categories: A, B, or C. The higher the score, the more severe the liver cirrhosis and the higher the risk of mortality.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin, and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin, and pain in the upper right side of the abdomen. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of acute hepatitis B.
      Which of the following blood test results is most indicative of an acute hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: HBsAg negative, Anti-HBs positive

      Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. It can be detected in high levels in the blood during both acute and chronic hepatitis B virus infections. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is capable of spreading the infection to others. Normally, the body produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the immune response to the infection. HBsAg is also used to create the hepatitis B vaccine.

      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates that a person has recovered from the hepatitis B virus infection and is now immune to it. This antibody can also develop in individuals who have been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.

      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) appears when symptoms of acute hepatitis B begin and remains present for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates that a person has either had a previous or ongoing infection with the hepatitis B virus, although the exact time frame cannot be determined. This antibody is not present in individuals who have received the hepatitis B vaccine.

      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates a recent infection or acute hepatitis B. If this antibody is present, it suggests that the infection occurred within the past six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. Her urine output has dropped to 0.4 mL/kg/hour for the last 7 hours. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What stage of AKI does she have?

      Your Answer: Stage 2

      Correct Answer: Stage 1

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from baseline within 7 days (1.5-1.99 times the baseline). Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.

      Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 times the baseline), or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.

      In stage 3 AKI, there is a creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more times the baseline). Alternatively, a creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days, is indicative of stage 3 AKI. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine output) for 12 hours also falls under stage 3 AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      4.4
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his asthma. You have...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his asthma. You have been asked to administer a loading dose of albuterol. He weighs 70 kg.
      What is the appropriate loading dose for him?

      Your Answer: 250 mg over 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 250 mg over 15 minutes

      Explanation:

      The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a patient weighing 50 kg, the appropriate loading dose would be 250 mg. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      30.4
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  • Question 18 - A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a syncopal episode. The patient reports several weeks of generalized weakness, muscle aches, and feeling dizzy when standing which has been gradually worsening. On examination, you note pigmented areas on the lips, tongue, and gums with patches of vitiligo around the hands and wrists. Observation and blood test results are shown below:

      Hb 132 g/l
      Platelets 124 * 109/l
      WBC 8.0 * 109/l
      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 µmol/l
      Glucose 3.1 mmol/l

      Blood pressure 94/56 mmHg
      Pulse 102 bpm
      Respirations 18 bpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms over several weeks, although it can sometimes occur suddenly. The diagnosis of Addison’s disease can be challenging as its symptoms, such as fatigue, muscle pain, weight loss, and nausea, are non-specific. However, a key feature is low blood pressure. The disease is associated with changes in pigmentation, ranging from increased pigmentation due to elevated ACTH levels to the development of vitiligo caused by the autoimmune destruction of melanocytes.

      Patients with Addison’s disease often exhibit hyponatremia (low sodium levels) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). If the patient is dehydrated, this may be reflected in elevated urea and creatinine levels. While hypercalcemia (high calcium levels) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar levels) can occur in Addison’s disease, they are less common than hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

      In contrast, diabetes insipidus, characterized by normal or elevated sodium levels, does not cause pigmentation changes. Cushing’s syndrome, which results from excess steroid production, is almost the opposite of Addison’s disease, with hypertension (high blood pressure) and hypokalemia (low potassium levels) being typical symptoms. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with episodes of high blood pressure and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.2
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man develops anaphylaxis following a bee sting. He is taken to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man develops anaphylaxis following a bee sting. He is taken to resus for immediate treatment.

      Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the administration of adrenaline in an anaphylactic reaction?

      Your Answer: None of these options

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline can be given in cases of life-threatening anaphylactic reactions, even if there are certain conditions that may make it less advisable. These conditions include coronary artery disease, uncontrolled hypertension, serious ventricular arrhythmias, and the second stage of labor. Despite these relative contraindications, adrenaline may still be administered to address the immediate danger posed by anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      7.5
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  • Question 20 - A 15 year old female is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old female is brought to the emergency department by a family member after collapsing at home. The triage nurse asks you to evaluate the patient after obtaining vital signs and a capillary glucose. The results are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 88/58 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 118 bpm
      Respiration rate: 38 bpm
      Temperature: 37.5ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      Glucose level: 28 mmol/l

      Further tests confirm a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Administer 500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride solution over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to administer sodium chloride solution gradually over a period of 10-15 minutes. If the systolic does not respond adequately, the bolus dose may need to be repeated. It is important to note that patients with DKA often have a fluid deficit of more than 5 liters, which should be taken into consideration.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.6
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  • Question 21 - You are caring for a seriously ill middle-aged patient. As part of the...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a seriously ill middle-aged patient. As part of the diagnostic process, you have requested an MRI scan to investigate the cause of their symptoms. The results of the scan reveal extensive cancer of unknown origin. The prognosis for this patient is extremely grim. You have a conversation with the patient's family to inform them of the findings and plan to disclose this information to the patient, who is still conscious. The family insists that you should not inform the patient, as they believe he wouldn't want to know.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Inform the family that whilst you sympathise with their point of view, you cannot reasonably withhold this information from the patient. You would like to speak with her to explore how much information she'd like to know.

      Explanation:

      This question revolves around the challenge of delivering difficult news. The family involved in this situation have good intentions as they aim to shield their loved one from the distress of understanding the true nature of their underlying condition.

      However, if the patient possesses the mental capacity to comprehend, it is important to disclose the details of their condition if they express a desire to know. Engage in an open and sensitive conversation with the patient, allowing them to determine the extent of information they wish to receive about their condition.

      For further information, refer to the GMC Guidance on the topic of utilizing and divulging patient information for direct care.
      https://www.gmc-uk.org/ethical-guidance/ethical-guidance-for-doctors/confidentiality/using-and-disclosing-patient-information-for-direct-care

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      26.3
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following is considered a Category 1 organization according to the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is considered a Category 1 organization according to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004 in the UK?

      Your Answer: NHS bodies

      Explanation:

      The Civil Contingencies Act 2004 establishes a framework for civil protection in the United Kingdom. This legislation categorizes local responders to major incidents into two groups, each with their own set of responsibilities.

      Category 1 responders consist of organizations that play a central role in responding to most emergencies, such as the emergency services, local authorities, and NHS bodies. These Category 1 responders are obligated to fulfill a comprehensive range of civil protection duties. These duties include assessing the likelihood of emergencies occurring and using this information to inform contingency planning. They must also develop emergency plans, establish business continuity management arrangements, and ensure that information regarding civil protection matters is readily available to the public. Additionally, Category 1 responders are responsible for maintaining systems to warn, inform, and advise the public in the event of an emergency. They are expected to share information with other local responders to enhance coordination and efficiency. Furthermore, local authorities within this category are required to provide guidance and support to businesses and voluntary organizations regarding business continuity management.

      On the other hand, Category 2 organizations, such as the Health and Safety Executive, transport companies, and utility companies, are considered co-operating bodies. While they may not be directly involved in the core planning work, they play a crucial role in incidents that impact their respective sectors. Category 2 responders have a more limited set of duties, primarily focused on cooperating and sharing relevant information with both Category 1 and Category 2 responders.

      For more information on this topic, please refer to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68 year old patient with dementia is brought into the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old patient with dementia is brought into the emergency department by a caregiver due to a suspected accidental overdose. The caregiver reports finding several of the patient's medication bottles with multiple tablets missing. An ECG is conducted and reveals a prolonged QT interval. The caregiver presents you with the medication containers. Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit for the prolonged QT interval?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and antidepressants are drugs that are known to cause QT prolongation, which is a potentially dangerous heart rhythm abnormality. Similarly, SSRIs and other antidepressants are also associated with QT prolongation. On the other hand, beta-blockers like bisoprolol are used to shorten the QT interval and are considered as a treatment option for long QT syndrome. However, it’s important to note that sotalol, although classified as a beta blocker, acts differently by blocking potassium channels. This unique mechanism of action makes sotalol a class III anti-arrhythmic agent and may result in QT interval prolongation.

      Further Reading:

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a condition characterized by a prolonged QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG), which represents abnormal repolarization of the heart. LQTS can be either acquired or congenital. Congenital LQTS is typically caused by gene abnormalities that affect ion channels responsible for potassium or sodium flow in the heart. There are 15 identified genes associated with congenital LQTS, with three genes accounting for the majority of cases. Acquired LQTS can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and bradycardia from other causes.

      The normal QTc values, which represent the corrected QT interval for heart rate, are typically less than 450 ms for men and less than 460ms for women. Prolonged QTc intervals are considered to be greater than these values. It is important to be aware of drugs that can cause QT prolongation, as this can lead to potentially fatal arrhythmias. Some commonly used drugs that can cause QT prolongation include antimicrobials, antiarrhythmics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiemetics, and others.

      Management of long QT syndrome involves addressing any underlying causes and using beta blockers. In some cases, an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) may be recommended for patients who have experienced recurrent arrhythmic syncope, documented torsades de pointes, previous ventricular tachyarrhythmias or torsades de pointes, previous cardiac arrest, or persistent syncope. Permanent pacing may be used in patients with bradycardia or atrioventricular nodal block and prolonged QT. Mexiletine is a treatment option for those with LQT3. Cervicothoracic sympathetic denervation may be considered in patients with recurrent syncope despite beta-blockade or in those who are not ideal candidates for an ICD. The specific treatment options for LQTS depend on the type and severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness and numbness over the past few days. The patient reports initially experiencing numbness in both feet, which has gradually extended up to the knees. Additionally, there is weakness in both legs and numbness in the fingertips that appeared earlier today. The patient has no regular medication and is generally in good health. However, about three weeks ago, during a trip to India, the patient suffered from a week-long illness characterized by watery, occasionally bloody, diarrhea and abdominal cramps, which have completely resolved. What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Giardia

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      This explanation suggests that the patient’s symptoms are consistent with a case of travellers diarrhoea, which is in line with their medical history. GBS typically occurs within 1-3 weeks after the initial viral or bacterial infection that caused it.

      Further Reading:

      Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of gastrointestinal infections, particularly travellers diarrhoea. It is a gram-negative bacterium that appears as curved rods. The infection is transmitted through the feco-oral route, often through the ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. The incubation period for Campylobacter jejuni is typically 1-7 days, and the illness usually lasts for about a week.

      The main symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni infection include watery, and sometimes bloody, diarrhea accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, malaise, and headache. In some cases, complications can arise from the infection. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is one such complication that is associated with Campylobacter jejuni. Approximately 30% of GBS cases are caused by this bacterium.

      When managing Campylobacter jejuni infection, conservative measures are usually sufficient, with a focus on maintaining hydration. However, in cases where symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhea, or high-output diarrhea, or if the person is immunocompromised, antibiotics may be necessary. NICE recommends the use of clarithromycin, administered at a dose of 250-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days, starting within 3 days of the onset of illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.4
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman with a long-standing history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a long-standing history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, worsening ascites, and confusion.

      Which antibiotic should be administered in this case?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of patients are classified as Child-Pugh class C. In any given year, around 30% of patients with ascites, a condition characterized by fluid buildup in the abdomen, will develop SBP.

      SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with ascites, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.

      Common clinical features of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, tenderness, worsening ascites, general malaise, and hepatic encephalopathy. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing SBP, such as severe liver disease, gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, intestinal bacterial overgrowth, indwelling lines (e.g., central venous catheters or urinary catheters), previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the ascitic fluid.

      To diagnose SBP, an abdominal paracentesis, also known as an ascitic tap, is performed. This involves locating the area of dullness on the flank, next to the rectus abdominis muscle, and performing the tap about 5 cm above and towards the midline from the anterior superior iliac spines.

      Certain features on the analysis of the peritoneal fluid strongly suggest SBP, including a total white cell count in the ascitic fluid of more than 500 cells/µL, a total neutrophil count of more than 250 cells/µL, a lactate level in the ascitic fluid of more than 25 mg/dL, a pH of less than 7.35, and the presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.

      Patients diagnosed with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and given broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred choice is an intravenous 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administering intravenous albumin can help reduce the risk of kidney failure and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a...

    Incorrect

    • You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that requires suturing.
      Which ONE statement concerning the utilization of 1% lidocaine, in this scenario, is accurate?

      Your Answer: Each 1 ml of solution contains 1 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine works by blocking fast voltage-gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily utilized as a local anesthetic. It can also be employed in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias. The mechanism of action of lidocaine as a local anesthetic involves its diffusion in the form of an uncharged base through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane. It then reaches the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels, where it exerts its effect by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. This alteration in signal conduction prevents the depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron’s membrane, thereby inhibiting the transmission of pain signals.

      In a plain 1% lidocaine solution, each 1 ml contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg/kg, with a maximum limit of 500 mg. It is important to note that the combination of lidocaine and adrenaline should not be used in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose due to the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis.

      The half-life of lidocaine ranges from 1.5 to 2 hours. It exhibits a rapid onset of action within a few minutes and has a duration of action of 30 to 60 minutes when used alone. However, when co-administered with adrenaline, its duration of action is prolonged. It is worth mentioning that lidocaine tends to induce vasodilation, primarily attributed to the inhibition of action potentials in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves through the blocking of sodium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      16.4
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  • Question 27 - A 52 year old female presents to the emergency department due to increasing...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old female presents to the emergency department due to increasing confusion and restlessness over the past 48 hours. The patient's family inform you that she had complained of feeling anxious and having loose stools yesterday but had attributed it to the antibiotics prescribed by her dentist for a tooth infection a few days ago. It is important to note that the patient has a history of Graves disease. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 152/78 mmHg
      Pulse: 128 bpm
      Respiration rate: 24 bpm
      Temperature: 39.8ºC

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare and potentially life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. The most common cause of thyroid storm is infection. Please refer to the yellow box at the bottom of the notes for additional information on thyroid storm.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You...

    Correct

    • A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
      Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following symptoms is MOST indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Decreased level of consciousness

      Explanation:

      NICE has emphasized that there are particular symptoms and signs that may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of a fever. For instance, bacterial meningitis may be suggested if the following symptoms and signs are present: neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, decreased level of consciousness, and convulsive status epilepticus. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You organize a teaching session for the junior doctors on the syndrome of...

    Correct

    • You organize a teaching session for the junior doctors on the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is typical of SIADH?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia, which is a condition where there is a low level of sodium in the blood. This occurs because the body is unable to properly excrete excess water, leading to a dilution of sodium levels. SIADH is specifically classified as euvolemic, meaning that there is a normal amount of fluid in the body, and hypotonic, indicating that the concentration of solutes in the blood is lower than normal.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.8
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  • Question 30 - You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of the potential diagnoses is methemoglobinemia. What test would you employ to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MetHb

      Explanation:

      COHb is a measure used to evaluate the presence of carbon monoxide poisoning in individuals who are in good health. hHb refers to deoxygenated haemoglobin.

      Further Reading:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.

      Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.

      Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.

      Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.

      Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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Respiratory (2/3) 67%
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