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Question 1
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A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness. Eight weeks previously, he was treated for hypertensive heart failure with 120 mg furosemide and 5 mg enalapril daily. His haemoglobin at the time was 12.0, urea 14.2 mmol/l and creatinine 298 μmol/l. His blood pressure in clinic was 148/85 mmHg. His blood results are shown below: Hb 10.2g/dL, MCV 89.2 fl WCC 4.9 x 109/L, Plats 175 x 109/L, Na+ 135 K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 25.2 mmol/L, Creat 600 μmol/L, Assuming that he is not volume overloaded, what would be the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: stop the enalapril and furosemide
Explanation:The patient presents with worsened renal condition from the last consultation when he was started on enalapril (an ACE inhibitor) so this medication should be stopped. Because there is also no fluid overload; furosemide, a diuretic, should also be stopped.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?
Your Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy
Explanation:COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.
Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.
Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen. Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Elevated 24-h urinary calcium excretion
Correct Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the lateral three and a half fingers of her right hand, tenderness over her right forearm, and inability to make a tight fist. She complains of pain in her right arm when twisting door handles anticlockwise. Phalen’s and Tinel’s tests are negative. She is otherwise neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: Pronator teres syndrome
Explanation:Entrapment of the median nerve by pronator teres causes a median nerve neuropathy, which is worse during pronation of the forearm. Examination should involve excluding carpal tunnel syndrome and pronation of the affected forearm against resistance, which brings on the pain. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve proximal to the wrist may be tender to palpation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2 weeks that has not responded to antibiotics. Lately he has developed an onset of new range of symptoms that are linked to his HLA B27 positivity. Which of the following signs is not related to Reiter's syndrome?
Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: A mild fever with a generalised macular rash
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. Dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements. There is no history of trauma. He is on no drugs. There is no relevant family history. On examination he has an episodic right torticollis. The rest of his neurological examination is normal. MRI of his cervical spine is normal. The neurologist in the Movement Disorders Clinic has diagnosed cervical dystonia. Which of the following treatments will be most beneficial?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin
Explanation:Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxic protein from Clostridium botulinum that causes flaccid paralysis as it acts by preventing the release of Ach at the neuromuscular joint. It is the first-line treatment for cervical dystonia (torticollis) because the condition is a neurological disorder characterised by unusual muscle contractions of the neck. With the use of Botulinum toxin, the contractions would be released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ºC. The following results are obtained: Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.4 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 42 umol/L, TSH 3.5 mu/l, Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L. You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glucose
Explanation:The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81 kg, with a standard deviation of 12 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?
Your Answer: 1.5
Explanation:The SEM is dependent on the variation in the population and the number of the extracted samples. A large variation in the population causes a large difference in the sample means, ultimately resulting in a larger SEM. However, as more samples are extracted from the population, the sample means move closer to the population mean, which results in a smaller SEM. In short, the SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. Standard error of the mean = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
The standard error of the mean is calculated by the standard deviation / square root (number of patients)= 12 / square root (64) = 12 / 8 = 1.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Prednisolone 30 mg/day
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?
Your Answer: It is associated with primary metastatic tumours in the gastrointestinal tract
Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients
Explanation:For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for review. His blood tests show: Haemoglobin 11.2 g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL) MCV 87 fl (80 – 96 fL) Sodium 133 mmol/l (137 – 144 mmol/L) Potassium 4.3 mmol/l (3.5 – 4.9 mmol/L) Urea 19.1 mmol/l (2.5 – 7.5 mmol/L) Creatinine 267 μmol/l (60 – 110 μmol/L) Ferritin 150 μg/l (15 – 300 μg/L) C reactive protein <5 mg/l (< 10 mg/L) What is the most appropriate management of his anaemia?
Your Answer: Iron supplementation
Correct Answer: Monitor haemoglobin, no treatment required at present
Explanation:Because the patient has chronic kidney disease, we need to consider the associated adverse effects of trying to maintain normal haemoglobin levels (14-18g/dl in this patient) and instead only instigate therapy when the level falls below 11 g/dl. Thus, in this case we should just monitor the haemoglobin levels and not initiate therapy just yet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Correct
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Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination to the bones?
Your Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.
Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Prostate (32%)
2. Breast (22%)
3. Kidneys (16%)
4. Lungs
5. ThyroidMost common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Spine
2. Pelvis
3. Ribs
4. Skull
5. Long bones -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated to be 120 units per week. Following alcohol withdrawal, when is the peak incidence of seizures expected in this patient?
Your Answer: 12 hours
Correct Answer: 36 hours
Explanation:The peak incidence of seizures is expected 36 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal.
Pathophysiology:
Chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Alcohol withdrawal is thought to lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission).Clinical course in alcohol withdrawal:
Symptoms begin 6-12 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal
Seizures occur 36 hours following the onset of withdrawal
Delirium tremens (coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia) occurs approximately 72 hours after the onset of alcohol withdrawal.Management
First-line: benzodiazepines e.g. lorazepam, chlordiazepoxide.
Carbamazepine is also effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
Phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35 year old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint worsens when he is working. He starts to feel wheezy, with a tendency to cough. Which diagnostic investigation would be the most useful in this case?
Your Answer: High resolution computed tomography of thorax
Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home
Explanation:Serial Peak Expiratory Flow measurement at work and home is a feasible, sensitive, and specific test for the diagnosis of occupational asthma. For a diagnosis of occupational asthma, it is important to establish a relationship objectively between the workplace exposure and asthma symptoms and signs. Physiologically, this can be achieved by monitoring airflow limitation in relation to occupational exposure(s). If there is an effect of a specific workplace exposure, airflow limitation should be more prominent on work days compared with days away from work (or days away from the causative agent). Airflow limitation can be measured by spirometry, with peak expiratory flow (PEF) and/or forced expiratory volume in 1 s(FEV1) being the most useful for observing changes in airway calibre. Other tests mentioned are less reliable and would not help in establishing a satisfactory diagnosis of occupational asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is brought by her concerned mother. The patient reports that the president is secretly in love with her, despite the fact that there has never been any contact between them. What is the probable psychiatric condition from which the patient is suffering from?
Your Answer: Fregoli delusion
Correct Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, which is a form of paranoid delusion with an amorous quality. The patient, often a single woman, believes that a famous person is in love with her.
Other options:
– Bouffée délirante is an acute psychotic disorder in which hallucinations, delusions or perceptual disturbances are obvious but markedly variable, changing from day to day or even from hour to hour.
– Fregoli delusion is the mistaken belief that some people currently present in the deluded person’s environment (typically a stranger) is a familiar person in disguise.
– Capgras delusion is the belief that significant others have been replaced by impostors, robots or aliens.
– Couvade is the common but poorly understood phenomenon whereby the expectant father experiences somatic symptoms during the pregnancy for which there is no recognized physiological basis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:
Your Answer: 1 / p value
Correct Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error
Explanation:The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?
Your Answer: IV haloperidol
Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency.
Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
Treatment:
– The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
– If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
– Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
– It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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