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  • Question 1 - A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a fall. The patient is accompanied by her children who inform you that there have been several falls in recent weeks. These falls tend to happen in the morning when the patient gets out of bed and appear to have worsened since the GP altered the patient's usual medication. You suspect orthostatic hypotension. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measure lying and standing blood pressure (BP) with repeated BP measurements while standing for 3 minutes

      Explanation:

      To measure blood pressure while standing, you will need to take repeated measurements for a duration of 3 minutes. This involves measuring both lying and standing blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old woman with a longstanding history of heavy tobacco use and lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a longstanding history of heavy tobacco use and lung cancer presents with cough, chest pain, worsening shortness of breath, and fatigue.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Heart failure

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of patients are classified as Child-Pugh class C. In any given year, around 30% of patients with ascites, a condition characterized by fluid buildup in the abdomen, will develop SBP.

      SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with ascites, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.

      Common clinical features of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, tenderness, worsening ascites, general malaise, and hepatic encephalopathy. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing SBP, such as severe liver disease, gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, intestinal bacterial overgrowth, indwelling lines (e.g., central venous catheters or urinary catheters), previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the ascitic fluid.

      To diagnose SBP, an abdominal paracentesis, also known as an ascitic tap, is performed. This involves locating the area of dullness on the flank, next to the rectus abdominis muscle, and performing the tap about 5 cm above and towards the midline from the anterior superior iliac spines.

      Certain features on the analysis of the peritoneal fluid strongly suggest SBP, including a total white cell count in the ascitic fluid of more than 500 cells/µL, a total neutrophil count of more than 250 cells/µL, a lactate level in the ascitic fluid of more than 25 mg/dL, a pH of less than 7.35, and the presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.

      Patients diagnosed with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and given broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred choice is an intravenous 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administering intravenous albumin can help reduce the risk of kidney failure and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant is brought to the hospital due...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant is brought to the hospital due to hyperemesis gravidarum.
      Which of the following is the LEAST probable complication associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe form called hyperemesis gravidarum, which affects less than 1% of pregnancies. This condition is characterized by uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting, leading to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, nutritional deficiencies, and weight loss.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum can result in electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia and hypokalemia. However, it does not cause hyperkalemia. This persistent vomiting can also lead to other complications such as dehydration, acidosis, deficiencies in vitamins B1, B12, and B6, Mallory-Weiss tears, retinal hemorrhages, pneumothorax, prematurity, and small-for-gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are the designated team leader in the resuscitation of a cardiac arrest...

    Correct

    • You are the designated team leader in the resuscitation of a cardiac arrest patient. Your colleague disagrees with the decision to continue with the resuscitation.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for you to take?

      Your Answer: Listen to the reason that they disagree and if their concerns are justified, change your decision accordingly

      Explanation:

      In a resuscitation scenario, problem-solving and teamwork are crucial. The pressure is high, and tough decisions need to be made. As the team leader, it is important to value the opinions of other team members, especially those with more experience. By listening to the registrar’s perspective, you may gain new insights that could impact your decision-making process. Collaboration is key in such situations, and if you find yourself unsure of the best course of action, don’t hesitate to seek assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion for anemia caused by excessive vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion for anemia caused by excessive vaginal bleeding. While receiving the second unit of blood, she experiences sensations of both heat and coldness. Her temperature is recorded at 38.1ºC, whereas her pre-transfusion temperature was 37ºC. Apart from this, she feels fine and does not exhibit any other symptoms.
      What is the probable cause of this transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Cytokines from leukocytes

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.

      Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.

      In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing significant difficulty breathing...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing significant difficulty breathing and appears visibly distressed. Despite his discomfort, he remains mentally alert and reports moderate levels of pain. He has been informed that he has only a few days left to live. Currently, his oxygen saturation levels are at 95% when breathing regular air, and there are no specific signs of chest abnormalities.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to alleviate his breathlessness in this situation?

      Your Answer: Oral morphine

      Explanation:

      Here are some suggestions for managing breathlessness in the final days of life, as provided by NICE:

      1. It is important to identify and treat any reversible causes of breathlessness in the dying person, such as pulmonary edema or pleural effusion.

      2. Non-pharmacological methods can be considered for managing breathlessness in someone nearing the end of life. It is not recommended to start oxygen therapy as a routine measure. Oxygen should only be offered to individuals who are known or suspected to have symptomatic hypoxemia.

      3. Breathlessness can be managed using different medications, including opioids, benzodiazepines, or a combination of both.

      For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old woman presents with painless hematuria and mild urinary urgency. Urine microscopy...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with painless hematuria and mild urinary urgency. Urine microscopy and culture are normal. On examination, you note that her bladder feels slightly distended. The rest of her examination was entirely normal.
      Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next management step?

      Your Answer: Urgent urology referral

      Explanation:

      All patients who present with painless haematuria should undergo cystoscopy to rule out bladder cancer. This procedure is typically done in an outpatient setting as part of a haematuria clinic, using a flexible cystoscope and local anaesthetic.

      In this case, the likelihood of prostate cancer is much lower due to the patient’s relatively normal prostate examination and mild symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction.

      Bladder cancer is the seventh most common cancer in the UK, with men being three times more likely to develop it than women. The main risk factors for bladder cancer are increasing age and smoking. Approximately 50% of bladder cancers are caused by smoking, which is believed to be due to the presence of certain chemicals that are excreted through the kidneys. Smokers have a 2-6 times higher risk of developing bladder cancer compared to non-smokers.

      Painless macroscopic haematuria is the most common symptom in 80-90% of bladder cancer cases. There are usually no abnormalities found during a standard physical examination.

      According to current recommendations, the following patients should be urgently referred for a urological assessment:
      – Adults over 45 years old with unexplained visible haematuria and no urinary tract infection.
      – Adults over 45 years old with visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of a urinary tract infection.
      – Adults aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or an elevated white cell count on a blood test.

      For those aged 60 and over with recurrent or persistent unexplained urinary tract infection, a non-urgent referral for bladder cancer is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and painful right eye. On examination, you note the presence of conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting evident in the eye. You make a diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis.
      With reference to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in your management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      Here is a revised version of the guidance on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:

      – It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment.
      – However, if the condition is severe or if there is a need for rapid resolution, topical antibiotics may be prescribed. In some cases, a delayed treatment strategy may be appropriate, and the patient should be advised to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
      – There are several options for topical antibiotics, including Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops (to be applied every 2 hours for 2 days, then 4 times daily for 5 days) and Chloramphenicol 1% ointment (to be applied four times daily for 2 days, then twice daily for 5 days). Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment, to be applied twice daily for 7 days.
      – It is important to note that there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders for isolated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis. However, some institutions may have their own exclusion policies.
      – Provide the patient with written information and explain the red flags that indicate the need for an urgent review.
      – Arrange a follow-up appointment to confirm the diagnosis and ensure that the symptoms have resolved.
      – If the patient returns with ongoing symptoms, it may be necessary to send swabs for viral PCR (to test for adenovirus and Herpes simplex) and bacterial culture. Empirical topical antibiotics may also be prescribed if they have not been previously given.
      – Consider referring the patient to ophthalmology if the symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days after initiating treatment.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Infective Conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided with a wall at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel. She is experiencing severe bruising on her anterior chest wall and is complaining of chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, tracheal deviation to the right, and fractures of the first and second ribs. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 94, blood pressure of 128/73, and oxygen saturation of 99% on high flow oxygen.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Traumatic aortic rupture

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.

      Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.

      Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.

      Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.

      Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.

      Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are managing a 62-year-old woman with a dorsally displaced fracture of the...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 62-year-old woman with a dorsally displaced fracture of the distal radius. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). Following the administration of the local anesthetic, you observe a change in the patient's skin color to a grayish-blue hue. What complication is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Methaemoglobinaemia

      Explanation:

      In this case, the administration of the local anesthetic used for the Bier’s block may have caused the patient’s blood to convert hemoglobin into methemoglobin, resulting in the observed skin color change.

      Further Reading:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a patient who has experienced cardiac arrest. The team is getting ready to administer amiodarone. What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone in the context of cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Blockade of chloride channels

      Correct Answer: Blockade of potassium channels

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone functions by inhibiting voltage-gated potassium channels, leading to an extended repolarization period and decreased excitability of the heart muscle.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are part of the team managing a conscious patient in the emergency...

    Correct

    • You are part of the team managing a conscious patient in the emergency room. You decide to insert a nasopharyngeal airway adjunct. How should you determine the appropriate size of the nasopharyngeal airway?

      Your Answer: Sized according to the distance between the nostril and the tragus of the ear

      Explanation:

      Nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts (NPAs) are selected based on their length, which should match the distance between the nostril and the tragus of the ear.

      Further Reading:

      Techniques to keep the airway open:

      1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.

      2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.

      3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.

      Airway adjuncts:

      1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.

      2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.

      Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):

      – Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
      – Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
      – Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
      – Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.

      Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man experiences a sudden loss of vision in his left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man experiences a sudden loss of vision in his left eye. He is later diagnosed with central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

      Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: It usually presents with sudden onset painful loss of vision

      Correct Answer: The pupil on the affected side is usually poorly reactive to light with a normal consensual light reaction

      Explanation:

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by sudden and painless loss of vision in the affected eye. It can occur due to emboli from atheromatous carotid arteries, thrombosis caused by arteriosclerosis or hypertension, or vasospasm resulting from giant cell arteritis. The pupil on the affected side typically shows poor reactivity to light, but the consensual light reaction remains normal. The typical retinal findings in CRAO include a pale retina due to edema, narrowed blood vessels, segmentation of blood columns in arteries (resembling cattle-trucking), and a cherry red spot indicating sparing of the macular center supplied by the underlying choroid. Over several weeks, optic atrophy may develop. Immediate referral to an eye specialist is necessary as CRAO is an ophthalmological emergency.

      On the other hand, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) leads to painless and unilateral visual loss. The retina in CRVO has a distinct appearance likened to a pizza thrown against a wall. Fundoscopic examination reveals engorged retinal veins, disc edema, multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel...

    Correct

    • A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.

      Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?

      Your Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man suffers a fractured neck of femur. He is later diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed medication for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures.
      What is the recommended initial treatment for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures?

      Your Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Oral bisphosphonates are the primary choice for treating osteoporotic fragility fractures in individuals who have already experienced such fractures. After a fragility fracture, it is advised to start taking a bisphosphonate, typically alendronic acid, and consider supplementing with calcium and vitamin D.

      There are other treatment options available for preventing fragility fractures after an initial occurrence. These include raloxifene, teriparatide, and denosumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient with a known history of COPD who...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient with a known history of COPD who has come to the emergency department due to worsening shortness of breath and a cough producing green sputum. An arterial blood gas is obtained and the results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.1 kPa
      pCO2 6.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 32 mmol/l
      Base Excess +4

      The patient is given immediate doses of prednisone and amoxicillin, and nebulized salbutamol is administered. After one hour of treatment, a repeat blood gas is obtained with the patient receiving 40% inspired oxygen via venturi. The results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.27
      pO2 9.0 kPa
      pCO2 7.2 kPa
      Bicarbonate 33 mmol/l
      Base Excess +5

      Which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate to implement next?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      According to the brit-thoracic guidelines, if a patient with COPD continues to experience respiratory acidosis even after receiving standard medical therapy for one hour, it is recommended to consider using non-invasive ventilation (NIV). This is especially important if the patient’s hypoxia and hypercapnia are worsening despite the initial treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of mental health issues, including bipolar...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of mental health issues, including bipolar disorder and anxiety, comes in alone expressing worries about his memory. He reports struggling to recall where he has placed items around his home and occasionally forgetting the names of his acquaintances. This onset occurred abruptly one week ago, and he emphasizes the significant impact it is having on his daily life.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Correct Answer: Pseudodementia

      Explanation:

      Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition where there is a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause, it can also be observed in various psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and hysteria. Fortunately, this condition is reversible with treatment of the underlying psychiatric issue. However, it is important to note that pseudodementia is associated with a relatively high risk of suicide.

      There are several features that are indicative of a diagnosis of pseudodementia. These include a history of a psychiatric condition, a sudden onset of symptoms, the presence of insight into one’s condition, a tendency to emphasize disability, and the absence of changes in cognition during nighttime. By recognizing these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and address this condition.

      Overall, pseudodementia is a temporary decline in cognitive function that occurs alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for the underlying psychiatric condition in order to reverse the cognitive decline. Additionally, it is crucial to be aware of the increased risk of suicide associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Correct Answer: Thought echo

      Explanation:

      Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 57 year old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset dizziness in the past 24 hours. The patient describes a sensation of the room spinning even when at rest. The patient also complains of feeling nauseated and has vomited a few times. The patient states that they do not take any regular medications and are generally healthy, aside from a recent cold. There is no reported hearing loss or ringing in the ears. Upon observation, the patient appears unsteady while attempting to walk and tends to veer to the left side. The head impulse test yields positive results. All vital signs are within normal range.

      What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      First-line treatments for nausea and vomiting in patients with vestibular neuronitis include prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, cyclizine, and promethazine. According to NICE guidelines, the following treatment options are recommended: buccal or intramuscular administration of prochlorperazine, intramuscular administration of cyclizine, or oral administration of prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, cyclizine, or promethazine teoclate (if the nausea and vomiting are mild and the patient can tolerate oral medication). Betahistine is specifically used to treat Meniere’s disease, which is characterized by hearing loss and tinnitus. The Epley maneuver is a treatment option for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). Haloperidol and levomepromazine are indicated for postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting in palliative care, but they are not recommended for treating patients with vestibular neuronitis.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
    Where...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath. The patient reports feeling more fatigued and breathless with minimal exertion over the past few months, but in the past few days, she has been experiencing breathlessness even at rest. She informs you that she has been taking aspirin, ramipril, bisoprolol, and rosuvastatin for the past 5 years since she had a minor heart attack. Upon examination, you observe prominent neck veins, bilateral lung crepitations that are worse at the bases, faint heart sounds, and pitting edema below the knee. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 130/84 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 90 bpm
      Respiration rate: 23 bpm
      Temperature: 37.0ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 93% on room air

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Furosemide 40 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s symptoms and physical findings, the most appropriate initial treatment would be to administer Furosemide 40 mg intravenously. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, which can alleviate symptoms of fluid overload such as shortness of breath and edema. By reducing fluid volume, Furosemide can help improve the patient’s breathing and relieve the strain on the heart.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac failure, also known as heart failure, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms and signs resulting from abnormalities in the structure or function of the heart. This can lead to reduced cardiac output or high filling pressures at rest or with stress. Heart failure can be caused by various problems such as myocardial, valvular, pericardial, endocardial, or arrhythmic issues.

      The most common causes of heart failure in the UK are coronary heart disease and hypertension. However, there are many other possible causes, including valvular heart disease, structural heart disease, cardiomyopathies, certain drugs or toxins, endocrine disorders, nutritional deficiencies, infiltrative diseases, infections, and arrhythmias. Conditions that increase peripheral demand on the heart, such as anemia, pregnancy, sepsis, hyperthyroidism, Paget’s disease of bone, arteriovenous malformations, and beriberi, can also lead to high-output cardiac failure.

      Signs and symptoms of heart failure include edema, lung crepitations, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, displaced apex beat, right ventricular heave, elevated jugular venous pressure, cyanosis, hepatomegaly, ascites, pleural effusions, breathlessness, fatigue, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, nocturnal cough or wheeze, and Presyncope.

      To diagnose heart failure, NICE recommends three key tests: N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP), transthoracic echocardiography, and ECG. Additional tests may include chest X-ray, blood tests (U&Es, thyroid function, LFT’s, lipid profile, HbA1C, FBC), urinalysis, and peak flow or spirometry.

      Management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure, involves ensuring a patent airway, optimizing breathing with supplemental oxygen and non-invasive ventilation if necessary, and addressing circulation with loop diuretics to reduce preload, vasodilators to reduce preload and afterload, and inotropes if hypotension or signs of end organ hypoperfusion persist.

      In summary, cardiac failure is a clinical syndrome resulting from abnormalities in cardiac function. It can have various causes and is characterized by specific signs and symptoms. Diagnosis involves specific tests, and management focuses on addressing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A young man with a previous occurrence of penile discharge has a swab...

    Incorrect

    • A young man with a previous occurrence of penile discharge has a swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Based on the findings of this investigation, he is diagnosed with chlamydia.
      What is the MOST probable observation that would have been made on his penile swab?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative diplococci

      Correct Answer: Gram-negative rods

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as chlamydia. This bacterium is typically either coccoid or rod-shaped in its appearance.

      There are various serological variants of C. trachomatis, and each variant is associated with different patterns of disease. Specifically, types D-K of this bacterium are responsible for causing genitourinary infections.

      Chlamydia is the most commonly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection in the United Kingdom and is also the leading preventable cause of infertility worldwide. Interestingly, around 50% of men infected with chlamydia do not experience any symptoms, while at least 70% of infected women remain asymptomatic. However, if left untreated, chlamydia can lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy, and tubal infertility in women. In men, it can result in proctitis, epididymitis, and epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods, uncertainty about her personal identity, self-harm, and impulsive behavior that causes harm.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a range of clinical features. These include having unstable relationships, experiencing undue anger, and having variable moods. Individuals with this disorder often struggle with chronic boredom and may have doubts about their personal identity. They also tend to have an intolerance of being left alone and may engage in self-injury. Additionally, they exhibit impulsive behavior that can be damaging to themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the past three days. She has a history of seasonal allergies during the spring months, which have been more severe than usual in recent weeks. Upon listening to her chest, you can hear scattered polyphonic wheezes. Her peak flow at the time of presentation is 280 L/min, and her personal best peak flow is 550 L/min.
      What classification would you assign to this asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Acute severe asthma

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing an acute episode of asthma. His initial peak flow measurement is 46% of his best, indicating a severe exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.

      Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) between 50-75% of the individual’s best or predicted value. There are no signs of acute severe asthma in this case.

      Acute severe asthma is identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR between 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate over 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is indicated by any one of the following: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) below 8 kPa, normal arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) between 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.

      Near-fatal asthma is characterized by elevated PaCO2 levels and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with increased inflation pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 2 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The child developed a high fever and a sore throat yesterday but today her condition has worsened. You observe that the patient is from a nomadic community and has not received any immunizations. During the examination, you notice that the patient is sitting upright, drooling, and has audible stridor with visible moderate chest retractions. What is the most suitable initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Call and await senior ENT and anaesthetic support

      Explanation:

      The top priority when dealing with suspected epiglottitis is to assess and secure the airway. This is especially important in patients who have not been vaccinated against Haemophilus influenzae type b (HiB), as they are at risk for complications from this infection. Classic signs of epiglottitis include tripod positioning, drooling, stridor, and a muffled voice. It is crucial to avoid agitating patients, particularly children, during examination or procedures, as this can trigger laryngospasm and potentially lead to airway obstruction. In such cases, it is recommended to call in senior ENT and anaesthetic support to perform laryngoscopy and be prepared for intubation or tracheostomy if necessary to address any airway compromise. If the patient is in a critical condition, securing the airway through intubation becomes the top priority.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child...

    Incorrect

    • You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child who has arrested. The team have just started the first cycle of chest compressions and have attached monitoring. You suggest briefly pausing chest compressions to check if the rhythm is shockable.

      How long should the brief pause in chest compressions last?

      Your Answer: 5-10 seconds

      Correct Answer: ≤ 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      The duration of the pause in chest compressions should be kept short, not exceeding 5 seconds. This applies to both pausing to assess the rhythm and pausing to administer a shock if the rhythm is deemed shockable. It is important to note that a pulse check lasting less than two seconds may fail to detect a palpable pulse, particularly in individuals with a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You evaluate a 72-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed amiodarone.
    Which ONE statement...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 72-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed amiodarone.
      Which ONE statement about the adverse effects of amiodarone is accurate?

      Your Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have numerous harmful side effects, making it crucial to conduct a comprehensive clinical assessment before starting treatment with it. Some of the side effects associated with amiodarone include corneal microdeposits, photosensitivity, nausea, sleep disturbance, hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, acute hepatitis and jaundice, peripheral neuropathy, lung fibrosis, QT prolongation, and optic neuritis (although this is very rare). If optic neuritis occurs, immediate discontinuation of amiodarone is necessary to prevent the risk of blindness.

      The majority of patients taking amiodarone experience corneal microdeposits, but these typically resolve after treatment is stopped and rarely affect vision. Amiodarone has a chemical structure similar to thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor, leading to both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. However, hypothyroidism is more commonly observed, affecting around 5-10% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35 year old individual is brought into the emergency room by paramedics...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old individual is brought into the emergency room by paramedics after being rescued from a lake. The individual has a core temperature of 29.5ºC. CPR is currently being performed. In a patient with severe hypothermia, how many defibrillation attempts should be conducted?

      Your Answer: Zero

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      When performing CPR on patients with severe hypothermia, it is recommended to limit defibrillation attempts to three. Hypothermia is characterized by a core temperature below 35ºC, with mild hypothermia ranging from 32-35ºC, moderate hypothermia from 30-32ºC, and severe hypothermia below 30ºC. This condition often occurs after drowning. If the individual’s core body temperature is below 30°C, it is advised to administer a maximum of three shocks using the highest output of the defibrillator.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28 year old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a painful throat that began 5 days ago but has worsened significantly in the last 24 hours. The patient is experiencing difficulty in opening his mouth due to the pain. Upon examination, you determine that the patient is suffering from a peritonsillar abscess. What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      The most probable causative organism in a case of peritonsillar abscess is Streptococcus pyogenes.

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.

      The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.

      Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.

      Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 14-month-old boy presents with a history of occasional wheezing and cough, which...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old boy presents with a history of occasional wheezing and cough, which worsens at night. He recently had a cold and appears congested today. His mother reports that he often wheezes after a cold, and this can persist for several weeks after the infection has resolved. Both parents smoke, but his mother is trying to reduce her smoking, and neither parent smokes inside the house. There is no family history of asthma or allergies. Another doctor recently prescribed inhalers, but they have had little effect. On examination, he has a slight fever of 37.8°C, and there are scattered audible wheezes heard during chest examination.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral induced wheeze

      Explanation:

      Viral induced wheeze is a common condition in childhood that is triggered by a viral infection, typically a cold. The wheezing occurs during the infection and can persist for several weeks after the infection has cleared. This condition is most commonly seen in children under the age of three, as their airways are smaller. It is also more prevalent in babies who were small for their gestational age and in children whose parents smoke. It is important to note that viral induced wheeze does not necessarily mean that the child has asthma, although a small percentage of children with this condition may go on to develop asthma. Asthma is more commonly seen in children with a family history of asthma or allergies. Inhalers are often prescribed for the management of viral induced wheeze, but they may not always be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Elderly Care / Frailty (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (3/3) 100%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose & Throat (2/3) 67%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Resus (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Passmed