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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On examination, there is tenderness over his left renal angle and he has a temperature of 38.6°C. You suspect the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis.
Which of the following is not a reason to consider hospital admission in a patient with pyelonephritis?Your Answer: A temperature greater than 38°C
Correct Answer: Failure to improve significantly within 12 hours of starting antibiotics
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.
According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option. If there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, it is advised to consult a local microbiologist for intravenous second-line
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after falling through the ice while playing on a frozen pond. The child was submerged up to his waist and it took his friends approximately 10-15 minutes to pull him out of the water completely. The child then spent an additional 10 minutes outside in wet clothes with an air temperature of -4ºC before an adult arrived and took him to the emergency department. A core temperature reading is taken and recorded as 29.6ºC. How would you best classify the patient?
Your Answer: Severe hypothermia
Correct Answer: Moderate hypothermia
Explanation:Moderate hypothermia is indicated by core temperatures ranging from 28-32ºC.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the road and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
According to the ATLS guidelines, what other medication should be administered?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been present for the past five days. The pain has been gradually increasing and there is now noticeable swelling of the testis. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a known notifiable illness.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.
The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 4-week-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can palpate a small mass in the upper abdomen.
What is the first test to be done in this case?Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.
The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.
The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.
Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.
Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.
The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68 year old has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a history of collapsing shortly after complaining of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. It has been determined that the patient needs rapid sequence induction after pre-oxygenation. What is the best position for the patient to be in during pre-oxygenation?
Your Answer: Supine
Correct Answer: 20-30 degrees head up tilt
Explanation:Several studies have shown that elevating the head by 20-30 degrees is beneficial for increasing oxygen levels compared to lying flat on the back.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 52 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening chest pain associated with shortness of breath and dizziness over the past 24 hours. You note the patient has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination you note decreased breath sounds on the left side and dullness to percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
Pulse 92 bpm
Respiration rate 20 bpm
Temperature 37.2ºC
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a condition where bacteria infect the fluid in the abdomen, known as ascites. It is commonly seen in patients with ascites. Symptoms of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and mental confusion. To diagnose SBP, a procedure called paracentesis is done to analyze the fluid in the abdomen. If the neutrophil count in the fluid is higher than 250 cells/mm³, it confirms the diagnosis of SBP, regardless of whether bacteria are found in the culture. The initial treatment for acute community-acquired SBP is usually a 3rd generation cephalosporin antibiotic like cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. However, hospital-acquired SBP may require different antibiotics based on local resistance patterns. Patients who have had SBP in the past are at a high risk of recurrence and may need long-term antibiotic prophylaxis.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their left upper limb, resulting in a peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, the patient presents with clawing of their hand, with hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers. However, their wrist flexion remains normal. Sensory loss is observed over the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers, while sensation in the rest of the hand and forearm, including the palm and dorsal aspect of all fingers, is normal. Additionally, Froment's sign is positive.
Which specific nerve has been affected in this case?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the wrist
Explanation:The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.
In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.
When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.
The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes in with a cough, chest discomfort, and difficulty breathing. After conducting a clinical evaluation, you determine that he has community-acquired pneumonia. He has no significant medical history and no reported drug allergies.
What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). The most common cause of CAP in an adult patient who is otherwise in good health is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
When it comes to treating community-acquired pneumonia, the first-line antibiotic of choice is amoxicillin. According to the NICE guidelines, patients who are allergic to penicillin should be prescribed a macrolide (such as clarithromycin) or a tetracycline (such as doxycycline).
For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the diagnosis and management of pneumonia in adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of chronic heartburn, difficulty swallowing, and occasional food blockage. She was recently given a short course of omeprazole but has not experienced any improvement in her symptoms. Her medical history includes asthma and seasonal allergies, for which she uses a salbutamol inhaler and steroid creams. She has not noticed any weight loss, has not experienced any episodes of vomiting blood, and overall feels healthy.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus
Correct Answer: Eosinophilic oesophagitis
Explanation:Eosinophilic oesophagitis (EoE), also known as allergic inflammatory condition of the oesophagus, is characterized by the presence of eosinophils. It was identified as a clinical condition about two decades ago but has gained recognition more recently. EoE is most commonly observed in middle-aged individuals, with an average age of diagnosis ranging from 30 to 50 years. It is more prevalent in men, with a male-to-female ratio of 3:1. Allergic conditions, particularly atopy, are often associated with EoE.
The clinical manifestations of EoE vary depending on the age of the patient. In adults, common symptoms include dysphagia, food bolus obstruction, heartburn, and chest pain. On the other hand, children with EoE may present with failure to thrive, food refusal, difficulty feeding, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
To diagnose EoE, it is crucial to consider the possibility of this condition in patients who have persistent heartburn and/or difficulty swallowing, especially if they have a history of allergies or atopic disease. Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying more than 15 eosinophils per high-power field on an oesophageal biopsy. Allergy testing is not effective as EoE is not mediated by IgE.
There are three main management options for EoE, all of which are considered first-line treatments. The first option is proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which are effective in approximately one-third of patients. If an endoscopic biopsy confirms the presence of eosinophils, an 8-week trial of PPIs can be initiated. After the trial, a repeat endoscopy and biopsy should be performed to assess for persistent eosinophils. Patients who respond to PPIs are diagnosed with PPI responsive oesophageal eosinophilia, while those who do not respond are diagnosed with true eosinophilic oesophagitis.
The second management option is dietary manipulation, which can be effective in both children and adults. It can be used as an initial treatment or in combination with pharmacological therapy. The six most commonly implicated food groups in EoE are cow’s milk, wheat, egg, soy, peanut/tree nut, and fish/shellfish. There are four main approaches to dietary manipulation: elemental diet, six food elimination diet (SFED), four food elimination diet (FFED),
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department by a family member with a 2 day history of nausea and vomiting. On initial assessment the patient appears disoriented. Observations reveal the patient to have a heart rate of 140 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. You contemplate the possibility of Addison's disease. What is the primary cause of Addison's disease in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:Addison’s disease is primarily caused by tuberculosis, making it the most prevalent factor worldwide.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of overall muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover a previous diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following statements about primary hyperaldosteronism is correct?
Your Answer: Hypertension is usually resistant to drug treatment
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where hypertension is often difficult to control with antihypertensive medication. The most common electrolyte disturbance seen in this condition is hypokalaemia. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the preferred test is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR), followed by imaging to identify the underlying cause. It is important to note that renal artery stenosis is a common cause of secondary hyperaldosteronism.
Further Reading:
Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.
The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.
Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.
Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.
Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with sharp pain during bowel movements. The pain usually continues for an additional 30-60 minutes afterward. She has also observed spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping. She has been experiencing constipation for the past few weeks.
What is the MOST suitable initial treatment option for this situation?Your Answer: Topical diltiazem
Explanation:An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline, and they are often caused by the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.
Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last for up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.
The initial management approach for an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)
Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for cases where the fissure does not heal with conservative measures. It has a success rate of 90%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 15
Correct
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You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
What complication has developed?Your Answer: Cerebral oedema
Explanation:Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.
If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.
In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with a known history of generalized anxiety disorder presents hyperventilating. You suspect that she is experiencing a panic attack. She was seen by a resident physician shortly before your assessment, and an arterial blood gas was taken.
What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate being caused by hyperventilation secondary to anxiety?Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 25-year-old arrives at the emergency department after being involved in a car accident. A FAST scan is conducted to assess for abdominal injuries caused by blunt trauma. Which of the following is NOT among the four standard views obtained during a FAST scan?
Your Answer: Umbilical view
Explanation:FAST scans consist of four standard views that are obtained to assess different areas of the body. These views include the right upper quadrant (RUQ), left upper quadrant (LUQ), pericardial sac, and the pelvis.
In the RUQ view, the focus is on the right flank or peri-hepatic area, which includes Morison’s pouch and the right costophrenic pleural recess.
The LUQ view examines the left flank or peri-splenic area, which includes the spleen-renal recess and the left costophrenic pleural space.
The pericardial sac is also assessed to evaluate any abnormalities in this area.
Lastly, the pelvis is examined in two planes to ensure a comprehensive evaluation.
In addition to these four standard views, an anterior pleural view is often performed alongside the others. This view used to be part of the extended FAST (eFAST) scan but is now commonly included routinely.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her last Microgynon 30 pill and it has been 48 hours since her last dose. She has been taking the rest of the pills in the packet consistently. She had unprotected sex last night and wants to know the best course of action.
What is the MOST suitable advice to provide her?Your Answer: She should take the most recent missed pill, the remaining pills should be continued at the usual time, but no emergency contraception is required
Explanation:If you have missed one pill, which means it has been 48-72 hours since you took the last pill in your current packet or you started the first pill in a new packet 24-48 hours late, you need to take the missed pill as soon as you remember. Make sure to continue taking the remaining pills at your usual time. Emergency contraception is generally not necessary in this situation, but it may be worth considering if you have missed pills earlier in the packet or during the last week of the previous packet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury after being attacked with a baseball bat. There are indications that the patient may be experiencing elevated intracranial pressure. In a person with normal physiological conditions, what percentage of the intracranial volume is typically occupied by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:The intracranial volume refers to the total space inside the skull. The main component of this volume is the brain parenchyma or neural tissue, which makes up the majority of the intracranial volume.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is being treated for a urinary tract infection comes back after 48 hours because her symptoms have not improved. Regrettably, the lab has not yet provided the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent. Her blood tests today indicate that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking trimethoprim 200 PO BD for the past two days.
What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.
If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
– Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose*The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with a range of neurological symptoms. He has been experiencing painless double vision over the past day and is becoming worried. Approximately six months ago, he also recalled a two-week period where he had no feeling in his right arm. When directly asked, he also confesses to feeling tired and quite depressed.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Multiple sclerosis is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease mediated by cells and is caused by recurring inflammation. Typically, it presents in early adulthood, with a female to male ratio of 3:2.
There are several risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis, including being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk tends to be higher), having a family history of the disease (with 20% of MS patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.
There are three main patterns of multiple sclerosis. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, which is characterized by periods of no symptoms followed by relapses (this is seen in 80% of patients at the time of diagnosis). Another pattern is primary progressive MS, where symptoms develop and worsen from the beginning with few remissions (seen in 10-15% of patients at diagnosis). Lastly, there is secondary progressive MS, which occurs after relapsing/remitting MS. In this pattern, symptoms worsen with fewer remissions, and approximately 50% of those with relapsing/remitting MS will develop this within 10 years of diagnosis.
The key to diagnosing MS lies in the history of neurological symptoms that are discrete in time and location of the affected body. Patients often experience fatigue and low mood, particularly during a relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with difficulty breathing and coughing up blood after a recent trip from Australia. You suspect she may have a pulmonary embolism (PE).
Which of the following statements is true about the two-level PE Wells score?Your Answer: Clinical symptoms and signs of a DVT scores 3 points
Explanation:The two-level PE Wells score has been simplified to determine the likelihood of a pulmonary embolism (PE) into two outcomes: likely or unlikely. A score of over 4 indicates that a PE is likely, while a score of 4 points or less indicates that a PE is unlikely.
The allocation of points is as follows:
– Clinical symptoms and signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) = 3 points
– An alternative diagnosis that is less likely than a PE = 3 points
– Heart rate greater than 100 = 1.5 points
– Immobilization for more than 3 days or recent surgery within 4 weeks = 1.5 points
– Previous history of DVT or PE = 1.5 points
– Presence of haemoptysis = 1 point
– Malignancy (currently on treatment, treated in the last 6 months, or palliative care) = 1 point. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Correct
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A 40-year-old patient with asthma comes to the Emergency Department for an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing their medications, you find out that they are taking theophylline as part of their asthma treatment.
Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450 enzymes, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the blood. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid prescribing ciprofloxacin and theophylline together. For more information on the interactions between these two medications, you can refer to the relevant section on theophylline interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 24
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman presents with worsening abdominal distension and discomfort. During the examination, she exhibits significant dependent edema and an elevated JVP. Cardiac auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur. The abdomen is distended and tender, with the presence of shifting dullness.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Tricuspid regurgitation is commonly caused by right ventricular dilatation, often as a result of heart failure. Other factors that can contribute to this condition include right ventricular infarction and cor pulmonale. The clinical signs of right-sided heart failure are frequently observed, such as an elevated jugular venous pressure, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
The murmur associated with tricuspid regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur that is most audible at the tricuspid area during inspiration. A thrill may also be felt at the left sternal edge. Reverse splitting of the second heart sound can occur due to the early closure of the pulmonary valve. Additionally, a third heart sound may be present due to rapid filling of the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 15 minutes before her arrival. On arrival, she is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. She is known to be homeless and has a long history of alcohol abuse. The paramedics administered a single dose of rectal diazepam on the way, approximately 12 minutes ago. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 110, BP 100/60, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 37.2°C.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?Your Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In this particular patient’s case, his history of chronic alcohol abuse, homelessness, and likely impaired nutrition necessitates the administration of intravenous thiamine in the form of Pabrinex. Additionally, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given, and his blood glucose levels should be urgently checked.
The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:
1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
– Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
– Administer oxygen
– Assess cardiorespiratory function
– Establish intravenous access2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
– Implement regular monitoring
– Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
– Initiate emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
– Perform emergency investigations
– Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
– Treat severe acidosis if present3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
– Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
– Notify the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
– Identify and treat any medical complications
– Consider pressor therapy when appropriate4th stage (30-90 minutes):
– Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
– Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
– Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
– Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapyEmergency investigations include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium levels, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.
Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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You are managing a 65 year old male who has presented to the emergency department with a 3 hour history of epistaxis. On examination there is significant bleeding from both nostrils and you are unable to identify a bleeding point. Your consultant asks if you are concerned about a posterior bleed.
Posterior epistaxis is most commonly associated with bleeding from which of the following?Your Answer: Sphenopalatine artery
Explanation:Posterior epistaxis, which is bleeding from the back of the nose, is typically caused by bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery or its branches. The most common surgical treatment for posterior epistaxis involves tying off the sphenopalatine artery. It is important to note that there is some disagreement in the literature regarding the exact location of the bleeding, with some sources referring to Woodruff’s plexus. However, cadaveric studies suggest that Woodruff’s plexus is more likely a venous anastomosis rather than an arterial one involving branches of the sphenopalatine artery.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a growing area of redness that has been spreading from a mosquito bite for the past two days. Upon examination, you observe slightly tender redness on the right lower limb, which feels warm and mildly painful to touch. The patient does not have a fever, and vital signs are within normal range.
You determine that the patient has mild cellulitis. What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Discharge with oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Flucloxacillin is recommended as the initial treatment for mild cellulitis, according to NICE guidelines. The recommended dosage for flucloxacillin is 500-1000 mg taken four times a day for a period of 5-7 days. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin or if flucloxacillin is not suitable for them, alternative medications such as clarithromycin, doxycycline, or erythromycin can be used as second-line options. It is important to note that for cellulitis near the eyes, co-amoxiclav is advised as the first-line treatment, while for cellulitis in patients with lymphedema who do not require hospital admission, amoxicillin is recommended as the first-line treatment.
Further Reading:
Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.
The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.
According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.
Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with walking, and bladder control problems. After a thorough evaluation and tests, a diagnosis of normal-pressure hydrocephalus is made.
What is the most common underlying factor leading to NPH?Your Answer: Idiopathic – no cause found
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through a lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.
Around 50% of NPH cases are considered idiopathic, meaning there is no identifiable cause. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.
The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.
Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence, including CT and MRI scans that reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture may also be performed, with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) typically appearing normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.
NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures can provide temporary relief. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure has shown lasting clinical benefits in 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 29
Correct
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Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with suspected breast cancer. The test will use estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).
How long after tumor formation do ER levels start to increase?Your Answer: 1.5 hours
Explanation:The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with a long history of frequent urination and difficulty emptying her bladder completely presents with a high fever, shivering, and body aches. She is experiencing pain in her pelvic area and has recently developed painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, her prostate is extremely tender. Due to a previous adverse reaction, he has been advised against taking quinolone antibiotics.
According to NICE, which of the following antibiotics is recommended as the first-line treatment for this patient's diagnosis?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.
The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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