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Question 1
Correct
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Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems?
Your Answer: The reservoir bag can limit the pressure in the breathing system to about 40 cm of water
Explanation:Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.
A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).
The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).
The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.
This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:
Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 2
Correct
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A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment. Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?
Your Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles
Explanation:Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.
Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.
Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.
Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage.
Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams.
The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury.
Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions.
Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Correct
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Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?
Your Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred
Explanation:Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.
At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.
Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.
The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure?
Your Answer: 4 bar for oxygen
Explanation:Pipeline gases (in the UK this includes: Oxygen, Nitrous oxide, Medical air, and Entonox) are supplied at 4 bar (or 400 kPa), and compressed air is supplied at 7 bar for power tools.
Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide are usually only supplied in cylinders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Correct
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When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?
Your Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry
Explanation:Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 6
Correct
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Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency. For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?
Your Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts
Explanation:The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.
These are the following:
ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 7
Correct
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All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except:
Your Answer: A semi-permeable membrane reduces protein contamination
Explanation:Pulse oximeters combine the principles of oximetry and plethysmography to noninvasively measure oxygen saturation in arterial blood. A sensor containing two or three light emitting diodes and a photodiode is placed across a perfused body part, commonly a finger, to be transilluminated. Oximetry depends on oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, and their ability to absorb the beams of light produced by the light emitting diodes: red light at 660 nm and infrared light at 960 nm.
The isosbestic point is the point wherein two different substances absorb light to the same extent. For oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, the points are at 590 nm and 805 nm. These are considered reference points where light absorption is independent of the degree of saturation.
Non-constant absorption of light is often due to the presence of an arterial pulsation, whilst constant absorption of light is seen in non-pulsatile tissues.
Most pulse oximeters are inaccurate at low SpO2, but is accurate at +/- 2% within the range of 70% to 100% SpO2. All pulse oximeters demonstrate a delay in between changes in SaO2 and SpO2, and display average readings every 10 to 20 seconds, hence they are unable to detect acute desaturation episodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 8
Correct
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement. Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?
Your Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 9
Correct
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International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder. Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?
Your Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A current flows through a simple electric circuit. Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?
Your Answer: Two 5 farad capacitors in series charged to 100 coulomb
Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation:According to the Ohm’s law, the potential difference is defined as
V(potential difference) = I(current) x (R) resistance
So, for one resistor of 5 ohms, a 10 ampere current will generate:
V = I x R
V = 10 x 5
V = 50 voltsThe formula for resistors in series can be defined as:
R(total) = R1+R2
Hence, when a current of 10 amperes passes through two 5 ohms resistors that are connected in series, the potential difference is:
V = I x (R1+R2)
V = 10 x (5+5)
V = 10 x 10
V = 100 voltsThe formula for resistors that are connected in a parallel circuit is:
1/ Rtotal = 1/R1 + 1/R2
Hence, when a current of 10 amperes passes through two 5 Ω resistors that are connected in a parallel circuit, the potential difference is:
Rtotal = R1 × R2/ R1 + R2
Rtotal = 25/10
Rtotal = 2.5
V = I x R
V = 10 x (R1xR2 / R1 + R2)
V = 10 x (25/10)
V = 10 x 2.5
V = 25 voltsCapacitors are electronic components that have the ability to store energy and charge (Q). The derived SI unit of capacitance (C) is the farad (F), which is equivalent to one coulomb per volt (V). The typical capacitors usually have a very small capacitance range, that ranges from pico to microfarads. On the contrary, supercapacitors can have a capacitance of up to 1-5000 F.
There are a number of factors that eventually determine the capacitance (C). They are as follows:
– Larger plate area (A)
– Closer plate spacing (d)
– Permittivity (ε) of the material (dielectric) between the plates (vacuum<<<glass), – C = ε × A/dThe units of stored charge are coulombs (Q), which is equal to the pathway of one ampere of current per second.
Stored charge, capacitance and voltage can be defined by the following equation:V (potential difference across capacitor) = Q(charge) / C (capacitance)
In a parallel circuit, the formula of capacitors is:
Ctotal = C1 + C2
Hence, two 5 farad capacitors in a parallel circuit arrangement with a charge of 100 coulomb and capacitance 10 F will give a potential difference of::
V = 100/10
V = 10 voltsIn a series circuit, the formula for capacitors is:
1/Ctotal = 1/C1 + 1/C2
Hence, two 5 farad capacitors with a charge of 100 coulomb will give:
Ctotal = C1 × C2/C1 + C2
In the example total capacitance = 25/10 = 2.5 F
V = 100/2.5
V = 40 volts. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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