00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with suspected renal colic. An ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with suspected renal colic. An ultrasound reveals a possible stone in the right ureter. What would be the most suitable course of action for imaging?

      Your Answer: Plain radiography KUB

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT (NCCT)

      Explanation:

      According to the 2015 BAUS guidelines, NCCT is recommended for confirming stone diagnosis in patients experiencing acute flank pain, as it is more effective than IVU, following the initial US assessment.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A man is having his preoperative assessment for a hernia repair. His body...

    Incorrect

    • A man is having his preoperative assessment for a hernia repair. His body mass index (BMI) is calculated at 38.
      Which definition correctly describes his BMI value?

      Your Answer: Morbid obesity/obese class 3

      Correct Answer: Obese class 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding BMI Categories and Their Impact on Surgery

      Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. BMI categories range from underweight to obese class 3. An individual with a BMI of 35-39.99 is considered obese class 2. Those who fall under this category are at a higher risk of anesthesia and post-operative complications. It is important to understand the different BMI categories and their impact on surgery to ensure a safe and successful procedure. A normal BMI is between 18.5 and 24.99, overweight is between 25 and 29.99, obese class 1 is between 30 and 34.99, and morbid obesity/obese class 3 is a BMI of 40 or over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having been admitted multiple times in the past six months for the same issue. His admission blood work reveals the following:
      Na+ 143 mmol/l Bilirubin 8 ”mol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
      Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
      Creatinine 88 ”mol/l γGT 33 u/l
      Amylase 103 u/l Albumin 49 g/l
      The medical team suspects chronic pancreatitis. Which imaging modality would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT pancreas with intravenous contrast

      Explanation:

      The preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis is a CT scan of the pancreas, which uses intravenous contrast to detect pancreatic calcification. This is because calcification may not be visible on plain abdominal X-rays, which are less sensitive. While a CT scan of the abdomen may also detect calcifications, it is less clear for the pancreas than a pancreatic protocol CT. MRI and ultrasound are not effective for imaging a non-inflamed pancreas, and MRI is particularly poor at detecting calcification as it relies on fluid in the imaged tissues, which calcified tissue lacks.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past few days. He notices a small amount of fresh, bright-red blood on the toilet paper. He has been having one or two bowel movements per day, which is normal for him, but lately, he has been experiencing hard stools. He is concerned about the pain he will feel during his next bowel movement. He has no other symptoms, fever, or recent weight loss. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. The doctor diagnoses him with an anal fissure. What would be an appropriate management option at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulk-forming laxatives

      Explanation:

      When someone has an anal fissure, they typically experience painful rectal bleeding that appears bright red. The recommended course of action in this case would be to use bulk-forming laxatives and provide dietary guidance on consuming more fluids and fiber. These conservative methods are usually sufficient for treating most cases of acute anal fissures. Additionally, topical analgesics and anesthetics may be utilized.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - This 30-year-old man underwent a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer 3 years...

    Incorrect

    • This 30-year-old man underwent a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer 3 years ago. The scar that resulted is depicted in the image. What is the most commonly acknowledged factor in the formation of this anomaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Race

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keloid Scars: Causes and Risk Factors

      Keloid scars are a type of abnormal scar tissue that grows beyond the original margins of a wound and does not regress. They are more common in individuals with highly pigmented skin, with a frequency 15 times higher than in those with less pigmented skin. Keloids tend to occur in individuals aged 10-30 years and are more likely to form in areas such as the upper chest, shoulders, sternum, and earlobes. Wounds that are under tension while healing or get infected, burns, and acne scars are also more likely to result in keloid formation. While there is some evidence of a genetic predisposition to keloid formation, race is a stronger risk factor. Keloids affect both sexes equally, but young women may be more susceptible due to the higher frequency of earlobe piercing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a wide-local excision and subsequently undergoes whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is negative for HER2 but positive for oestrogen receptor. She has a medical history of hypertension and premature ovarian failure. What adjuvant treatment is she expected to receive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anastrozole

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole is the correct adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer. This is because the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors and negative for HER2 receptors, and aromatase inhibitors are the preferred treatment for postmenopausal women due to the majority of oestrogen production being through aromatisation. Goserelin is used for ovarian suppression in premenopausal women, while Herceptin is used for HER2 positive tumours. Imatinib is not used in breast cancer management.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old male is stabbed outside a bar, he presents with brisk haemoptysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is stabbed outside a bar, he presents with brisk haemoptysis and a left chest drain is inserted in the ED which drained 750ml frank blood. Despite receiving 4 units of blood, his condition does not improve. His CVP is now 13. What is the most appropriate definitive management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracotomy in theatre

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from cardiac tamponade, as evidenced by the elevated CVP and hemodynamic instability. The urgent and definitive treatment for this condition is an emergency thoracotomy, ideally performed in a surgical theater using a clam shell approach for optimal access. While pericardiocentesis may be considered in cases where surgery is delayed, it is not a commonly used option.

      Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment

      Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.

      Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that has been bothering him for the past 5 hours. During examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm, temperature is 38.5ÂșC, and he displays signs of jaundice. What is the probable causative organism for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are on duty in the neurosurgical unit overnight. A patient in his...

    Incorrect

    • You are on duty in the neurosurgical unit overnight. A patient in his sixties was admitted with an intracerebral hemorrhage, which was found to have extended into the ventricles on CT scan. The patient has been stable throughout the day, but a nurse contacts you to report a decrease in the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score. While previously 15, the patient is now only able to localize to pain. What is the probable cause of this change in symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Intraventricular haemorrhages often lead to hydrocephalus, which is a frequent complication. Treatment typically involves the use of an external ventricular drain. While the expansion of the haematoma can cause midline shift, it is not as common as hydrocephalus. Reduced responsiveness is not a symptom of hyponatraemia, which can occur with various cerebral injuries. Vasospasm is only observed in patients with subarachnoid haemorrhages.

      Understanding Hydrocephalus

      Hydrocephalus is a medical condition characterized by an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricular system of the brain. This is caused by an imbalance between the production and absorption of CSF. Patients with hydrocephalus experience symptoms due to increased intracranial pressure, such as headaches, nausea, vomiting, and papilloedema. In severe cases, it can lead to coma. Infants with hydrocephalus have an increase in head circumference, and their anterior fontanelle bulges and becomes tense. Failure of upward gaze is also common in children with severe hydrocephalus.

      Hydrocephalus can be classified into two categories: obstructive and non-obstructive. Obstructive hydrocephalus is caused by a structural pathology that blocks the flow of CSF, while non-obstructive hydrocephalus is due to an imbalance of CSF production and absorption. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a unique form of non-obstructive hydrocephalus characterized by large ventricles but normal intracranial pressure. The classic triad of symptoms is dementia, incontinence, and disturbed gait.

      To diagnose hydrocephalus, a CT head is used as a first-line imaging investigation. MRI may be used to investigate hydrocephalus in more detail, particularly if there is a suspected underlying lesion. Lumbar puncture is both diagnostic and therapeutic since it allows you to sample CSF, measure the opening pressure, and drain CSF to reduce the pressure. Treatment for hydrocephalus involves an external ventricular drain (EVD) in acute, severe cases, and a ventriculoperitoneal shunt (VPS) for long-term CSF diversion. In obstructive hydrocephalus, the treatment may involve surgically treating the obstructing pathology. It is important to note that lumbar puncture must not be used in obstructive hydrocephalus since it can cause brain herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining of severe pain and discoloration in his right leg. He reports feeling pins and needles in the same leg, and the pain is present even when he is at rest. Upon examination, you notice that his right foot is pale, cold, and painful to the touch. You cannot feel any palpable pedal pulses. The patient has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus, and is a current smoker. What initial investigation should be performed to aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bedside handheld doppler

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, such as pain, pallor, pulselessness, a perishingly cold limb, paresthesia, and paralysis, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be the first-line investigation. This quick and easy test can be performed at the bedside and can help diagnose acute limb ischaemia by detecting an absent or reduced signal. Other investigations, such as ABPI, CT angiogram, and invasive angiography, may not be as readily available or appropriate for immediate use in an emergency situation. While ABPI is useful for assessing peripheral arterial perfusion in chronic peripheral arterial disease, it does not identify the site of arterial occlusion in acute limb ischaemia. CT angiogram and invasive angiography may be necessary to provide more detailed imaging and locate the arterial occlusion, but they are not the first-line investigation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (0/2) 0%
Passmed