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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?
Your Answer: FEV1 and FVC measurements
Correct Answer: ANCA
Explanation:Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing while running to the bus. Symptoms disappeared after resting. But the symptoms reappeared whilst he was climbing the stairs. On examination he was not dyspnoeic at rest. BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. His heart sounds were normal. There was an additional clicking noise in the fourth left intercostal space which is heard with each heart beat. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his presentation?
Your Answer: Acute pericarditis
Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:The given history is more compatible with spontaneous pneumothorax. Left-sided pneumothoraxes may be associated with a clicking noise, which is heard with each heart-beat and can sometimes be heard by the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism. On examination his BP was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His CXR was normal. He was treated with low molecular weight heparin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial lung investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Pulmonary angiography
Correct Answer: Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography
Explanation:Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the standard investigative tool, used for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary angiography is indicated if CTPA is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?
Your Answer: Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase II
Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V
Explanation:Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.
It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:
It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:
Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.
It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: May be cause of haemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption
Explanation:Giardiasis also known as travellers diarrhoea is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is an anaerobic parasite affecting the small intestine. It can lead to diarrhoea, flatulence, abdominal cramps, malodourous greasy stools and intestinal malabsorption. It can also cause bloody diarrhoea. The investigation of choice is stool examination for trophozoites and cysts. It is treated by metronidazole and tinidazole as first line therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35 year old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Eczema
Explanation:The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Non-dysjunction
Explanation:Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is the leading cause of Down syndrome. Two risk factors for maternal nondisjunction of chromosome 21 are increased maternal age and altered recombination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing survival in patients with COPD?
Your Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention in stopping the progression of COPD, as well as increasing survival and reducing morbidity. This is why smoking cessation should be the top priority in the treatment of COPD. Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may increase survival in hypoxic patients. The rest of the options dilate airways, reduce inflammation and thereby improve symptoms but do not necessarily increase survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old fashion designer presents to his GP complaining of pain in his right eye. On examination the sclera is red and the pupil is dilated with a hazy cornea. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:There are many possible causes of a red eye. It is important to be able to recognise the causes which require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Acute angle closure glaucoma presents with severe pain, decreased visual acuity, patient seeing haloes, semi-dilated pupils, and hazy cornea. Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset pain, blurred vision and photophobia, with small, fixed oval pupils and ciliary flush.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Infliximab
Explanation:Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She also complains of loss of appetite for the past four months. Her admission CXR shows right-sided pleural effusion. An underlying malignancy is suspected and a series of tumour markers are requested, the results of which are: CA 19-9: 36 IU/mL (<40), CA 125: 654 IU/ml (<30), CA 15-3: 9 IU/ml (<40). What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer
Correct Answer: Ovarian fibroma
Explanation:The patient has Meigs syndrome. Meigs syndrome is defined as a triad of benign ovarian tumour with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumour. Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumours seen in Meigs syndrome.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production
Explanation:The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.
Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
– Shortness of breath
– Cough
– Bone pain
– Weight loss
– Fatigue
– Neurologic dysfunction
Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed: Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/L, Na+: 136 mmol/L, K+: 4.6 mmol/L, Urea: 8.1 mmol/L, Creatinine: 99 µmol/L, Bicarbonate: 18 mmol/L, What is the most appropriate management for the patient?
Your Answer: Arrange haemodialysis
Explanation:The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.
ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.
Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:
Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.
The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:
Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)
Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.
Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.
The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:
• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L
• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels
• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hours
As post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with recurrent fever and arthralgia which is accompanied by a rash on face and upper chest. These attacks have been refractory to treatment and have occurred recurrently requiring adrenaline on several occasions. Lab results reveal persistently reduced C4 levels. Which of the following is most likely causing his current symptoms?
Your Answer: Viral illness
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Angioedema secondary to C1 inhibitor deficiency has been rarely reported to be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. A genetic defect of C1 inhibitor produces hereditary angioedema, which is usually presented with cutaneous painless oedema, but oedema of the genital area, gastrointestinal and laryngeal tracts have also been reported. In lupus patients, angioedema may be the result of an acquired type of C1 inhibitor deficiency, most probably due to antibody formation directed against the C1 inhibitor molecule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is caused by vitamin D?
Your Answer: Decreased renal tubular absorption of calcium
Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate
Explanation:Intestinal phosphate absorption is mediated by both transcellular and paracellular routes. The 1,25(OH)2D increases intestinal transcellular phosphate absorption at least in part by enhancing expression of type 2b sodium–phosphate cotransporter, thus increasing plasma phosphate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain. Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation. Other investigations show: Blood glucose: 35 mmol/L, Na+: 132 mmol/L, K+: 5.5 mmol/L, urea: 8.0 mmol/L, creatinine: 120 μmol/L, pH: 7.15, HCO3: 12 mmol/L, p(CO2): 4.6 kPa, chloride: 106 mmol/l. Urinary ketones are positive (+++). The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?
Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Heliotrope rash around external auditory meatus
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below: (Anatomical site vs Oxygen saturation (%)vs Pressure (mmHg)) Superior vena cava: 73 ,–. Right atrium: 71, 6. Right ventricle: 72, –. Pulmonary artery: 86, 53/13. PCWP: –, 15. Left ventricle: 97, 111/10. Aorta: 96, 128/61. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery is higher than that of the right ventricle. The pressure of the pulmonary artery and of the PCWP are also high. So patent ductus arteriosus is highly suggestive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following features is the most characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer: It commonly involves the kidneys
Correct Answer: It may occur with chlorpromazine
Explanation:Drug induced lupus is usually positive for antinuclear and antihistone antibodies, typically without renal or neurologic involvement. However, pulmonary involvement is common. Drugs that can induce lupus include isoniazid, hydralazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, and other anticonvulsants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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