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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision. His breathing is irregular. Upon examination, he has multiple rib fractures, including 2 fractures in the 3rd rib and 3 fractures in the 4th rib. What is the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Simple rib fractures
Correct Answer: Flail chest injury
Explanation:A flail chest is identified when an individual has multiple rib fractures, with at least two fractures in more than two ribs. This condition is often accompanied by pulmonary contusion.
Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment
Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.
Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.
Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What condition increases the likelihood of developing colon cancer?
Your Answer: Diverticular disease
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Factors that Increase the Risk of Colonic Cancer
Several factors can increase the risk of developing colonic cancer. These include a high-fat, low-fibre diet, being over the age of 50, having a personal history of colorectal adenoma or carcinoma (which increases the risk three-fold), having a first-degree relative with colorectal cancer (also three-fold risk), and having certain genetic conditions such as familial polyposis coli, Gardner syndrome, Turcot syndrome, Juvenile polyposis syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, or hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.
In addition, individuals with ulcerative colitis have a 30% risk of developing colonic cancer after 25 years, while those with Crohn’s disease have a four- to 10-fold increased risk. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to undergo regular screenings for colonic cancer, especially if any of these factors apply to you. By catching the cancer early, it is more likely to be treatable and curable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening abdominal pain over the past two days. The pain started in the lower left side of his abdomen and he has been experiencing diarrhoea. He has a medical history of hypertension, chronic kidney disease, and diverticular disease. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, temperature is 38.5ÂșC, and oxygen saturation is 96% on air. His abdomen is tender throughout with involuntary guarding and rebound tenderness. Blood tests reveal the following results:
Hb 140 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 9 ”mol/l
Platelets 730 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 70 u/l
WBC 18.9 * 109/l Urea 6.3 mmol/l ALT 36 u/l
Neuts 16.1 * 109/l Creatinine 115 ”mol/l γGT 57 u/l
Lymphs 2.0 * 109/l Amylase 8 u/l Albumin 35 g/l
Which diagnostic test would be most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Correct Answer: Erect chest x-ray
Explanation:To detect bowel perforation, an erect chest x-ray is commonly used. This is particularly useful in cases of suspected perforated diverticulitis, as it can reveal the presence of pneumoperitoneum (air under the diaphragm). A supine chest x-ray is not as effective in detecting this. While an abdominal x-ray can also suggest pneumoperitoneum, it is less sensitive than an erect chest x-ray. An intravenous urogram is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not align with those of ureteric colic, which is the most likely diagnosis. Ultrasound may also reveal air in the abdominal cavity, but its accuracy and image quality can vary greatly, making it a less optimal choice.
An erect chest x-ray is a useful tool for diagnosing an acute abdomen, as it can reveal the presence of free air in the abdomen, also known as pneumoperitoneum. This abnormal finding is indicative of a perforated abdominal viscus, such as a perforated duodenal ulcer. On an abdominal film, Rigler’s sign, also known as the double wall sign, may be visible. However, CT scans are now the preferred method for detecting free air in the abdomen.
The image used on license from Radiopaedia shows an erect chest x-ray with air visible under the diaphragm on both sides. Another image from Radiopaedia demonstrates an abdominal x-ray with numerous loops of small bowel outlined by gas, both within the lumen and free within the peritoneal cavity. Ascites, or fluid in the abdomen, is also visible, with mottled gas densities over bilateral paracolic gutters. In a normal x-ray, only the luminal surface should be visible outlined by gas, while the serosal surface should not be visible as it is normally in contact with other intra-abdominal content of similar density. However, in this case, gas abuts the serosal surface, making it visible. As this film was obtained supine, ascites pools in the paracolic gutters, with fluid mixed in with gas bubbles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are an FY1 doctor working in colorectal surgery. You are looking after a patient following an lower anterior resection of the patients rectum with a defunctioning loop ileostomy to remove a large adenocarcinoma in the proximal third of the rectum. The patient is now 65 years old and is nearly ready for discharge. Your consultant says they will review the patient in three weeks following discharge. They would like you to organise an investigation in two weeks time to ensure that the anastomosis performed to join the colon to the remaining portion of rectum has healed and is not leaking, prior to reversing the ileostomy. Please choose the most appropriate investigation from the options below.
MRI
11%
Transrectal ultrasound scan
6%
Gastrografin enema
30%
CT colon
25%
Barium enema
28%
A gastrografin enema involves passing a water soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum, then taking radiographs to assess the rectum. If there are any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid should show up as free fluid in the abdomen. As this is a possibility gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less toxic if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.Your Answer: CT colon
Correct Answer: Gastrografin enema
Explanation:To evaluate the rectum, a gastrografin enema is performed by administering a water-soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum and taking X-rays. In case of any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid will appear as free fluid in the abdomen. Gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less harmful if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in her right medial thigh that has been bothering her for the past week. She reports no alterations in her bowel movements. During the physical examination, you observe a lump the size of a grape located below and to the right of the pubic tubercle, which is challenging to reduce. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inguinal hernia
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that has been bothering him for the past 5 hours. During examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm, temperature is 38.5ÂșC, and he displays signs of jaundice. What is the probable causative organism for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: E. coli
Explanation:Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in sustaining an erection. He had a heart attack 4 years ago and has been experiencing depression since then. Additionally, he has a history of uncontrolled high blood pressure. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is often caused by beta-blockers, including bisoprolol, which is likely to be taken by someone who has had a previous MI. While amlodipine can also cause ED, it is less common than bisoprolol and is often prescribed for poorly controlled hypertension. Isosorbide mononitrate does not cause ED, but patients taking it should avoid taking sildenafil at the same time due to the risk of hypotension. Mirtazapine is a rare cause of sexual dysfunction, and sertraline is typically the preferred antidepressant for post-MI patients.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing constipation lately and noticed blood in her stool this morning. She decided to see her GP and reported having constipation for almost two months with only one instance of blood in her stool. Her husband, who accompanied her, mentioned that she has lost a considerable amount of weight recently. The woman confirmed this and stated that she has not been intentionally trying to lose weight. The GP is alarmed and orders an urgent investigation. What is the most appropriate investigation to be ordered at this stage?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:This man has recently experienced constipation, weight loss, and one instance of blood in his stool. The most probable diagnosis for these symptoms is colorectal cancer (CRC), and further investigation should focus on confirming or ruling out CRC. According to NICE CG131 guidelines, patients without significant comorbidities should be offered a colonoscopy to diagnose CRC.
If the patient had upper GI symptoms such as dysphagia, dyspepsia, or epigastric pain, an upper GI endoscopy would be appropriate. A Faecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT) would have been suitable for screening purposes, as is currently done in the UK. An abdominal X-ray is not necessary as there is no evidence to suggest a likely diagnosis of bowel obstruction, infarction, or perforation that would require X-ray imaging.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is recovering on the ward, one day after a left-hemicolectomy for colorectal cancer. He complains of abdominal pain and nausea and has vomited 3 times in the last hour.
His heart rate is 105 bpm, blood pressure 100/83 mmHg, and temperature is 37.3ÂșC. There is abdominal distention with slight tenderness, his chest is clear, bowel sounds are absent, and there are no signs of wound infection or dehiscence. He has not opened his bowels or passed any wind since the operation.
Investigations are performed:
Na+ 130 mmol/L (135-145 mmol/L)
K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L)
CRP 145 mg/L (< 10 mg/L)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Large bowel obstruction
Correct Answer: Ileus
Explanation:The patient is likely experiencing postoperative ileus, which is a common complication following bowel surgery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting, as well as absent bowel sounds. This is caused by reduced peristalsis and deranged electrolytes, and management is usually supportive as it resolves on its own. Other potential differentials, such as post-operative nausea and vomiting, large bowel obstruction, and overuse of opiate pain relief, are less likely explanations for the patient’s presentation.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. He has a history of similar but less severe episodes in the past. The patient has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux, osteoarthritis, and COPD. He has a smoking history of 30 pack-years and drinks 40 units of alcohol per week. After stabilizing the patient using an ABCDE approach, investigations reveal moderately raised amylase, deranged liver function tests, and free air under the diaphragm on chest x-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peptic ulcer perforation
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease is more likely to occur in individuals who have a history of using NSAIDs and steroids. If there is suspicion of pancreatitis, it is important to rule out peptic ulcer perforation by conducting an erect chest x-ray to confirm the presence of free air under the diaphragm. The typical symptom of cholecystitis is a colicky pain that occurs after consuming fatty foods.
Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions
Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.
Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.
It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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