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Question 1
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A 32-year-old woman who has recently returned from holiday to Australia presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient has no medical history of note and takes no medication, apart from the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP).
On examination, the patient is significantly breathless at rest, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min. Oxygen saturations are 91% on high-flow oxygen; her blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm and regular. Her temperature is 37.5 °C.
On examination of the chest, breath sounds are normal, with good air entry. No focal signs are found.
Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available to confirm or rule out the presence of PE.
Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the most commonly used test for patients with a high clinical probability of PE or those with a positive D-dimer test. Chest X-ray may be helpful in excluding alternative diagnoses, but specific signs of PE are rarely found. Electrocardiogram (ECG) may show signs of right heart strain and tachycardia, but it is not the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis. D-dimer test is non-specific and less useful in patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE. Ventilation-perfusion scanning may be useful when CT scanning is not available or contraindicated, but CTPA remains the method of choice to confirm the diagnosis.
In summary, a combination of clinical assessment and appropriate diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose PE accurately and promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung
Explanation:Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung
Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.
Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 3
Correct
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At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed during bronchoscopy. Can you determine the vertebral level where this lesion is located?
Your Answer: T4/5
Explanation:The Vertebral Levels of the Trachea and Suprasternal Notch
The trachea is a flexible tube that starts at the C7 vertebral level in the lower neck and ends at the T4/5 vertebral level in the mediastinum. At this level, it splits into the right and left main bronchi, which can be seen during bronchoscopy at the carina. The suprasternal notch is located at the T2/3 vertebral level. None of the other choices provided are correct for the vertebral levels of the trachea and suprasternal notch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 4
Correct
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What is a true statement about coronary artery grafting for ischaemic heart disease?
Your Answer: It requires a preceding coronary angiography
Explanation:Myocardial Revascularization: Debunking Common Misconceptions
Myocardial revascularization, commonly known as coronary artery surgery, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this procedure that need to be addressed.
Contrary to popular belief, coronary angiography is a necessary pre-surgery investigation. This is because it helps the surgeon identify the location and severity of the blockages in the coronary arteries.
Another misconception is that the success of the surgery is limited to patients with less than two major coronary artery blockages. In fact, patients with three or four-vessel disease can benefit greatly from the procedure, as it provides relief from symptoms and reduces morbidity.
It is also not true that the surgery always requires cardiopulmonary bypass. Depending on the patient’s condition, the surgery may be performed on or off bypass.
Lastly, while it is true that the surgery does not necessarily prolong life, it does provide significant relief from symptoms and reduces mortality.
In terms of the grafts used during the surgery, the left internal mammary artery or the saphenous vein are typically used, rather than intercostal arteries.
In conclusion, it is important to dispel these misconceptions surrounding myocardial revascularization in order to provide patients with accurate information and improve their understanding of the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with sudden and severe central chest pain that radiates to his back and down his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (controlled by diet), and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, he appears pale and sweaty with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg on the right arm and 80/50 mmHg on the left arm. An early diastolic murmur is also present. A chest X-ray shows a slightly widened mediastinum with a normal-sized heart and no consolidation or pleural effusions. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation in leads I, II, and aVF. What immediate management should be implemented?
Your Answer: Immediate treatment as per acute coronary syndrome (ACS) protocol, urgent referral to cardiology
Correct Answer: Limited fluid resuscitation, CT scan, urgent referral to cardiothoracic surgery
Explanation:Management of Aortic Dissection
Explanation: Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Patients typically present with sudden-onset severe central chest pain, shock, and markedly unequal blood pressure in the arms. The chest X-ray may show mediastinal widening, which is a characteristic feature of aortic dissection.
The first step in management is careful fluid resuscitation, aiming for a systolic blood pressure of 100-120 mmHg (permissive hypotension). This is followed by a chest-abdo-pelvis CT scan to identify the type and extent of the dissection. Type A dissections, which occur proximal to the left subclavian artery origin, require urgent surgery, while type B dissections, which are distal to the left subclavian artery, are treated medically.
Urgent referral to the cardiothoracic surgery team is essential for patients with aortic dissection. Thrombolysis is rarely used to treat ST-elevation myocardial infarction now, with the success of primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Therefore, immediate treatment as per acute coronary syndrome (ACS) protocol is not appropriate for aortic dissection.
In summary, aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Careful fluid resuscitation, CT scan, and urgent referral to cardiothoracic surgery are the key steps in managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?
Your Answer: Arrhythmias
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired ship dockland worker presents to the Medical Outpatient Department with a history of difficulty breathing, hoarse voice, weight loss and occasional night sweats. He also complains of difficulty in swallowing, although this happens very infrequently. He has also noticed that, in the past month, he has become easily tired when performing his daily activities.
On examination, there is unilateral dullness to percussion at the right lung base, decreased breath sounds on the right side, asymmetrical chest wall expansion and scoliosis are observed. A chest X-ray demonstrates diffuse pleural thickening on the right side and decreased right lung volume. A positron emission tomography (PET) scan and video-assisted thoracoscopy (VAT) are performed to obtain the pleural biopsy, and a histopathological diagnosis is made.
Which of the treatments could achieve the best possible outcome in this patient?Your Answer: Cisplatin plus pemetrexed
Correct Answer: Combination therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma
Malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) is an aggressive tumor that arises from the mesothelial cells of the pleural cavity, pericardium, mediastinum, and tunica vaginalis. Treatment options for MPM include non-surgical (chemotherapy, radiotherapy), surgical (macroscopic complete resection or MCR), and combined therapies.
Combination therapy, which includes systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, has been shown to prolong the relative survival time of MPM patients compared to chemotherapy alone. The choice of MCR procedure depends on the tumor characteristics, surgeon’s expertise, and local institutional protocols. Cisplatin plus pemetrexed is used in systemic chemotherapy for patients with unresectable tumors or those who do not qualify for curative surgery.
Immunotherapeutic drugs, such as anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) antibodies like pembrolizumab and nivolumab, have shown promising results in a few randomized controlled trials. However, the first line of treatment for unresectable MPM is pemetrexed and platinum-based compounds.
Radiotherapy poses technical challenges due to the limited ipsilateral side involvement of MPM and the potential for radiation toxicity. Prophylactic doses of radiation are used before systemic chemotherapy and surgery, and three-dimensional techniques like intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) can deliver effective radiation doses while sparing healthy tissues. However, exposure of the contralateral lung to radiation can lead to pneumonitis.
In conclusion, a combination of therapies, including systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, can prolong the survival time of MPM patients. The choice of treatment depends on the tumor characteristics, patient selection, and institutional protocols. Immunotherapy and radiotherapy are also potential treatment options, but their use depends on the patient’s individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 8
Correct
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A school caretaker receives a letter inviting him to attend for an ultrasound scan, as part of the NHS Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) Screening Programme. He has never attended AAA screening before.
What is the age range of patients who are typically invited to attend AAA screening for the first time?Your Answer: 65
Explanation:AAA Screening Guidelines for Men Aged 65 and Over
Men aged 65 and over are at the highest risk of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). To detect this condition early, ultrasound scanning is offered to men during the year they turn 65. If the scan shows no signs of AAA, the patient will not be invited for further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to develop in their lifetime.
However, if the scan shows a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm), the patient will be invited for annual screening. If the AAA is medium-sized (4.5-5.4 cm), the patient will be invited for screening every three months to monitor the aneurysm’s progress. If the AAA is 5.5 cm or more, the patient will be referred to vascular surgeons and advised to consider surgical repair.
It’s important to note that the risk of developing AAA is much smaller in patients under 65, so screening is not recommended for this age group. Women are also excluded from the screening program. The NHS screening for AAA is carried out at or around 65 years of age to detect and treat the condition early, reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old retired teacher is found to have a 5.7 cm aortic aneurysm, following her abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ultrasound screening test. She is referred to the vascular surgeon to discuss surgical repair of the aneurysm. Which of the following is correct regarding surgical repair of AAAs?
Your Answer: EVAR is the preferred method currently used in the event of a ruptured aortic aneurysm
Correct Answer: EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries
Explanation:Myth-busting EVAR: Clarifying Misconceptions About Endovascular Aneurysm Repair
Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) is a minimally invasive alternative to open repair for treating abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA). However, there are several misconceptions about EVAR that need to be clarified.
Contrary to popular belief, EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries. In such cases, open repair is the only option as there is not enough normal aorta to attach the graft, increasing the risk of endoleaks.
Another myth is that the risk of immediate post-operative complications is higher for EVAR than open repair. In reality, EVAR is associated with shorter recovery times and reduced lengths of stay, making it a preferred method for treating AAA.
However, the graft attachment is less secure following EVAR, and approximately 1 in 10 patients may need further intervention after the procedure. Additionally, long-term mortality rates do not differ significantly between EVAR and open repair.
Finally, while both EVAR and open surgical methods can be used to treat a ruptured aortic aneurysm, EVAR is not currently recommended for such cases, except in the context of research.
In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths and clarify the facts about EVAR to ensure that patients receive the most appropriate treatment for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 10
Correct
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The family of a 63-year-old retired teacher with end-stage heart failure secondary to dilated cardiomyopathy wishes to discuss the possibility of the patient being listed for a heart transplant. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, controlled with diet alone, and has a previous history of basal cell carcinoma, which was successfully removed 12 years ago, without recurrence or complications. The patient’s current body mass index (BMI) is 18. The patient is currently being treated for a cellulitis infection at a previous cannula site.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to heart transplantation?Your Answer: Active infection
Explanation:Criteria for Cardiac Transplantation: Contraindications and Considerations
Cardiac transplantation is a treatment option for end-stage heart disease that cannot be remedied by other measures. However, certain criteria must be met before a patient can be considered for the procedure. This article outlines the contraindications and considerations for cardiac transplantation.
Active Infection: Active infection is an absolute contraindication to transplantation. Patients must be free of infection before they can be considered for the procedure.
Previous History of Malignancy: Active malignancy or high risk of recurrence of previous malignancy are contraindications to transplantation. However, a previous history of malignancy is not a contraindication to transplantation.
Age Over 65: Age alone is not a factor in determining whether a heart transplant is suitable. However, patients over the age of 65 often have other co-morbidities that make them less suitable candidates for transplants.
Diabetes: Diabetes is not a contraindication to transplantation. However, patients with end-organ damage or persistently poor glycaemic control may not be suitable candidates for the procedure.
BMI of <18.5 kg/m2: A BMI of <18.5 kg/m2 is not a contraindication to cardiac transplantation. However, patients with a BMI of under 18.5 kg/m2 may have reduced post-operative survival rates. Patients with a BMI of over 35 kg/m2 are generally advised to lose weight before they can be listed for the procedure. In summary, cardiac transplantation is a complex procedure that requires careful consideration of various factors. Patients must meet certain criteria and be free of certain conditions before they can be considered for the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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