00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
      What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.

      An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.

      For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.

      Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old woman is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit after being diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit after being diagnosed with an inferior myocardial infarction. On day 2, she complains of sudden onset of severe pain in her left leg that started 30 minutes ago and is increasing in intensity. She has never had this kind of pain before and, prior to this admission, claims to have been extraordinarily well for her age. On examination, the leg is cool and pale in comparison to the right leg. Femoral pulses are present and of good volume; however, the pulse rhythm is noted to be irregular. The pulses in her right leg are all palpable. There are no pulses felt below the groin on the left leg.
      Select the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Acute ischaemic limb due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque

      Correct Answer: Acute ischaemic limb due to an embolus from a proximal site

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Limb Ischaemia

      Acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. There are several possible causes of this condition, including embolism from a proximal site, muscle haematoma due to anticoagulant therapy, chronic ischaemic limb, acute ischaemia due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque, and extensive deep vein thrombosis.

      The most common cause of acute limb ischaemia is embolism from a proximal site. This occurs when a clot forms in the heart or a blood vessel and travels down to block a smaller artery in the leg. The classical symptoms of acute limb ischaemia are known as the 6 Ps, which include sudden onset of severe pain, absence of pulses, paraesthesiae, paralysis, pain on passive movement, and a pale, cold limb. Urgent referral to vascular surgeons is required, and angiography should be performed to determine the site and extent of the obstruction. If the limb is threatened by severe ischaemia, urgent revascularisation within 4 hours is necessary.

      Muscle haematoma due to anticoagulant therapy is another possible cause of limb ischaemia, but it would not present with sudden-onset pain and absence of pulses. Chronic limb ischaemia would not present with sudden-onset severe pain either. Acute ischaemia due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque typically gives a more gradual onset of increasing pain and may be preceded by a history of intermittent claudication. Finally, extensive deep vein thrombosis would cause a warm, swollen limb with pulses present.

      In conclusion, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The underlying cause of the condition will determine the appropriate management, and urgent referral to vascular surgeons is necessary in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      1109.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset, searing...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset, searing interscapular back pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril and amlodipine. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110 beats per minute, blood pressure (BP) 140/91 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 per minute, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, temperature 37.1°C. Upon examination of the chest, there are no additional positive findings. The lungs expand symmetrically and have normal breath sounds. Heart sounds I and II are present without additional sounds. The initial electrocardiogram (ECG) was normal, and a portable chest X-ray showed a widened mediastinum as the only abnormality. What is the most useful investigation for diagnosing the patient's likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Troponin

      Correct Answer: CT thorax with intravenous (IV) contrast

      Explanation:

      The sudden onset of intense, searing pain between the shoulder blades is a common symptom of aortic dissection, a condition where the inner layer of the aortic wall separates from the middle layer, creating a false and true aortic lumen. This can cause tachycardia and elevated blood pressure due to increased sympathetic activity. A widened mediastinum on an erect chest X-ray is a classic sign of aortic dissection, but other conditions can also cause this appearance. To diagnose aortic dissection, a CT thorax with IV contrast is recommended for detailed and rapid visualization. Treatment options range from medical management of blood pressure to emergency cardiothoracic surgery, depending on the extent of the dissection. Other diagnostic tests, such as a coronary angiogram, 24-hour ECG, troponin test, and echocardiogram, may not be as effective in diagnosing aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a serious and life-threatening cause of chest pain and can be classified based on the involvement of the ascending aorta and/or the descending aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      237.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central abdominal pain. The...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central abdominal pain. The pain started very suddenly, is described as severe and radiates through to his back. He has a past medical history of hypertension. On examination, the patient looks unwell, with some bruising around his flanks.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Heart rate (HR) 118 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 98/62 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate (RR) 28 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 95% on air 94–98%
      Temperature 36 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      There is generalised tenderness upon palpation of the abdomen.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured AAA

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain and Bruising

      When a patient presents with abdominal pain and bruising, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In this case, a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is the most likely explanation, given the patient’s history and examination findings. This is a serious condition with high mortality, and urgent surgical intervention is required if AAA is suspected. To avoid further complications, blood pressure should be maintained at less than 100 mmHg.

      Other potential diagnoses that should be ruled out include pancreatitis, renal artery stenosis, appendicitis, and aortic dissection. Pancreatitis can also cause abdominal pain and bruising, but the patient’s symptoms and signs suggest AAA as the primary concern. Renal artery stenosis typically presents differently and is less likely in this case. Appendicitis can cause central abdominal pain, but it is not the most likely explanation here. Aortic dissection can cause pain radiating to the back, but the location and severity of the pain in this patient do not fit with that diagnosis. Overall, prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment and management of abdominal pain and bruising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back....

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain came on suddenly. Examination of the abdomen reveals a central mass. You note that he has become clinically shocked.
      He has a blood pressure of 76/45, heart rate 150, respiratory rate 28.
      Which of these is the most important step in the definitive management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange for surgery

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of a Ruptured Aortic Aneurysm

      When a patient presents with symptoms of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, immediate action is necessary to save their life. The first step is to prepare the patient for surgery by informing the theatre, a vascular surgeon, and an anaesthetist. Without surgery, the mortality rate for a ruptured aneurysm is 100%. During surgery, a Dacron graft is inserted after clamping the aorta above the rupture.

      While waiting for surgery, a blood transfusion may be necessary to replace lost blood. However, surgery is the definitive treatment. It is also important to crossmatch blood and transfuse as needed.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan may be useful in diagnosing the condition, but it should not be performed until the patient is haemodynamically stable. In the meantime, obtaining an amylase level is necessary to rule out acute pancreatitis, although the presence of a mass suggests an aneurysm.

      In summary, emergency management of a ruptured aortic aneurysm requires prompt action to prepare the patient for surgery, administer blood transfusions, and obtain necessary diagnostic tests. Without immediate intervention, the patient’s life is at risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’ on her legs. While examining the patient’s legs, you note the presence of tortuous, dilated veins, accompanied by brown patches of pigmentation and dry, scaly plaques of skin. A diagnosis of varicose veins is made.
      Which vein is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Short saphenous vein

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Venous System and Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are a common condition that affects the superficial venous system. The long saphenous vein, which ascends the medial side of the leg and passes anteriorly to the medial malleolus of the ankle, is the most common cause of varicose veins. However, insufficiencies in the deep venous system, such as the femoral vein and popliteal vein, can also contribute to chronic venous insufficiency.

      It is important to note that not all superficial veins are affected by varicose veins. The cephalic vein, for example, is an upper limb vein and is not likely to be affected. The short saphenous vein, which ascends the posterior side of the leg and passes posteriorly to the lateral malleolus of the ankle, can also cause varicose veins but is not the most common distribution.

      Understanding the different veins in the venous system and their potential for insufficiency can help in the diagnosis and treatment of varicose veins and other venous conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      268
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided swelling in his right leg. He reports that this is more noticeable in the evenings. During clinical examination, the right leg is swollen, but there is no redness or excessive warmth upon touch. He is in good health otherwise. He had undergone surgery in the past to treat prostate cancer.

      What is the initial investigation that should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphoscintigram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Lymphoedema: Choosing the Right One

      Lymphoedema is a condition characterized by swelling in the limbs due to the accumulation of lymphatic fluid. While clinical examination can often diagnose lymphoedema, further investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other possible causes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be requested and their relevance in diagnosing lymphoedema:

      Lymphoscintigram: This is the first-line investigation to confirm lymphoedema. It involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the affected limb and then imaging the lymphatic system to assess the flow of lymphatic fluid.

      Blood smear: A blood smear may be requested if filariasis is suspected as a cause of lymphoedema. This test involves examining a blood sample under a microscope to look for the presence of microfilariae, which are the larvae of filarial worms.

      Computed tomography (CT) scan: CT scans are less useful in evaluating lymphoedema as they do not provide specific information about soft tissues.

      Genetic testing: Genetic testing is useful in diagnosing primary lymphoedema, which can be caused by genetic mutations. However, it is less likely to be relevant in cases of secondary lymphoedema, which is more commonly caused by surgery, infection, or trauma.

      Ultrasound: While not useful in diagnosing lymphoedema, ultrasound may be helpful in ruling out other possible causes of limb swelling, such as deep vein thrombosis.

      In summary, the choice of diagnostic test for lymphoedema depends on the suspected cause and the clinical presentation of the patient. A lymphoscintigram is the most useful test for confirming lymphoedema, while other tests may be requested to rule out other possible causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When it's cold outside, her hands become extremely cold and slightly painful, and they change color. They start off very pale, then turn blue, and finally turn red. Upon examining her hands, there are no scars or signs of ulcers. She has no significant medical history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hand Discoloration and Pain

      Hand discoloration and pain can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is Raynaud’s phenomenon, also known as Raynaud’s disease. This condition is characterized by a color change in the hands from white to blue to red. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is benign and usually affects young women. Chemical hand warmers can be used for symptomatic relief. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s or Raynaud’s syndrome is caused by an underlying disease process or medication. It can cause pain, scarring, and ulceration of the fingertips.

      Thoracic outlet syndrome is another condition that can cause hand pain and paraesthesiae. It is characterized by unilateral symptoms and can affect various areas such as the neck, arm, and hand. Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a rare disease that causes inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries. This leads to symptoms similar to acute ischaemia such as pain, claudication, and absent pulses.

      Vibration white finger is a condition that can occur after prolonged use of power tools. It causes whiteness, numbness, and loss of dexterity in the fingers. Finally, blue finger syndrome is a rare condition that results from spontaneous thrombosis of one finger.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the knee downwards, causing him great difficulty in walking. Of note, pulses are not palpable in the right limb below the knee. While standing, the right limb appears more erythematosus than the left, but this colour quickly fades on laying the patient flat.
      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic arterial insufficiency is likely to be an underlying factor in the above presentation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Arterial Insufficiency and Acute Limb Ischaemia

      Chronic arterial insufficiency can be a contributing factor to acute limb ischaemia, a condition where blood flow to a limb is suddenly blocked. In patients with pre-existing stenotic vessels, an embolus or thrombus can easily occlude the vessel, leading to acute limb ischaemia. While patients with chronic arterial insufficiency may develop collaterals, these may not prevent the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia. Paraesthesiae, or altered sensation, is a common symptom of acute limb ischaemia. While ankle-brachial pressure index measurement can be useful, it is of limited use in diagnosing acute limb ischaemia. A Fogarty catheter can be used for surgical embolectomy, and lumbar sympathectomy may be performed in chronic arterial insufficiency to increase distal blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man is being evaluated in the Emergency Department after a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is being evaluated in the Emergency Department after a car accident at high speed. He has several fractures in his lower limbs and a posterior dislocation of his right hip. The doctor examining him wants to determine if he has any vascular damage. He starts by checking the pulses in his limbs.
      What is accurate about arteries in the lower limbs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior tibial artery lies between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus in the anterior compartment of the leg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lower Limb Pulse Points and Arteries

      The lower limb has several pulse points that are commonly examined. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid-inguinal point, while the popliteal artery can be felt in the popliteal fossa with the knee in semi-flexion. The posterior tibial pulse is best appreciated below the medial malleolus, and the dorsalis pedis pulse is typically palpable between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus medially and the extensor digitorum laterally on the dorsum of the foot.

      It’s important to note that the dorsalis pedis pulse is only palpable medial to the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus. Additionally, the anterior tibial artery lies on the tibia between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus in the lower anterior compartment of the leg, and the dorsalis pedis artery is a terminal branch of the anterior tibial artery.

      Lastly, the fibular (peroneal) artery is not a direct branch of the popliteal artery. Instead, it is a branch of the tibioperoneal trunk, which is a branch of the popliteal arch. Understanding these pulse points and arteries can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment of lower limb conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Vascular (3/6) 50%
Passmed