00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a small amount of haematuria. His urine output is as follows:
      Time Urine output
      13:00 60 ml/hr
      14:00 68 ml/hr
      15:00 52 ml/hr
      16:00 0 ml/hr
      17:00 0 ml/hr
      18:00 0 ml/hr
      You are asked to see the patient by his nurse who is concerned about the low urine output.
      What is the correct next step?

      Your Answer: Flush the catheter with 50 ml of normal saline

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Fluid Management in Post-Operative Patients

      In post-operative patients, appropriate fluid management is crucial to prevent complications and promote healing. However, it is important to use the correct interventions based on the patient’s specific condition. Here are some examples:

      Flush the Catheter with 50 ml of Normal Saline
      This intervention is appropriate when there is an abrupt drop in urine output on a background of haematuria, which is likely caused by a clot obstructing the catheter tube. Flushing the catheter with a small amount of normal saline can dislodge the clot and reinstate urine flow without damaging the bladder and healing.

      Give a 250 ml Intravenous (IV) Bolus of Normal Saline
      This intervention is appropriate when there is a gradual reduction in urine output, suggesting dehydration and hypovolaemia. However, it is not appropriate for an abrupt drop in urine output caused by catheter obstruction.

      Give a 2000 ml IV Bolus of Normal Saline
      This intervention is only appropriate in cases of severe hypovolaemia or septic shock, following a lack of response to a small fluid bolus of 250-500 ml. It should not be used in other situations as it can lead to fluid overload and other complications.

      Flush the Catheter with 1500 ml of Normal Saline
      This intervention is not appropriate as flushing the catheter with such a large volume of fluid can increase bladder pressure, damage the bladder mucosa, and impair the healing process.

      Prescribe 40 mg of Furosemide IV to Encourage Diuresis
      This intervention is not appropriate in patients with low urine output in the post-operative period as reduced output may be an indication of hypovolaemia, in which case diuretics are contraindicated.

      In summary, appropriate fluid management in post-operative patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s specific condition and the appropriate interventions to prevent complications and promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains...

    Correct

    • You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains of a lump in the middle of his abdomen. On examination, you note a mass arising from the site of surgical incision, which is reducible and reproducible when the patient coughs.
      Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of an incisional hernia?

      Your Answer: Wound infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Incisional Hernia Development

      An infected wound can increase the risk of developing an incisional hernia due to poor wound healing and susceptibility to abdominal content herniation. Increasing age is also a risk factor, likely due to delayed wound healing and reduced collagen synthesis. However, being tall and thin does not increase the risk, while obesity can increase abdominal pressure and lead to herniation. A sedentary lifestyle does not appear to be associated with incisional hernias, but smoking and nutritional deficiencies can increase the risk. Post-operative vomiting, not nausea alone, can cause episodic increases in abdominal pressure and increase the risk of herniation. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the development of incisional hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left flank pain and haematuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left flank pain and haematuria that has persisted for 3 weeks. She also reports a dry cough that has worsened over the past month. The patient has a history of smoking for 10 pack years. During the examination, a palpable mass is detected in the left flank. The patient is prescribed pembrolizumab and axitinib for treatment. What stage of cancer is likely to have been present at the time of diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stage 3

      Correct Answer: Stage 4

      Explanation:

      The patient’s renal cell carcinoma had progressed to stage 4, which is metastatic and often presents with symptoms. This was supported by the fact that the patient was treated with pembrolizumab and axitinib, which are the first-line options for stage 4 disease. Stage 1 and 2 were ruled out as they are typically treated with surgical resection, surveillance, or local ablation. Stage 3 was also ruled out as it involves nearby structure invasion but no distant metastases, and is treated with radical nephrectomy.

      Understanding Renal Cell Cancer

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old man presents with a sudden occipital headache, which he initially thought...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man presents with a sudden occipital headache, which he initially thought was a migraine. He delayed seeking medical attention and is now admitted to the hospital. On examination, he has a GCS of 15/15 and a normal neurological examination, but neck stiffness is noted. He has no fever and no rash is observed. A CT scan performed 6 hours after symptom onset is unremarkable. When should a lumbar puncture be performed?

      Your Answer: 24 hours post-onset of headache

      Correct Answer: 12 hours post-onset of headache

      Explanation:

      LP for detecting subarachnoid haemorrhage should be done after 12 hours of headache onset to allow xanthochromia to develop, unless the patient is acutely unwell or has altered GCS, in which case neurosurgery consultation may be necessary.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-week-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents to discuss...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents to discuss referral to private healthcare for a circumcision, which they want performed for cultural reasons. They do not report any concerns regarding his health. On examination, he appears to be developing normally and the external genitalia appear normal. What is a contraindication to performing a circumcision?

      Your Answer: Paraphimosis

      Correct Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is a reason why circumcision cannot be performed in infancy as the foreskin is needed for surgical repair.

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is a characteristic of a trident hand? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of a trident hand?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Achondroplasia

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia: A Genetic Disorder

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, in about 90% of cases, it occurs as a result of a new spontaneous mutation in the genetic material. This disorder is characterized by several physical features, including an unusually large head with a prominent forehead and a flat nasal bridge. Additionally, individuals with achondroplasia have short upper arms and legs, which is known as rhizomelic dwarfism. They also have an unusually prominent abdomen and buttocks, as well as short hands with fingers that assume a trident or three-pronged position during extension.

      To summarize, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects physical development. It is caused by a spontaneous mutation in the genetic material and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The physical features of this disorder include a large head, short limbs, and a unique hand position. this disorder is important for individuals and families affected by it, as well as for healthcare professionals who may provide care for those with achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      65.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and distention. They have not had a bowel movement in 4 days and have not passed gas in 1 day. During the examination, hyperactive bowel sounds are heard, and a digital rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. An urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals a suspicious large localized lesion in the descending colon, causing bowel obstruction and severely dilated bowel loops.

      What is the most appropriate initial surgical option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Correct Answer: Loop colostomy

      Explanation:

      The preferred surgical procedure for obstructing cancers in the distal colon is a loop colostomy. This involves creating a stoma with two openings, one connected to the functioning part of the bowel and the other leading into the distal colon to dysfunction and decompress it. The stoma can be reversed at a later time. However, other procedures such as AP resection, ileocolic anastomosis, and ileostomy are not appropriate for this patient’s descending colon mass.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      92.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis visits her GP...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis visits her GP complaining of colicky abdominal pain and pruritus that has persisted despite taking ursodeoxycholic acid. She also reports unintentional weight loss of 5kg over two months. During the examination, the patient appears mildly jaundiced and a mass is palpable in the right hypochondrium. What screening test can be performed to detect the probable malignancy?

      Your Answer: CA 19-9

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma

      Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a type of cancer that affects the bile ducts. The main risk factor for this type of cancer is primary sclerosing cholangitis. Symptoms of cholangiocarcinoma include persistent biliary colic, anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. A palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, known as the Courvoisier sign, may also be present. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy, known as Sister Mary Joseph nodes, and left supraclavicular adenopathy, known as Virchow node, may be seen. CA 19-9 levels are often used to detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and risk factors in order to detect and treat cholangiocarcinoma early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP with concerns about a lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP with concerns about a lump in his right testicle. He reports no other symptoms and has no significant medical or family history. Upon examination, a firm, distinct nodule is detected on the lateral aspect of the right testicle that does not trans-illuminate, while the left testicle appears normal. The physician suspects testicular cancer and orders serological tumour markers and an ultrasound investigation. What is a possible association with the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Galactorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      The most common tumor marker for testicular cancer is alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), which is elevated in non-seminomas and may be normal or elevated in seminomas. However, it is not typically decreased in any type of tumor. Galactorrhea is not a typical symptom of testicular cancer, although gynecomastia is often associated with it.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a cystoscopy for symptoms of nocturia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a cystoscopy for symptoms of nocturia and urinary frequency with poor stream (terminal dribbling). On examination, on the day of surgery, you notice he has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids and he describes getting very breathless on stairs.
      How would you proceed?

      Your Answer: Proceed with surgery, but ensure you put in an arterial line and a central line, and discuss with the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)

      Correct Answer: Defer surgery until he is seen by Cardiology and an echocardiography report is available

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Management of Patients with Aortic Stenosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with aortic stenosis require careful preoperative management to minimize the risk of cardiac complications during non-cardiac surgery. Before proceeding with any elective procedure, it is essential to evaluate the severity of the stenosis and the functional status of the heart. This can be done through an echocardiogram and a cardiology opinion.

      If the patient is symptomatic, such as having shortness of breath on exertion or an ejection systolic murmur on auscultation, it is not advisable to proceed with the operation until an up-to-date echocardiogram has been performed and a cardiology opinion offered. Severe stenosis can become a problem in situations of stress, such as exercise or intraoperatively, where the heart cannot increase the cardiac output to meet the increased demands. This puts patients with aortic stenosis at a high risk of cardiac complications during non-cardiac surgery.

      There is no evidence to suggest antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis in patients with valvular disease undergoing surgery. Aortic or mitral stenosis are relative contraindications to spinal anesthesia, and other relative contraindications include neurological disease and systemic sepsis. Absolute contraindications to spinal anesthesia include localized sepsis at the site where a spinal anesthetic would be sited, anticoagulated patient, and patient refusal.

      In conclusion, preoperative management of patients with aortic stenosis requires careful evaluation of the severity of the stenosis and the functional status of the heart. It is essential to postpone the operation until an echocardiogram has been performed to assess the severity of the stenosis and the functional status of the heart. The patient will need to be reviewed/discussed with Cardiology once the echocardiography results become available to advise on the safety of the operation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      227.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with excruciating pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with excruciating pain in his right loin that has been occurring in waves for the past 2 hours. The physician decides to prescribe analgesia to alleviate his discomfort. What would be the most suitable medication to administer at this point?

      Your Answer: Co-codamol 30mg oral

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac 75 mg IM

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines still advise the utilization of IM diclofenac as the primary treatment for acute renal colic due to its superior analgesic properties. While other analgesic options are also effective, they are not recommended as the first line of treatment for this condition.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old male patient complains of ongoing discomfort during bowel movements for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient complains of ongoing discomfort during bowel movements for the last 3 months. He has observed minor amounts of fresh blood while wiping. The patient is in good health otherwise and reports no weight loss. There is no significant family history. Upon examination of the anus, the diagnosis is confirmed. Despite initial treatment with laxatives and dietary changes, there has been no improvement. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical zinc sulfate monohydrate

      Correct Answer: Topical glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of chronic anal fissure, the appropriate step to take after failed conservative measures is to trial topical glyceryl trinitrate. This is because the symptoms of acute pain upon defecation and fresh blood indicate an anal fissure. Botox injection would be considered if topical measures were unsuccessful. Rubber band ligation is used for haemorrhoids, which present differently and are generally painless unless thrombosed. Topical hydrocortisone is not used for anal fissures, but is available over-the-counter for the treatment of haemorrhoids.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      75.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting. Her temperature is 38.2ºC and she was described as having rigors in the ambulance. She scores 14 on the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) as she is confused when asked questions.

      What is the likely diagnosis based on her symptoms, which include yellowing of the sclera, tenderness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with a positive Murphy's sign, and vital signs of a respiratory rate of 15/min, heart rate of 92/min, and blood pressure of 86/62 mmHg?

      Your Answer: Charcot's pentad

      Correct Answer: Reynold's pentad

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have ascending cholangitis and exhibits Charcot’s triad of RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice. In severe cases, Reynold’s pentad may be present, which includes Charcot’s triad along with confusion and hypotension, indicating a higher risk of mortality. Beck’s triad, consisting of hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds, is observed in patients with cardiac tamponade. Cushing’s triad, characterized by irregular and decreased respiratory rate, bradycardia, and hypertension, is seen in patients with elevated intracranial pressure.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man was brought to the emergency department with sudden abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man was brought to the emergency department with sudden abdominal pain and vomiting. The general surgeons diagnosed him with pancreatitis and he was given IV fluids and pain relief by the registrar. The FY1 was then asked to complete a Modified Glasgow Score to determine the severity of the pancreatitis. What information will the FY1 need to gather to complete this task?

      Your Answer: Urea level

      Explanation:

      The Modified Glasgow Score is utilized for predicting the severity of pancreatitis. If three or more of the following factors are identified within 48 hours of onset, it indicates severe pancreatitis: Pa02 <8 kPa, age >55 years, neutrophilia WBC >15×10^9, calcium <2mmol/L, renal function urea >16 mmol/L, enzymes LDH >600 ; AST >200, albumin <32g/L, and blood glucose >10 mmol/L. To remember these factors easily, one can use the acronym PANCREAS. This information can be found in the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine, 9th edition, on pages 638-639.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and has undergone surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and has undergone surgery and radiotherapy. Despite being HER2 -ve and ER -ve, her TNM stage is T2N2M0. Given her node positivity, what is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Herceptin

      Correct Answer: FEC-D Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer patients with positive lymph nodes are treated with FEC-D chemotherapy, while those with negative lymph nodes requiring chemotherapy are treated with FEC chemotherapy. Hormonal therapies such as aromatase inhibitors and tamoxifen are used for women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, while HER2-positive breast cancer is treated with herceptin. The management of breast cancer does not involve the use of estrogen.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old man and his partner visit the GP with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man and his partner visit the GP with a complaint of left-sided testicular pain that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the left testicle appears swollen and red, and the pain subsides when the testicle is elevated. There are no signs of penile discharge or palpable masses. The right testicle appears normal. What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of epididymo-orchitis in sexually active younger adults is Chlamydia trachomatis. This man’s condition is likely caused by this bacterium. On the other hand, Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis are common culprits in men over 35 years old or those who engage in anal sex, making it improbable that they caused this man’s condition.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 47-year-old man is scheduled for an elective repair of a left-sided inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is scheduled for an elective repair of a left-sided inguinal hernia under general anesthesia. What advice should he be given regarding eating and drinking before the surgery?

      Your Answer: No food for 6 hours and no clear fluids for 1 hour before his operation

      Correct Answer: No food for 6 hours and no clear fluids for 2 hours before his operation

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents, the Royal College of Anaesthetists advises patients to refrain from eating for at least 6 hours prior to the administration of general anesthesia. However, patients are permitted to consume clear fluids, including water, up until 2 hours before the administration of general anesthesia.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health check-up. She reports feeling well, having recently quit smoking, and having no complaints. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. However, microscopic haematuria is detected in her urine, and the following results are obtained. The patient did not experience any pain, dysuria, or engage in physical activity before the sample collection.

      Hb 150 g/L
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      If a patient is over 60 years old and has unexplained non-visible haematuria along with dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, they should be referred to a urologist using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out bladder cancer. It is important to exclude bladder cancer as a potential cause, especially if the patient has a history of smoking. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, a CT scan of the kidneys, ureter, and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it is used to detect radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. If resources are limited, the GP should initiate relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. In lower risk cases, reassurance and re-checking in 2-6 weeks may be considered.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his groin. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and no prior surgeries or medical issues. The lump has been present for three weeks, causes mild discomfort, and has not increased in size. During the physical examination, a soft, reducible lump is observed on the left side, located above the pubic tubercle, without skin changes. The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia. What test would confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: No reappearance during coughing when covering the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      To prevent the recurrence of an indirect inguinal hernia, pressure should be applied over the deep inguinal ring after reducing the hernia. This is because the hernia protrudes through the inguinal canal and covering the deep inguinal ring prevents it from reappearing during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing. Noting bilateral herniae is not relevant to confirming or refuting the diagnosis, and there is no such thing as a femoral ring. If the lump reappears during coughing while covering the deep inguinal ring, it may indicate a direct hernia instead. It is important to distinguish between indirect and direct herniae during surgical repair, as they occur in different locations relative to the inferior epigastric blood vessels due to a hole in the internal oblique and transversus muscles.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The anaesthetic team is getting ready for a knee replacement surgery for a...

    Incorrect

    • The anaesthetic team is getting ready for a knee replacement surgery for a patient who is 35 years old. She is 1.60 metres tall and weighs 80 kilograms. She does not smoke or drink and has no known medical conditions. Additionally, she does not take any regular medications. What would be the ASA score for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (11/19) 58%
Passmed