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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat?
Your Answer: ((Control event rate) - (Experimental event rate)) / (Control event rate)
Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)
Explanation:The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's syndrome of an adult?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation
Explanation:The main cardiovascular manifestations associated with Marfan’s syndrome are aortic dilatation and mitral valve prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male presented with episodes of collapse during the last month. Each episode persisted for about 2-3 minutes. They were self-limiting and associated with twitching of the limbs. There was no associated tonic-clonic movements, tongue biting, urinary or faecal incontinence. On examination he had reversed splitting of S2 and an ejection systolic murmur at the right sternal border. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed left ventricular hypertrophy with strain pattern. CXR showed an area of calcification over the cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:The classic triad of symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis is chest pain, heart failure and syncope. Pulsus parvus et tardus, pulsus alternans, hyperdynamic left ventricle, reversed splitting of the S2, prominent S4 and systolic murmur are some of the common findings of aortic stenosis. A calcified aortic valve is found in almost all adults with hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old patient with diabetes is referred from the Emergency department complaining of dizziness and vomiting. On examination he is alert and orientated, his pulse is 80 irregularly irregular and BP 160/90 mmHg. There is nystagmus on left lateral gaze and his speech is slurred. On examination of the limbs, you note intention tremor and past pointing. He is ataxic when mobilised. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebellar CVA
Explanation:The patient’s presentation with slurred speech, intention tremor and past pointing, as well as ataxia and nystagmus, paired with a history of vertigo suggest the cerebellum as the site of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) or stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha
Explanation:The main mechanism of fibrate drugs is activation of gene transcription factors known as PPARs, particularly PPAR-α, which regulate the expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism. There are several consequences of PPAR-α activation, which reduce circulating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago. His blood pressure was found to be 143/96mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found. Investigations; Hb 11.9 g/dL, WCC 11.1 x109/L, PLT 190 x109/L, Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 105 μmol/L, CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion Aspergillus precipitins positive Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms and dyspnoea. She recently started taking a new medicine and she feels it might have aggravated her symptoms. Which of the following is likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Timolol eye drops
Explanation:β-blockers are the class of drug most often chosen to treat glaucoma, although other medical therapies are available. Systemic absorption of timolol eye drops can cause unsuspected respiratory impairment and exacerbation of asthma. Physicians should be alert to the possibility of respiratory side-effects of topical therapy with β-blockers. Leukotriene antagonists and salbutamol are used in asthma treatment. HRT and ferrous sulphate do not lead to the exacerbation of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she collapsed whilst shopping. She has a tachycardia of 150 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg. Her ECG showed a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is more suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia (VT) over a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular dissociation
Explanation:To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:
Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
AV dissociation for VT. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nail dystrophy
Explanation:Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations. His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines
Explanation:Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
– Headaches
– Palpitations
– Sweating
– Severe hypertensionThe Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells
Explanation:Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis
Explanation:Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options with the team of doctors. Which statement is incorrect about small cell carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with small cell lung cancer always benefit from surgery
Explanation:Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is characterized by rapid growth and early dissemination. Prompt initiation of treatment is important.
Patients with clinical stage Ia (T1N0) after standard staging evaluation may be considered for surgical resection, but combined treatment with chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the standard of care. Radiation therapy is often added at the second cycle of chemotherapy.
Historically, patients undergoing surgery for small cell lung cancer (SCLC) had a dismal prognosis. However, more recent data suggest that patients with true stage I SCLC may benefit from surgical resection.
Common sites of hematogenous metastases include the brain, bones, liver, adrenal glands, and bone marrow. The symptoms depend upon the site of spread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50 - 100 times risk
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is the transformation of the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophagus to columnar, intestinal type epithelium. It is often seen in patients with reflux and there is a 50-100 fold increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements. There is no history of trauma. He is on no drugs. There is no relevant family history. On examination he has an episodic right torticollis. The rest of his neurological examination is normal. MRI of his cervical spine is normal. The neurologist in the Movement Disorders Clinic has diagnosed cervical dystonia. Which of the following treatments will be most beneficial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin
Explanation:Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxic protein from Clostridium botulinum that causes flaccid paralysis as it acts by preventing the release of Ach at the neuromuscular joint. It is the first-line treatment for cervical dystonia (torticollis) because the condition is a neurological disorder characterised by unusual muscle contractions of the neck. With the use of Botulinum toxin, the contractions would be released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 56 year old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with a fever and cough. Past medical history states that he has a long history of smoking and is found to have a cavitating lesion on his chest x-ray. Which organism is least likely to be the cause of his pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enterococcus faecalis
Explanation:Cavitating pneumonia is a complication that can occur with a severe necrotizing pneumonia and in some publications it is used synonymously with the latter term. It is a rare complication in both children and adults. Albeit rare, cavitation is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, and less frequently Aspergillus spp., Legionella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.
In children, cavitation is associated with severe illness, although cases usually resolve without surgical intervention, and long-term follow-up radiography shows clear lungs without pulmonary sequelae
Although the absolute cavitary rate may not be known, according to one series, necrotizing changes were seen in up to 6.6% of adults with pneumococcal pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is another organism that is known to cause cavitation.Causative agents:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureusEnterococcus faecalis was not found to be a causative agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young age
Explanation:Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
1. Young age (<40 years)
2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
3. Increased tumour size
4. High-grade tumour
5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
6. Positive lymph node status -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination his lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. There was a left sided parasternal heave. His electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed atrial fibrillation with right axis deviation. Echocardiography showed dilated right heart chambers. Left and right heart catheterisation study revealed the following: Inferior vena cava Oxygen saturations 63 %, Superior vena cava Oxygen saturations 59 %, Right atrium Oxygen saturations 77 %, Right ventricle Oxygen saturations 78 %, Pulmonary artery Oxygen saturations 82 %, Arterial saturation Oxygen saturations 98 %. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following answers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases breathing air are as follows: pH 7.31 pO2 9.6 kPa pCO2 5.1 kPa What do these results signify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her respiratory effort may be failing because she is getting tired
Explanation:In any patient with asthma, a decreasing PaO2 and an increasing PaCO2, even into the normal range, indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.
Chest tightness and cough, which are the most common symptoms of asthma, are probably the result of inflammation, mucus plugs, oedema, or smooth muscle constriction in the small peripheral airways. Because major obstruction of the peripheral airways can occur without recognizable increases of airway resistance or FEV1, the physiologic alterations in acute exacerbations are generally subtle in the early stages. Poorly ventilated alveoli subtending obstructed bronchioles continue to be perfused, and as a consequence, the P(A-a)O2 increases and the PaO2 decreases. At this stage, ventilation is generally increased, with excessive elimination of carbon dioxide and respiratory alkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure
Explanation:Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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