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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin dependent diabetic and plans to embark on a lengthy road trip. She comprehends the significance of hypoglycemia symptoms and frequent blood sugar monitoring. She has been instructed to keep fast-acting carbohydrates with her at all times while driving but seeks guidance on when to pull over and consume a snack after checking her blood glucose levels.
At what blood glucose level should she have a snack?Your Answer: 3 mmol/litre
Correct Answer: 4 mmol/litre
Explanation:Practical Management of Insulin in AKT Exam
Questions about the practical management of insulin are common in the AKT exam, but have been poorly answered in previous exams. Therefore, it is likely to be a recurrent theme. To ensure that you are adequately prepared, we have extracted the learning points from the reference sources used by examiners.
The guidance suggests that drivers should ensure that their blood glucose is above 5 mmol/litre when driving, but they should stop driving if it drops below 4 mmol/litre. If the blood glucose drops below 5 mmol/litre, they are advised to take a snack. Therefore, it is important to clarify which threshold applies when answering questions related to this topic.
Learning points that may be tested include the advice about testing frequency, thresholds for driving, thresholds for taking a snack or stopping driving, and when the journey can be safely resumed. Don’t worry, we have questions that will test you on all of these learning points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum. She is using the lactational amenorrheoic method (LAM) for contraception.
Which of the following should she be advised may increase her risk of pregnancy?Your Answer: Menstruation returning
Explanation:Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) as a Contraceptive
Breastfeeding can be used as a form of contraception through the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM). This method works by suppressing ovarian activity, which prevents the return of menstrual periods after childbirth. For LAM to be effective, a woman must engage in full breastfeeding, which includes exclusive or almost exclusive breastfeeding with no other liquids or solids given.
If the frequency or duration of breastfeeding decreases, the risk of menstrual periods and fertility increases. Women who experience bleeding within the first six months after childbirth have a higher risk of pregnancy than those who remain amenorrhoeic. To use LAM as a contraceptive, a woman must meet all three criteria: fully or nearly fully breastfeeding day and night, no long intervals between feeds, and amenorrhoeic and less than six months postpartum.
When the rules of LAM are strictly followed, failure rates are less than 2%. Therefore, LAM can be an effective and natural form of contraception for women who choose to breastfeed their infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?
Your Answer: Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak
Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.
Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.
It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her mother, complaining of persistent dandruff. Her mother also mentions noticing a small area of hair loss at the back of her head. Upon examination, you observe widespread scaling on the scalp and inflamed skin beneath the patch of hair loss. What steps do you take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send skin scrapings for analysis
Explanation:To effectively manage this fungal infection on the scalp, it is important to identify the specific organism responsible through skin scrapings. Coal tar shampoo may be a suitable treatment for managing dandruff or scalp psoriasis, but it will not address a fungal infection. Topical steroids are not effective against fungal infections. Depending on the type of fungus causing the infection, oral griseofulvin may be an appropriate treatment. Referral to a specialist is not necessary at this stage, as initial investigations can be conducted by primary care providers. This information is sourced from NICE CKS on fungal skin infections of the scalp.
Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.
Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.
Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.
In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exposure keratopathy
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient who has previously been hospitalized with ventricular tachycardia. What examinations are crucial to confirm that the patient has undergone before commencing the therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E + chest x-ray
Explanation:Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient complains of left-sided facial muscle weakness that has been present for 72 hours. She has no known medical conditions and is not taking any medications. The symptoms started during a camping trip, and she believes that her delay in seeking medical attention may have contributed to the severity of her condition. Upon examination, she exhibits left-sided facial nerve palsy with no forehead movement. All other cranial nerves appear normal, and there are no neurological deficits in her upper or lower limbs. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence oral prednisolone
Explanation:The recommended treatment for this woman’s symptoms and signs of Bell’s palsy is oral prednisolone, which should be prescribed within 72 hours of symptom onset. Antiviral treatments, either alone or in combination with prednisolone, are not recommended as they have been shown to be ineffective or have weak evidence of benefit. Referring to an ENT specialist is not necessary unless there are signs of worsening neurological disturbance or systemic upset. Self-care measures alone are not sufficient and additional treatment such as eye care should be provided.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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At what age will children be eligible for the intranasal influenza vaccine once the NHS has implemented the vaccination programme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 years
Explanation:Children under the age of 2 are not eligible to receive the intranasal flu vaccine.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over the past 4 weeks. It seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day and lasts for approximately 2 hours. The pain makes him feel nauseous although he has not vomited. He has been significantly stressed with personal issues recently. Interestingly, he also reports his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation. He has no loss of visual acuity.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches are characterized by intermittent severe frontotemporal headaches lasting up to 2 hours at a time, with ipsilateral autonomic disturbance. These clusters typically last from 4 to 12 weeks and are more common in men than women. Glaucoma may cause a change in visual acuity, but headaches related to brain tumors would not exhibit ipsilateral autonomic disturbance and would not be as severe or intermittent. While migraine is a possibility, it would be unusual to experience such frequent episodes over a 4-week period and without ipsilateral autonomic disturbance.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years.
On examination he has dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right lung base. He doesn't have any pain and is not breathless. You arrange a chest x ray, prescribe antibiotics and review him in one week.
He now feels better with less cough and no fever. His chest x ray reports an area of consolidation with a small pleural effusion at the right lung base. The radiologist recommends a follow up x ray in four weeks.
When the patient returns for the result of the follow up x ray the radiologist reports that there is little change in the appearances.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician urgently
Explanation:Importance of Thorough Respiratory Examination in Lung Cancer Diagnosis
Pleural effusion and slowly resolving consolidation may indicate lung cancer, requiring urgent referral to a respiratory physician under the two week wait criteria. However, a comprehensive examination is necessary to avoid missing an effusion. Simply auscultating the chest is insufficient. A thorough respiratory examination, including noting any deviation of the trachea, percussion note, and tactile vocal fremitus, can provide important clues and need not significantly prolong the examination time. Failure to perform a thorough examination or investigation of malignancy is a contributing factor to delay in cancer diagnosis, according to the NPSA. In this case, the patient’s smoking history and slow-to-resolve consolidation further support the need for urgent referral and detailed imaging to reveal any underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test
Explanation:Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A new elderly patient in the practice has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The patient has no history of hearing loss and no family members with hearing impairments. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An autosomal-recessive-inherited disorder
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Congenital Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Congenital sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss that is present at birth. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including hereditary factors, infections during pregnancy, and complications during birth. In the United Kingdom, hereditary hearing loss accounts for 1-2 per 1000 babies, with around 80% of genetic hearing loss being non-syndromic and not associated with prenatal or perinatal factors.
There are several possible causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss, including autosomal-recessive-inherited disorders, syndromes, autosomal-dominant-inherited disorders, cytomegalovirus infection, and secretory otitis media.
It is important to understand the different causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition. In some cases, genetic testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the hearing loss. Additionally, early intervention and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for children with congenital sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has had three witnessed episodes when she looked blank, fiddled with her hands and opened and closed her mouth repetitively. She has no recollection of these events but did feel tired for a while afterwards. On direct questioning, she reports what sounds like déjà vu feelings associated with abdominal discomfort occurring over three years, which she had ignored. There is a history of two febrile convulsions in infancy.
Which class of seizure has this patient most likely experienced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Focal impaired awareness
Explanation:Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics
Seizures can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some common types of seizures and their descriptions:
1. Focal Impaired Awareness Seizures: These seizures originate from one part of the brain and can affect a larger area than focal aware seizures. The patient’s consciousness is impaired, and they may look blank, have no recollection of the event, and feel tired afterwards.
2. Unknown-Onset Motor Seizures: These seizures involve physical movements but occur during sleep or are unwitnessed, making it difficult to determine whether they have a focal or generalized onset.
3. Focal Aware Seizures: These seizures begin and affect one part of the brain, but the patient remains conscious and alert throughout the seizure and has full recollection of the event afterwards. Déjà vu feelings are an example of focal aware seizures.
4. Generalized Motor Seizures: These seizures affect both sides of the brain simultaneously and involve physical movements, such as tonic-clonic or myoclonic seizures.
5. Generalized Non-Motor Seizures: These seizures also affect both sides of the brain but do not involve physical movements. The patient appears blank and unresponsive during the seizure, but repetitive movements may be present.
Understanding the different types of seizures and their characteristics can help in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
What is the single most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service
Explanation:Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs
As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:
1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.
2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).
3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.
4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.
5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.
By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and lethargic, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history but admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals bi-basal consolidation, and her blood tests show the following results:
- White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
- Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
- C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
- Sodium: 125 mmol/l
- Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
- Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l
Which pathogen is responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia
Explanation:Legionella is often characterized by flu-like symptoms, a dry cough, relative bradycardia, and confusion, with blood tests indicating hyponatremia and abnormal liver function. Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia are commonly associated with communal water supplies, as hinted at in the question’s reference to a recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia often results in bi-basal pneumonia. The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.
Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.
Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of headaches. She reports experiencing throbbing headaches on one side of her head every few weeks, which would subside after resting in a dark room. The patient resorted to taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, and codeine regularly to alleviate the pain. However, she now experiences a constant headache that affects her entire head and doesn't improve with rest in a dark room. The patient's neurological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wean down dose of codeine and stop paracetamol/ibuprofen immediately
Explanation:The correct approach for treating medication overuse headache depends on the type of analgesia being used. Simple analgesia and triptans should be stopped abruptly, while opioid analgesia requires gradual withdrawal. In the case of this patient, who developed medication overuse headache after using daily analgesia for migraine-like symptoms, the paracetamol and ibuprofen can be stopped immediately, but the codeine must be gradually reduced to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
Stopping all analgesia immediately is not recommended, as codeine withdrawal can cause discomfort. Tapering off current analgesia while introducing propranolol or topiramate is also not appropriate at this stage, as medication overuse headache must be treated first by stopping the current analgesia. Once the analgesia has been withdrawn, migraine prophylaxis can be considered, with propranolol being the preferred option for this patient due to the risk of teratogenicity associated with topiramate in females of childbearing age.
Understanding Medication Overuse Headache
Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.
According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman has HIV infection. She is taking treatment and is asymptomatic.
She has a boyfriend and has unprotected intercourse but tells you that she douches before and after intercourse, and says she cannot infect him.
What should you do first?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Educate her and urge her to tell the partner
Explanation:Confidentiality and HIV Disclosure
Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of the doctor-patient relationship, as it fosters trust and encourages patients to seek medical attention. However, in cases of serious communicable diseases like HIV, there may be circumstances where disclosing information to a patient’s sexual partner is necessary to prevent further transmission.
In the scenario presented, the correct answer is to educate the patient about the importance of HIV disclosure and urge her to tell her partner. Advising her to use condoms without informing her partner is not enough, as he may still be at risk of contracting HIV. The other answer options are incorrect, as they would violate the patient’s confidentiality.
According to the GMC’s supplementary guidance on confidentiality and serious communicable diseases, doctors may disclose information to a patient’s sexual partner if they are at risk of infection and the patient has not informed them. However, doctors should inform the patient before making the disclosure, if possible, and be prepared to justify their decision to disclose personal information without consent.
In summary, confidentiality is essential in the doctor-patient relationship, but in cases of serious communicable diseases like HIV, there may be circumstances where disclosure is necessary to prevent further transmission. Doctors should educate patients about the importance of HIV disclosure and safe sexual practices, and consider disclosing information to a patient’s sexual partner if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right knee. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.0 °C and has had chills. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw her doctor six days ago who told her she had an ear infection and prescribed antibiotics. Her right knee is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
Which of the following is the single most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic Arthritis: Common Causal Organisms and Symptoms
Septic arthritis is a condition resulting from joint infection with pyogenic organisms. The most common causal organism is Staphylococcus aureus, which enters the joint through the bloodstream from known sites of infection. Patients typically experience pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in a single joint, most commonly the knee. Aspiration and fluid culture are diagnostic, and immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction. Joint immobilization is also recommended. Patients with prior joint damage or prosthetic joints are at higher risk.
Other causal organisms include Neisseria meningitides, which can cause polyarthropathy, fever, and skin changes; Haemophilus influenza, which is common in children under three years old; and Streptococcus pyogenes, a common organism in ear, nose, and throat infections. Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, are rare causes of septic arthritis. It is important to differentiate septic arthritis from other similar conditions, such as transient synovitis, especially in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and his estimated glomerular filtration rate was 53 ml/min six weeks ago. His albumin:creatinine ratio was 35 mg/mmol. He denies experiencing any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg and fundoscopy is unremarkable. What is the optimal course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and an albumin:creatinine ratio exceeding 30 mg/mmol should be initiated on a renin-angiotensin antagonist. These medications have been proven to have positive impacts on both cardiovascular outcomes and renal function. While the other drugs are also utilized for hypertension, they do not offer the same advantages and are not the primary choice for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A father brings his 8-week old son for a baby check. Inspiratory stridor is noted on auscultation when he is laid on his back with audible stridor at the bedside too. He is otherwise thriving with normal length, weight and head circumference. His father notes that he has noisier breathing when he is feeding. You advise him of the likely diagnosis and refer him to a paediatrician for assessment.
The father asks how likely this condition is to resolve and whether surgery is required, how do you answer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99% of cases resolve spontaneously by 24 months, surgery is not usually required
Explanation:Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Congenital Laryngeal Abnormality
Laryngomalacia is a congenital laryngeal abnormality that affects both sexes equally and accounts for 60-70% of cases of congenital stridor. It is characterised by the flaccidity of the supraglottic structures, resulting in a soft and floppy larynx that collapses during breathing. This condition typically presents within the first few weeks of life, with noisy respiration and inspiratory stridor.
There are three types of laryngomalacia, with type 1 involving the tightening of the aryepiglottic folds, type 2 involving redundant tissue in the supraglottic region, and type 3 being associated with other disorders such as neuromuscular weakness or gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
The most common symptom of laryngomalacia is inspiratory stridor, which is high-pitched and crowing. This is usually intermittent and occurs in the supine position, when feeding, or when the child is agitated. While symptoms tend to increase in severity during the first 8 months, they usually resolve by 18-24 months. Respiratory distress, failure to thrive, and cyanosis are rare.
Oxygen saturation should be monitored, and blood gases taken if there is desaturation. Laryngoscopy and bronchoscopy are only indicated if there are severe features or diagnostic difficulty. In most cases, laryngomalacia resolves spontaneously by 18-24 months. Symptomatic relief may be provided by hyperextending the neck during episodes of stridor. Surgical intervention is only required with severe respiratory distress, such as tracheostomy, laryngoplasty, excision of redundant mucosa, laser epiglottopexy, or laser division of the aryepiglottic folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are checking your mail before the start of morning surgery, and receive a letter from a firm of solicitors informing you that you are being sued for negligence following the recent death of a patient of yours who died from mesothelioma. According to the letter, his son claims you failed to diagnose the condition until it was too late, and that he died as a result of your incompetence.
You review the notes of the deceased, a retired plumber in his 60s, and see that he came to see you three times over a period of six months for vague chest pains and coughs. You remember that when you finally arranged a chest x ray, the diagnosis was a complete surprise to you.
You plan to call your medical defence organisation for further advice, but based on what you know, how concerned should you be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You need to start thinking about how you can prove that you did not act negligently in diagnosing the deceased's mesothelioma, and in the way you treated him after diagnosis
Explanation:Understanding Medico-Legal Issues for GPs
All GPs must have a good understanding of medico-legal issues to avoid negligence claims. To win a case for negligence, the complainant must prove that the doctor owed them a duty of care, failed in that duty, and caused harm. The burden of proof is on the person making the claim. The first limb of the test is usually obvious if the patient is under the doctor’s care. The second limb requires that the doctor exercised reasonable care and skill, according to the Bolam test. The third limb requires that the doctor’s treatment was the cause or a major contributor to the harm.
In this case, it is unlikely that the patient’s daughter’s case would succeed, as the mesothelioma diagnosis would not have changed the outcome. However, it is important to discuss the case with a medical defence organisation. It is crucial to never alter records under any circumstances, as dishonesty can lead to a loss of reputation and being considered unfit for practice. By understanding medico-legal issues, GPs can provide better care and avoid negligence claims.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent with stress incontinence. She describes large leaks of urine over the past six months. She often leaks urine when coughing or climbing up stairs and sometimes wakes up a few times at night to urinate. She doesn't complain of dysuria or haematuria. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender and urinalysis is normal. Her BMI is 25.1 and she doesn't smoke. She has tried pelvic floor exercises for 9 months which haven't worked. She is not keen on surgery.
What medication is licensed for urinary stress incontinence in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Urinary stress incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, maintaining steady fluid intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Pelvic floor exercises can also be helpful. If these measures are not effective, surgical options may be considered. Duloxetine can be used as a second-line treatment if the patient prefers medical grounds or if surgery is not an option. For urge incontinence, first-line medications include solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine. Desmopressin is used for conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease. By following these treatment options, patients can manage their urinary incontinence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure
Explanation:Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:
Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.
Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.
Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.
Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.
Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.
By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time she was treated with tocilizumab.
Past medical history includes Chickenpox as a child and asthma.
What advice would you give this patient after receiving treatment with tocilizumab or sarilumab?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should seek immediate medical attention if she develops signs or symptoms of diverticulitis
Explanation:Important Information about Tocilizumab Treatment
Tocilizumab is a medication used to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis and Covid-19 infection. However, it can lower the immune system’s ability to fight infections, increasing the risk of new or worsened infections. Additionally, it can suppress the C-Reactive Protein response for up to three months, making it a less reliable marker of infection.
It is important for GPs to be aware of these points for patients who have been treated in the hospital. Patients may be at an increased risk of infections, and signs of infection may be reduced. Therefore, increased vigilance is advised for timely detection of serious infections. Tocilizumab and sarilumab can also increase the risk of bowel perforation in people with diverticular disease.
Patients who have received tocilizumab treatment should avoid live vaccines for three months post-dose. If they are VZV IgG negative, they should avoid contact with anyone showing signs or symptoms of Chickenpox or shingles and seek medical advice if inadvertent exposure occurs. Women of childbearing potential must use effective contraception for three months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/m².
During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.
What would be the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment
Explanation:NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC).
Which of these statements is true about the COC?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 12 month review is acceptable once the patient is established on the pill
Explanation:Starting and Maintaining the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) can be started at any point during the menstrual cycle, as long as the woman is not pregnant. Once established on the COC, it is reasonable to give a 12-month prescription.
According to the latest guidance from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), additional precautions are no longer required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with the COCP for durations of 3 weeks or less. However, if the antibiotics or illness cause vomiting or diarrhea, the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.
If seven COC pills have been taken, ovulation is suppressed for a further seven days, and emergency contraception is not required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of gynaecomastia. He is currently being treated for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux.
Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia
Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, cimetidine, ciclosporin, and omeprazole are some of the drugs associated with this condition. Ramipril has only been rarely linked to gynaecomastia.
Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of use. If you are experiencing breast enlargement or any other unusual symptoms while taking medication, it is best to consult with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm.
What is the follow-up test needed in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auditory brainstem response test
Explanation:If a baby is found to have an abnormal hearing test at birth, they will be offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure auditory evoked potentials after sounds are played, and can indicate reduced hearing ability if there is no response.
It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn, as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months, and requires two staff members to assess the loudness required for the baby to react to sounds produced out of their field of view.
Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing loss, but further investigations are needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test involves generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo that indicates a healthy cochlea.
Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns, as it requires the input of the participant when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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