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  • Question 1 - A couple in their late 30s come to the clinic seeking information about...

    Correct

    • A couple in their late 30s come to the clinic seeking information about the risk of their three children inheriting Huntington's disease. The husband has recently been diagnosed with the disease, while the wife is not affected. What is the likelihood, expressed as a percentage, that their children will inherit the disease?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically appears later in life and is characterized by symptoms such as chorea, cognitive decline, and personality changes. It is an autosomal dominant disease, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to offspring. If the gene is inherited from an unaffected parent, the child will not be affected. This is different from autosomal recessive inheritance, where both parents must pass on the gene for it to affect their children.

      The disease is caused by an increase in the length of a repeating trinucleotide sequence (CAG) in the Huntington protein. This sequence can change in length through generations, and longer sequences are associated with earlier onset of symptoms (genetic anticipation). Since Huntington’s disease usually presents itself after people have already started their families, there are many issues associated with genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What significance do linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids hold? ...

    Incorrect

    • What significance do linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids hold?

      Your Answer: They are omega-3 fatty acids

      Correct Answer: They are essential fatty acids

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Essential Fatty Acids in the Diet

      Essential fatty acids, such as linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids, are crucial components of a healthy diet. Although they are only required in small amounts, they play several important roles in the body. These fatty acids are necessary for the synthesis of phospholipids, which are essential components of cell membranes. They also help regulate cholesterol transport and synthesis, and serve as precursors for omega-3 fatty acids and arachidonic acid. Additionally, essential fatty acids are important for the synthesis of prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes.

      A lack of adequate essential fatty acids in the diet can have negative consequences, particularly for brain growth in infancy. It can also lead to alopecia, dermatitis, and fatty liver. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the diet includes sources of these essential fatty acids, such as certain types of fish, nuts, and seeds. By doing so, individuals can support their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis?

      Your Answer: Tetrads attach to the meiotic spindle to divide into chromosomes

      Correct Answer: The cell's chromosomes attach to the meiotic spindle to divide into chromatids

      Explanation:

      The Process of Meiosis

      Meiosis is a complex process that involves two major cycles. The first cycle, meiosis I, condenses the reproductive cell’s DNA into chromosomes that are then replicated, creating two pairs of each original chromosome. These pairs are then separated, and the cell divides with one chromosome in each daughter cell. The second cycle, meiosis II, splits the chromosomes into individual chromatids, which are then separated as in meiosis I. This separation is facilitated by a spindle, a set of parallel fibers that attach to the center of each chromosome and split into two, making the chromatids travel on the polar opposite sides of the cell. The cell then divides again, giving rise to four haploid daughter cells.

      During meiosis II, the chromosomes align on the spindle in metaphase II. Tetrads separate during anaphase I and line up during metaphase I. Sister chromatids separate on the meiotic spindle during anaphase II. Finally, chromosomes uncoil and lengthen at the end of meiosis, in telophase II. This process is essential for the production of gametes and the continuation of sexual reproduction in many organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - To what type of cell can mesenchymal stem cells transform? ...

    Incorrect

    • To what type of cell can mesenchymal stem cells transform?

      Your Answer: Skin cells

      Correct Answer: Osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Mesenchymal Cells: The Stem Cells of the Human Skeleton

      Mesenchymal cells are the primary stem cells of the human skeleton. These multipotent cells originate in the bone marrow and have the ability to differentiate into various cell types. Osteoblasts, responsible for bone formation, chondrocytes, which give rise to cartilage, and adipocytes, specialized in storing energy as fat, are some of the cells that mesenchymal cells can produce. Muscle cells, or myocytes, arise from muscle satellite cells, while skin cells come from epithelial stem cells. Neurons mostly arise from neural stem cells, although some may come from astrocytes. White blood cells, on the other hand, come from hematopoietic stem cells. Mesenchymal cells play a crucial role in the maintenance and repair of the human skeleton, making them an essential area of study in regenerative medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which process occurs mainly in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which process occurs mainly in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

      Your Answer: Lysosome production

      Correct Answer: Steroid synthesis

      Explanation:

      The Functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum and Lysosomes

      The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a complex network of membranes that is divided into two types: rough and smooth. The rough ER is characterized by the presence of ribosomes on its cytosolic side, which makes it an important site for protein production, modification, and transport. On the other hand, the smooth ER is involved in cholesterol and steroid handling, as well as calcium storage in some cells. This type of ER is particularly prominent in cells that produce large amounts of steroid hormones, such as those found in the adrenal cortex.

      Lysosomes, on the other hand, are organelles that are responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste. They are formed by the Golgi apparatus, which is another complex network of membranes found in eukaryotic cells. Lysosomes contain a variety of enzymes that are capable of breaking down different types of molecules, including proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.

      In summary, the ER and lysosomes are two important organelles in eukaryotic cells that play different roles in cellular metabolism. While the ER is involved in protein production, modification, and transport, the lysosomes are responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What controls the specific stages of the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What controls the specific stages of the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: The on/off activity of cyclases and cyclase-dependent kinases

      Correct Answer: Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

      Explanation:

      Regulation of the Cell Cycle by Cyclins and Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

      The cell cycle is controlled by the activity of proteins known as cyclins and phosphorylating enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins and CDKs combine to form an activated heterodimer, where cyclins act as the regulatory subunits and CDKs act as the catalytic subunits. Neither of these molecules is active on their own. When a cyclin binds to a CDK, the CDK phosphorylates other target proteins, either activating or deactivating them. This coordination leads to the entry into the next phase of the cell cycle. The specific proteins that are activated depend on the different combinations of cyclin-CDK. Additionally, CDKs are always present in cells, while cyclins are produced at specific points in the cell cycle in response to other signaling pathways.

      In summary, the cell cycle is regulated by the interaction between cyclins and CDKs. This interaction leads to the phosphorylation of target proteins, which ultimately controls the progression of the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      16
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation.

      During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the location of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and the veins are emptied by elevating her legs off the couch. The examiner then identifies the site of the sapheno-femoral junction and applies pressure with their fingers. The patient is then asked to stand up to evaluate vein filling.

      What is the name of this test?

      Your Answer: Trendelenburg's test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Varicose Vein Site of Incompetence

      The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction site, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction level.

      If the veins fill quickly upon standing, it indicates that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence. These tests are essential in determining the location of the varicose vein site of incompetence, which is crucial in planning the appropriate treatment. By identifying the site of incompetence, physicians can perform targeted interventions to improve venous function and alleviate symptoms. Therefore, the Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are valuable tools in the diagnosis and management of varicose veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the primary reason for malnutrition? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary reason for malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Inadequate intake of multiple vitamins

      Correct Answer: Inadequate intake of calories in any form

      Explanation:

      Malnutrition

      Malnutrition refers to a state where the dietary intake is insufficient to maintain a healthy state and stable weight. It can be caused by over- or under-nutrition, but it is commonly used to describe under-nutrition. Malnutrition can be defined as a state of nutrition where a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of energy, protein, and other nutrients causes measurable adverse effects on tissue, function, and clinical outcome. Protein malnutrition is the most severe form of malnutrition, causing significant mortality and clinical effects such as kwashiorkor. Carbohydrate malnutrition is less common as carbohydrate sources are widely grown and cheap. Fat malnutrition rarely results in problems if there is adequate dietary protein and carbohydrate. Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins can result in various clinical effects. Body size can give some indication of nutritional status, but many obese patients may have nutritional deficiencies due to their faddy diets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose veins. During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the site of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and her legs are raised to empty the veins. A constricting band is then placed below the sapheno-femoral junction, and the patient is asked to stand up to observe for varicose vein filling. What is the name of this test?

      Your Answer: Buerger's test

      Correct Answer: Tourniquet test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Varicose Veins and Arterial Insufficiency

      The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction. If the veins fill rapidly upon standing, it suggests that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence.

      Buerger’s test is used to assess the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The lower the angle at which blanching occurs, the more likely there is arterial insufficiency. This test is important in diagnosing peripheral artery disease.

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is another test used to assess arterial insufficiency. Blood pressure cuffs are used to measure the systolic blood pressure in the ankle and arm. The ratio of the two pressures is calculated, and a lower ratio indicates a higher degree of claudication.

      Finally, Perthe’s test is used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein before varicose vein surgery. This test involves compressing the vein and observing the filling of the superficial veins. If the superficial veins fill quickly, it suggests that the deep femoral vein is patent and can be used for surgery.

      In summary, these tests are important in diagnosing and evaluating varicose veins and arterial insufficiency. They help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component?

      Your Answer: The chromosomes

      Correct Answer: The nucleolus

      Explanation:

      The Fibrillar Centre in the Nucleolus

      The fibrillar centre is a crucial component of the nucleolus, which is found in most metazoan nucleoli, particularly in higher eukaryotes. Along with the dense fibrillar components and the granular component, it forms the three major components of the nucleolus. During the end of mitosis, the fibrillar centre serves as a storage point for nucleolar ribosomal chromatin and associated ribonucleoprotein transcripts. As the nucleolus becomes active, the ribosomal chromatin and ribonucleoprotein transcripts begin to form the dense fibrillar components, which are more peripherally located and surround the fibrillar centres. The transcription zone for multiple copies of the pre-rRNA genes is the border between these two structures. It is important to note that the fibrillar centre is not a component of any of the cell structures mentioned in the incorrect answer options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the statement of Henry's law? ...

    Correct

    • What is the statement of Henry's law?

      Your Answer: The concentration of a gas when dissolved in liquid is proportional to its partial pressure

      Explanation:

      Gas Laws

      Gas laws are a set of scientific principles that describe the behavior of gases under different conditions. One of these laws is Avogadro’s law, which states that equal volumes of gases at a standardized temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. Another law is Boyle’s law, which explains that gases expand when the temperature is increased. Charles’ law, on the other hand, states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a standardized temperature. Lastly, Graham’s law explains that the rate of diffusion of a gas is in inverse proportion to its weight. The specific gas laws that you need to know may vary depending on your syllabus, but you should be able to recognize and apply them if given the formulae. It is unlikely that you will be expected to know the correct formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a primary function of vitamin A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a primary function of vitamin A?

      Your Answer: Autoimmunity

      Correct Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      Vitamin A: Forms, Sources, and Functions

      Vitamin A is a crucial nutrient that exists in various forms in nature. The primary dietary form of vitamin A is retinol, also known as pre-formed vitamin A, which is stored in animal liver tissue as retinyl esters. The body can also produce its own vitamin A from carotenoids, with beta-carotene being the most common precursor molecule.

      The richest sources of vitamin A include liver and fish liver oils, dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, and mangoes. Vitamin A can also be added to certain foods like cereals and margarines.

      Vitamin A plays several essential roles in the body, including supporting vision by being a component of rhodopsin, a pigment required by the rod cells of the retina. It also contributes to the growth and development of various types of tissue, regulates gene transcription, and aids in the synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways.

      In summary, the different forms and sources of vitamin A and its vital functions in the body is crucial for maintaining optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency?

      Your Answer: Vegetarians

      Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Thiamine: Its Roles, Sources, Deficiency States, and Manifestations

      Thiamine is a vital nutrient that plays several roles in the body. It acts as a cofactor to enzymes involved in energy production, metabolism of branched chain amino acids, and regulation of nerve and muscle action potentials. It is found in many foods, including wheat, oats, and yeast-containing products. However, deficiency states can occur in chronic alcohol dependence, renal dialysis, and cultures that mainly consume white rice. The deficiency can manifest as ‘dry’ beriberi, which causes peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, fatigue, and reduced concentration, or ‘wet’ beriberi, which also involves heart failure and edema. In severe cases, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can develop, which is an emergency requiring urgent IV replacement of thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to irreversible amnesia, confabulation, and dementia. Therefore, all patients with alcohol-related admissions should be considered for Pabrinex, a B vitamin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding...

    Correct

    • A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding the possibility of their children inheriting cystic fibrosis. The husband has a confirmed diagnosis of the condition, but the carrier status of the wife is unknown.

      What is the likelihood of any of their offspring being affected by cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: 2.50%

      Explanation:

      Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the chloride ion channels, leading to the thickening of respiratory and other secretions. It is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that a person must inherit two copies of the defective gene, one from each parent, to develop the disease. The most common defective allele is carried by approximately 1 in 20 people.

      If a man with CF has children with a woman who does not carry the recessive gene, then none of their children will be affected by the disease. However, they will all be carriers of the CF gene. On the other hand, if the woman is a carrier of the CF gene, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit one copy of the defective gene from each parent and be affected by the disease. The remaining 50% of the children will inherit one copy of the defective gene and one normal gene, making them carriers of the CF gene but not affected by the disease.

      In summary, the probability of any child being affected by CF is 2.5% if one parent has the defective gene and the other does not. It is important for individuals who are carriers of the CF gene to be aware of their status and seek genetic counseling before planning to have children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which form of vitamin D is the most active in the human body?...

    Incorrect

    • Which form of vitamin D is the most active in the human body?

      Your Answer: 24,25 (OH) 2 vitamin D

      Correct Answer: 1, 25 (OH) 2 vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The Process of Vitamin D Production and Activation

      Vitamin D comes in two forms, D2 and D3. D3 can be produced in the skin through a reaction that requires UV light, while D2 cannot. Both forms can also be obtained through diet, with some foods now being supplemented with Vitamin D. However, the production of Vitamin D3 in the skin can be affected by various factors such as seasons, latitude, clothing, sun block, and skin tone, making it difficult for individuals to get adequate levels of Vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially in the UK during winter.

      Once absorbed into the lymph, Vitamin D2 and D3 circulate in the bloodstream and reach the liver. Here, the liver enzyme 25-hydroxylase adds an OH group to the Vitamin D molecule, resulting in 25(OH) Vitamin D. The compound then travels to the kidney, where the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase adds another OH group, creating the active form of Vitamin D, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. When there is enough of this active form, an inactive metabolite called 24,25 (OH)2Vitamin D is produced instead. this process is important in ensuring adequate Vitamin D levels for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The Krebs or TCA cycle is a series of metabolic processes beginning with...

    Incorrect

    • The Krebs or TCA cycle is a series of metabolic processes beginning with the synthesis of citrate from acetyl-CoA which results in a number of important metabolic products. Where in the cell does this cycle occur?

      Your Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Cellular Processes and Organelles

      Metabolic processes in the cell occur in specific locations. Acetyl-CoA production and the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrium, while glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. The nucleus is the central structure of the cell that contains DNA and is double membrane-bound. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for packaging and transporting proteins, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs a similar function but lacks ribosomes.

      It is important to understand where these processes occur in the cell to better understand their functions and how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell. The mitochondrium is responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP, while the cytoplasm is where glucose is broken down during glycolysis. The nucleus is where genetic information is stored and replicated, and the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and transport.

      In summary, the cell is a complex system with various organelles that perform specific functions. where these processes occur in the cell is crucial to how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is a good dietary source of vitamin A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a good dietary source of vitamin A?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin A in Our Body

      Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that can be found in various sources such as liver, fish liver oils, dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, and mangoes. It can also be added to certain foods like cereals and margarines. This nutrient plays a crucial role in our body as it is required for vision, growth and development of tissues, regulation of gene transcription, and synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways.

      One of the primary functions of vitamin A is to support our vision. It is a component of rhodopsin, a pigment that is necessary for the rod cells of the retina. Without vitamin A, our eyesight can be compromised, leading to various eye problems. Additionally, vitamin A is also essential for the growth and development of many types of tissues in our body. It helps in maintaining healthy skin, teeth, and bones.

      Moreover, vitamin A is involved in regulating gene transcription, which is the process of converting DNA into RNA. This nutrient also plays a role in the synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways. These processes are essential for the proper functioning of our body.

      In conclusion, vitamin A is a vital nutrient that our body needs to function correctly. It is essential for our vision, growth and development of tissues, regulation of gene transcription, and synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways. Therefore, it is crucial to include vitamin A-rich foods in our diet or take supplements if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells?

      Your Answer: Process of proteins

      Explanation:

      The Golgi Apparatus, Cell Division, and Homeostasis

      The Golgi apparatus is a structure found in eukaryotic cells that consists of flattened membrane stacks. Its primary function is to modify proteins that have been synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, preparing them for secretion or transport within the cell. However, the Golgi apparatus is not directly involved in cell division, which is controlled by the nucleus.

      Cell homeostasis, on the other hand, is primarily maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump. This mechanism ensures that the cell’s internal environment remains stable. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport mechanism that involves the binding of three intracellular sodium ions to the protein. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) donates a phosphate group to the protein, which causes it to change shape and release the sodium ions out of the cell.

      The protein then accepts two extracellular potassium ions, and the donated phosphate group detaches, causing the protein to revert to its original shape. This allows the potassium ions to enter the cell, increasing the intracellular potassium concentration and decreasing the intracellular sodium concentration. This process is in contrast to the extracellular conditions.

      In summary, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins for secretion or transport, while cell division is controlled by the nucleus. Cell homeostasis is maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions to stabilize the cell’s internal environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the primary function of riboflavin in the B vitamin group? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary function of riboflavin in the B vitamin group?

      Your Answer: Energy production via the Krebs cycle

      Correct Answer: Mopping up free radicals

      Explanation:

      The Role of Riboflavin in the Body

      Riboflavin, also known as vitamin B2, is a B-vitamin that plays a crucial role in the body. One of its functions is to act as an antioxidant, mopping up free radicals that can cause damage to cells. However, if the metabolites formed during this process are not excreted promptly, the free radicals can be generated again. Riboflavin is also involved in the production of blue-light sensitive pigments in the eye, which help establish the circadian rhythm. This function is not related to visual acuity.

      Riboflavin is found in a variety of foods, including milk and offal. Deficiency of this vitamin is rare, but when it does occur, it can cause non-specific effects on the skin and mucous membranes. There is no evidence of clear long-lasting damage from riboflavin deficiency. Overall, riboflavin is an important nutrient that plays a vital role in maintaining good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
      Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.

      What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament

      Explanation:

      Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports

      Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.

      Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (18/19) 95%
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