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Question 1
Correct
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A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage. On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg. The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following: pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45), PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45), BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3), Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27), SaO2 94%. The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?
Your Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.
Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.
An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started. What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?
Your Answer: 26-29 kg
Correct Answer: 20-25kg
Explanation:For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:
Weight = (age + 4) × 2
The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.
This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.
In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.
However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.
The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability
Explanation:The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood€“brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.
Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.
In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.
In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion. A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute. Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?
Your Answer: 250 mL/minute
Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1Fats:
RQ = 0.7Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQEthyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.
200/300 = 0.67 RQ
For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.
When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?
Your Answer: Gelofusine
Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose
Explanation:The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.
Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.
0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
Tonicity – hypertonic
Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 1070.9% N. Saline:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 05% Dextrose:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 170Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 0Hartmann’s solution:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 9 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:
Your Answer: In a neutral thermal environment
Explanation:The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.
Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.
The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:
Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)
The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:
It should follow a 12 -hour fast
No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter. Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?
Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).
Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.
The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer: The lowest level of the pleural lower margin is at the tenth rib in the mid-clavicular line
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer: Decreases during seizure activity
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?
Your Answer: Elective inguinal hernia surgery
Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma
Explanation:Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.
The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.
The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits. Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?
Your Answer: Sodium and potassium cations
Explanation:The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.
2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity
313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5
Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.
The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.
The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.
The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:
OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity
Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times. Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?
Your Answer: Local autoregulation
Explanation:Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.
The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.
However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.
Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer: interstitial<intravascular
Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5% dextrose within a 15-minute period. Which of the following mechanisms is expected to affect the urine output?
Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis
Correct Answer: Inhibition of arginine vasopressin (AVP) secretion
Explanation:Changes in the osmolality of body fluids (changes as minor as 1% are sufficient) play the most important role in regulating AVP secretion. The receptors that monitor changes in osmolality of body fluids (termed osmoreceptors) are distinct from the cells that synthesize and secrete AVP, and are located in the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) of the hypothalamus. The osmoreceptors sense changes in body osmolality by either shrinking or swelling. When the effective osmolality of the plasma increases, the osmoreceptors send signals to the AVP synthesizing/secreting cells located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, and AVP synthesis and secretion are stimulated. Conversely, when the effective osmolality of the plasma is reduced, secretion is inhibited. Because AVP is rapidly degraded in the plasma, circulating levels can be reduced to zero within minutes after secretion is inhibited.
In this scenario, the osmolality of the plasma will decrease to an estimate of 2.5%, hence inhibition of AVP.
Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors is incorrect because the increase in plasma volume is still below the threshold for its activation.
Osmotic diuresis is incorrect because 5% dextrose is isotonic, hence osmotic diuresis is not probable.
Renin is inhibited when an excess of NaCl in the tubular fluid is sensed by the macula densa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?
Your Answer: Ferrochelatase
Correct Answer: ALA synthetase
Explanation:Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.
There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer: Pyruvate condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the operating room. During general anaesthesia, ventilation is achieved using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1L/min, with and air/oxygen and sevoflurane combination. The capnograph trace is normal. Changes to the end tidal and baseline CO2 measurements at 10 and 20 mins respectively are seen on the capnograph below: (10 minutes and 20 minutes). End-tidal CO2 4.9 kPa, 8.4 kPa. Baseline end-tidal CO2 0.2 kPa, 2.4 kPa. The other vitals were as follows: Pulse 100-105 beats per minute, Systolic blood pressure 120-133 mmHg, O2 saturation 99%. The next most important immediate step is which of the following?
Your Answer: Increase the minute volume
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:This scenario describes rebreathing management.
Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.
It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.
Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.
Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:
1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 72-year old farmer is hospitalized with acute respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Suspected organophosphate poisoning. Which one is the best mechanism for acute toxicity caused by organophosphates?
Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The toxicity of organophosphorus (OP) nerve agents is manifested through irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) at the cholinergic synapses, which stops nerve signal transmission, resulting in a cholinergic crisis and eventually death of the poisoned person. Oxime compounds used in nerve agent antidote regimen reactivate nerve agent-inhibited AChE and halt the development of this cholinergic crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction. Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:
Your Answer: Myoglobin
Correct Answer: Red blood cells
Explanation:The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin 200 200
Interstitial space 25 160Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.
FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
PV-plasma volume (3L)
TG-total globular volume (5L)
Hb-haemoglobin concentration
SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period. Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?
Your Answer: 1100 kcal
Correct Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit. Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight. What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?
Your Answer: 610 ml
Correct Answer: 732 ml
Explanation:After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:
1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hrHence
1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
Total = 61 ml/hr61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury. The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following: Airway-patent, Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds. Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg. Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain. Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established. The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?
Your Answer: Immediate transfusion of four units of O -ve blood
Correct Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg
Explanation:These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale.
Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.
This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.
This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.
There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: It predicts the response to surgical incision
Correct Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following: Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L), K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L), Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L), HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L), BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L), Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L), Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L). Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?
Your Answer: 300-313
Explanation:Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.
Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:
Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L
Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)
Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?
Your Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity
Explanation:When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.
The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.
The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured. The following is a description of the clinical examination: Anxious, Capillary refill time of 3 seconds, Cool peripheries, Pulse 120 beats per minute, Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg, Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?
Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:
Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose. Which of the following best describes its make-up?
Your Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 30 mequivalents and glucose 40 g
Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g
Explanation:30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.
As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.
Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids. Of the following physical principles, which is the most accurate and reliable method of measuring osmolality?
Your Answer: Lowering of vapour pressure
Correct Answer: Depression of freezing point
Explanation:Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of dissolved particles in solution. They do not depend on the identities of the solutes.
All of the above have colligative properties with the exception of depression of melting point.
The osmolality from the concentration of a substance in a solution is measured by an osmometer. The freezing point of a solution can determines concentration of a solution and this can be measured by using a freezing point osmometer. This is applicable as depression of freezing point is directly correlated to concentration.
Vapour pressure osmometers, which measure vapour pressure, may miss certain volatiles such as CO2, ammonia and alcohol that are in the solution
The use of a freezing point osmometer provides the most accurate and reliable results for the majority of applications.
Colligative properties does not include melting point depression . Mixtures of substances in which the liquid phase components are insoluble, display a melting point depression and a melting range or interval instead of a fixed melting point.
The magnitude of the melting point depression depends on the mixture composition.
The melting point depression is used to determine the purity and identity of compounds. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) cream is a mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine and is used as a topical local anaesthetic. The melting point of the combined drugs is lower than that individually and is below room temperature (18°C).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Correct
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Given the following values: Expired tidal volume = 800 ml, Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O, PEEP = 10 cmH2O. Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.
Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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