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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman presents with confusion after experiencing a seizure. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with confusion after experiencing a seizure. She has a past medical history of epilepsy and is currently under the care of the community psychiatry team. Upon examination, her temperature is 37°C, blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg, and she has a coarse tremor with a pulse of 90 bpm. Brisk reflexes and 7 beats of nystagmus on lateral gaze are also noted. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      – Lithium toxicity occurs at levels above 1.4 mmol/L
      – Symptoms include anorexia, diarrhea, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, dysarthria, confusion, and seizures
      – Fine tremor can occur in therapeutic range, but becomes coarser in toxicity
      – If allowed to progress, toxicity can result in coma with hyperreflexia and increased tone, and irreversible neurological damage
      – Treatment is supportive, with attention to electrolytes, fluid balance, renal function, and seizure control
      – Bowel irrigation can be used in significant recent overdose, diuretics should be avoided, and haemodialysis may be required
      – Benzodiazepines can control agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse assumes that a patient is lazy because of their weight?

      Your Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Correct Answer: Halo effect

      Explanation:

      The Halo Effect: How One Perception Influences Another

      The halo effect is a cognitive bias that occurs when our perception of one characteristic of a person of object is influenced by our perception of another. This means that if we perceive someone as attractive, we may also assume that they are intelligent of kind, even if we have no evidence to support these assumptions. The halo effect can have a significant impact on our judgments and decisions, as it can lead us to make assumptions based on limited information. It is important to be aware of this bias and to try to make judgments based on objective criteria rather than subjective perceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 3 - What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old individual with schizophrenia experiences the belief that their thoughts are being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual with schizophrenia experiences the belief that their thoughts are being controlled externally through a process of telephony. What type of speech disorder is probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Clang association

      Correct Answer: Neologism

      Explanation:

      Neologism is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person creates new words of uses existing words in a way that only makes sense to them. Alogia is a difficulty in speaking, which can be caused by a lack of thoughts of negative thought disorder. Clang associations occur when words are linked based on their sound rather than their meaning. Logoclonia is a condition where a person gets stuck on a particular word, often repeating syllables of parts of words. Stuttering is a speech disorder characterized by involuntary repetitions, prolongations, and pauses in speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 5 - What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum?

      Your Answer: Physiologic tremor

      Correct Answer: Intention tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 6 - What is the term used to describe a patient who remains in the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a patient who remains in the same position for several minutes after a doctor places their hands on their head during an examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerea flexibilitas

      Explanation:

      Unlike forms of automatic obedience like mitmachen and mitgehen, where the limb will move even after the force is removed, cerea flexibilitas results in the limb staying in place once the force is no longer applied.

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 7 - An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract...

    Incorrect

    • An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract 3 again from the product of that calculation. What is being assessed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 8 - An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of...

    Incorrect

    • An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of the following medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The previously assumed higher risk is now uncertain and may not actually exist. We include this question to ensure that you are aware of the past association, as it may still be present in exam materials that have not been revised.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 9 - A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class...

    Incorrect

    • A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class is too scared to ask him to hang out. Instead, she makes fun of him. What defense mechanism could be at play?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 10 - What is the term used to refer to the inactive X chromosome that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to refer to the inactive X chromosome that occurs due to Lyonization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barr body

      Explanation:

      Lyonization: The Process of X-Inactivation

      The X chromosome is crucial for proper development and cell viability, containing over 1,000 essential genes. However, females carry two copies of the X chromosome, which can result in a potentially toxic double dose of X-linked genes. To address this imbalance, females undergo a process called Lyonization, of X-inactivation, where one of their two X chromosomes is transcriptionally silenced. The silenced X chromosome then condenses into a compact structure known as a Barr body, which remains in a silent state.

      X-inactivation occurs randomly, with no preference for the paternal or maternal X chromosome. It takes place early in embryogenesis, soon after fertilization when the dividing conceptus is about 16-32 cells big. This process occurs in all somatic cells of women, but not in germ cells involved in forming gametes. X-inactivation affects most, but not all, genes on the X chromosome. If a cell has more than two X chromosomes, the extra Xs are also inactivated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 11 - Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 12 - A young adult presents with a 2 year history of an unusual movement...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult presents with a 2 year history of an unusual movement disorder associated with memory problems. He denies any past psychiatric history but does recall that one of his parents died early from a similar movement problem. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 13 - Out of the given conditions, which one is an example of aneuploidy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the given conditions, which one is an example of aneuploidy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers

      Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.

      Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.

      The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 14 - The doctor asks the patient the following question:
    Sometimes when kids feel really sad,...

    Incorrect

    • The doctor asks the patient the following question:
      Sometimes when kids feel really sad, they might have thoughts of hurting themselves. Have you ever had thoughts like that?
      What technique is he using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Validation

      Explanation:

      To encourage patients to express themselves freely, doctors use various techniques such as validation, confrontation, clarification, facilitation, and open-ended questions. Validation involves making patients feel more comfortable by normalizing their thoughts, feelings, of behaviors. Confrontation involves pointing out something that the patient may be missing of denying. Clarification is used to clarify something that the patient has said. Facilitation involves using verbal and non-verbal cues to encourage patients to continue sharing. Open-ended questions are used to prompt patients to respond in their own words, rather than with a simple yes or no answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
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  • Question 15 - Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms in schizophrenia due to the blockage of D-2 receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mesocortical pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 16 - Which one of these bases is not classified as a pyrimidine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these bases is not classified as a pyrimidine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenine

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides: The Building Blocks of DNA and RNA

      Nucleotides are the fundamental units of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Each nucleotide consists of three components: a sugar molecule (deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous bases can be classified into two categories: purines and pyrimidines. The purine bases include adenine and guanine, while the pyrimidine bases are cytosine, thymine (in DNA), and uracil (in RNA).

      The arrangement of nucleotides in DNA and RNA determines the genetic information that is passed from one generation to the next. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA forms the genetic code that determines the traits of an organism. RNA, on the other hand, plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by carrying the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes, where proteins are synthesized.

      Understanding the structure and function of nucleotides is essential for understanding the molecular basis of life. The discovery of the structure of DNA and the role of nucleotides in genetic information has revolutionized the field of biology and has led to many breakthroughs in medicine, biotechnology, and genetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 17 - A suspect awaiting trial provides vague responses to the inquiries posed by the...

    Incorrect

    • A suspect awaiting trial provides vague responses to the inquiries posed by the investigators. He has a past of participating in a brawl and experiencing a head trauma. During his confinement, he has reported hearing voices that seem to originate from inside his mind.
      What is the most probable scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ganser syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ganser syndrome is characterized by approximate answers, clouding of consciousness, somatic conversion features, and pseudohallucinations. It is controversially classified as a reactive psychosis, with stressful life events as a possible trigger. Pseudologia fantastica, of pathological lying, involves grandiose and extreme untruthful statements that may be believed by the individual, often associated with personality disorders such as histrionic of dissocial and precipitated by major life crises. Cryptomnesia involves falsely recalling an idea, thought, of song as new and original. Confabulation is the falsification of memory in clear consciousness, often used to cover up memory gaps. Dissociative fugue state involves narrowing of consciousness, wandering away from normal surroundings, and subsequent amnesia, with the individual appearing to be in good contact with their environment and maintaining basic self-care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 18 - What is the preferred antidepressant for individuals experiencing depression after a heart attack?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred antidepressant for individuals experiencing depression after a heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline is the preferred medication for treating post-MI depression as it has minimal impact on heart rate, blood pressure, and the QTc interval. Tricyclics are not recommended due to their potential to cause postural hypotension, increased heart rate, and QTc interval prolongation. Fluoxetine may be used with caution as it has a slight effect on heart rate but does not significantly affect blood pressure of the QTc interval. Trazodone should be used with care as it can cause significant postural hypotension and QTc interval prolongation in post-MI patients. Venlafaxine should be avoided in these patients as it can increase blood pressure, particularly at higher doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 19 - Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present in all humans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paul Ekman

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 20 - What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sentence completion

      Explanation:

      Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests

      The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.

      The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (0/2) 0%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
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