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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary:
Your Answer: Angiotensin II
Correct Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide
Explanation:ADH release is inhibited by low plasma osmolality, alcohol, caffeine, glucocorticoids and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).ADH release is stimulated primarily by raised plasma osmolality detected by osmoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus. Other factors that increase ADH release include: extracellular fluid volume depletion, angiotensin II, nausea, pain, stress, exercise, emotion, hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following vitamins is not paired correctly with its deficiency syndrome:
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 - Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Explanation:Clinical Effects of vitamin deficiency include:Vitamin C – ScurvyThiamine (Vitamin B1) – Beriberi/Wernicke-Korsakoff syndromeVitamin B12 – Megaloblastic anaemia/Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cordFolate – Megaloblastic anaemiaVitamin D – Osteomalacia/RicketsVitamin K – Defective clottingVitamin A – Blindness
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding the UK routine childhood immunisation schedule which of the following vaccines is NOT given at 12 months:
Your Answer: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
Correct Answer: Polio
Explanation:At 12 months the following vaccines are given:Hib (4th dose) and Meningococcal group CPneumococcal (13 serotypes) (2nd dose)Measles, mumps and rubellaMeningococcal group B (3rd dose)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle:
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:About 25% of filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the the loop of Henle.
Water-impermeable ascending loop of Henle plays a central role in maintaining salt-water balance by creating the cortico-medullary osmotic gradient to set up urinary concentrating ability and reabsorbing approximately 25% of the filtered NaCl load.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?
Your Answer: Intracranial neoplasm
Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months
Explanation:Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:Internal bleeding is present.Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.Stroke in the previous two yearsIntracranial tumourAneurysm or arteriovenous malformationHaemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.VasculitisRetinopathy caused by hypertension
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe chest pain. His medical record shows that he had coronary angioplasty one week ago, during which he was administered abciximab. Which of the following haematological diseases has a similar mechanism of action to this drug?
Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
Explanation:Abciximab is glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that decreases aggregation of platelets by prevent their cross-linking. In Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia there are low levels of these same receptors leading to decreased bridging of platelets as fibrinogen cannot attach. There is increased bleeding time both in this disease and when there is use of abciximab.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with a known history of bronchiectasis has lung function testing carried out and is found to have significant airways obstruction.Which of the following lung volumes or capacities is LEAST likely to be decreased in this case? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:Obstructive lung disorders are characterised by airway obstruction. Many obstructive diseases of the lung result from narrowing of the smaller bronchi and larger bronchioles, often because of excessive contraction of the smooth muscle itself.In obstructive lung disease, FEV1is reduced to <80% of normal and FVC is usually reduced but to a lesser extent than FEV1. The FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced to 80% in the presence of symptomsModerate airflow obstruction = FEV1of 50-79%Severe airflow obstruction = FEV1of 30-49%Very severe airflow obstruction = FEV1<30%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hyperosmolar.
Explanation:Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a fluid replacement strategy used to prevent or treat dehydration. It is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries. Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.ORT contains glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia. It also contains essential mineral salts.Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours for the treatment of mild dehydration.Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids And Electrolytes
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a fence causing it to bleed. Upon applying pressure for a few minutes, the bleeding stops. Which one of the following physiological components of the blood is responsible for the primary haemostasis reaction, such as in this case?
Your Answer: Activation of factor XII
Correct Answer: Platelet plug formation
Explanation:Haemostasis is your body’s defence against an injury that causes bleeding. It stops bleeding in three main steps: 1) Primary haemostasis – formation of a weak platelet plug- The primary reaction of the body is to cause local vasoconstriction at the site of injury and decrease blood flow to the affected area- the release of cytokines and inflammatory markers lead to adhesion of platelets and aggregation at the site of injury forming a platelet plug- the injured vessel wall has exposed subendothelial collagen that releases von Willebrand factor Any damage to the vessel wall causes the release of the Von Willebrand factor, which is necessary for platelet adhesion. Tissue Thromboplastin is also released, which activates the coagulation pathway, a component of secondary haemostasis. The coagulation cascade ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.2) Secondary haemostasis 3) Fibrinolysis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The most important Complement protein for antigen opsonization is:
Your Answer: C5a
Correct Answer: C3b
Explanation:Phagocytosis is largely responsible for depletion of cells coated with antibodies. Cells opsonized by IgG antibodies are recognized by phagocyte Fc receptors, which are specific for the Fc portions of some IgG subclasses. In addition, when IgM or IgG antibodies are deposited on the surfaces of cells, they may activate the complement system by the classical pathway. Complement activation generates by-products, mainly C3b and C4b, which are deposited on the surfaces of the cells and recognized by phagocytes that express receptors for these proteins. The net result is phagocytosis of the opsonized cells and their destruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Regarding drug interactions with erythromycin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Erythromycin increases the risk of QT-interval prolongation in patients taking drugs that increase the QT interval.
Correct Answer: Erythromycin decreases plasma levels of warfarin.
Explanation:Erythromycin and clarithromycin inhibit cytochrome P450-mediated metabolism of warfarin, phenytoin and carbamazepine and may lead to accumulation of these drugs. There is an increased risk of myopathy (due to cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP3A4 inhibition) if erythromycin or clarithromycin is taken with atorvastatin or simvastatin. Erythromycin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline, and theophylline may also reduce absorption of oral erythromycin. All macrolides can prolong the QT-interval and concomitant use of drugs that prolong the QT interval is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An injury to which nerve affects innervation to the adductor portion of the adductor magnus?
Your Answer: Femoral nerve
Correct Answer: Posterior branch of the obturator nerve
Explanation:The nerves that supply the adductor magnus muscle have an embryologic origin from the anterior divisions of the lumbosacral plexus and include the obturator nerve, posterior division (L2-4), and the tibial portion of the sciatic nerve (L4). It is innervated by the posterior division of the obturator nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not affect serum potassium levels:
Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Calcium gluconate is given to antagonise cardiac cell membrane excitability to reduce the risk of arrhythmias. It has no effect on serum potassium levels unlike the alternative drugs listed above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids And Electrolytes
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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The percentage of patients with hepatitis B that develop chronic infection is about:
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:With hepatitis B, about 90% of people will develop lifelong immunity after clearing the infection. Chronic hepatitis develops in about 10% of patients and this may be complicated by cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma. There is a very high risk of chronic infection and hepatocellular carcinoma when there is congenital infection. The risk of this in healthy adults is only about 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a red, hot, swollen great toe. A diagnosis of acute gout is made. His past medical history includes heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to use in the treatment of his gout? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 53 year old women presents to the emergency room with a chronic cough. The pulmonary receptors likely to be involved in causing her cough are:
Your Answer: Stretch receptors
Correct Answer: Irritant receptors
Explanation:Throughout the airways, there are irritant receptors which are located between epithelial cells which are made of rapidly adapting afferent myelinated fibres in the vagus nerve. A cough is as a result of receptor stimulation located in the trachea, hyperpnoea is as a result of receptor stimulation in the lower airway. Stimulation may also result in reflex bronchial and laryngeal constriction. Many factors can stimulate irritant receptors. These include irritant gases, smoke and dust, airway deformation, pulmonary congestion, rapid inflation/deflation and inflammation. Deep augmented breaths or sighs seen every 5 – 20 minutes at rest are due to stimulation of these irritant receptors. This reverses the slow lung collapse that occurs in quiet breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cohort study used to investigate the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and a future outcome:
Your Answer: Can measure absolute and relative risk directly
Correct Answer: Particularly suitable for rare diseases
Explanation:Advantages: ideal for studying associations between an exposure and an outcome when the exposure is uncommon, the time sequence of events can be assessed, they can provide information on a wide range of disease outcomes, the absolute and relative risk of disease can be measured directly, they can give a direct estimation of disease incidence ratesDisadvantages: costly and can take long periods of time if the outcome is delayed, subject to subject-selection and loss to follow-up bias, large sample size required for rare outcome of interest so it is not useful for rare diseases, prone to confounding
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT typically present in the nasopharyngeal flora:
Your Answer: Bacteroides spp.
Explanation:Bacteroides spp. are typically found in the normal flora of the lower gastrointestinal tract. Species commonly found in the flora of the nasopharynx include: Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Corynebacterium spp., Moraxella spp. and Candida spp.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old student presents with a headache and petechial rash. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected, with a causative agent of Neisseria meningitidis. Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Neisseria meningitidis?
Your Answer: Most invasive infections are caused by the group Y serotype
Correct Answer: The antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsule is the main determinant of its pathogenicity
Explanation:N. meningitidis is a Gram-negative cocci and can be found as a commensal as well as an invasive pathogen. It is an important etiologic agent of endemic and epidemic meningitis and meningococcaemia and rarely pneumonia, purulent arthritis, or endophthalmitis. N. meningitidis has also been recovered from urogenital and rectal sites as a result of oral-genital contact. Meningococcal carriage, usually involving nonencapsulated strains, may cause an increase in protective antibody against the pathogenic strains. Of the 12 meningococcal encapsulated serogroups, A, B, C, Y, and W-135 account for most cases of disease in the world. N. meningitidis possesses a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic and serves as an important virulence factor.It can be found on the mucosal surfaces of the nasopharynx and oropharynx in 30% of the human population. The organism is transmitted by close contact with respiratory droplet secretions from a carrier to a new host. Only a few newly colonized hosts develop meningococcal disease, with the highest incidence being found in infants and adolescents.The quadrivalent vaccine Menactra is a polysaccharide-protein conjugated vaccine with antigens to serogroups A, C, Y, and W-135. This conjugate vaccine is licensed for people 2 to 55 years old. This vaccine does not protect against meningitis caused by serogroup B because group B polysaccharide is a very poor immunogen in humans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located:
Your Answer: Between the fundus of the bladder and the ampulla of the rectum
Explanation:In a triangular area between the vasa deferentia, the bladder and rectum are separated only by rectovesical fascia, commonly known as Denonvillier’s fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A patient suffers an injury to his thigh that damages the nerve that innervates pectineus.Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Anterior rami of lumbar nerves L1-L3
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve
Explanation:Pectineus is innervated by the femoral nerve. It may also receive a branch from the obturator nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 22
Correct
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Fat necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:
Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Fat necrosis typically occurs following either direct trauma or from enzymatic lipolysis in acute pancreatitis, where release of triglyceride elicits a rapid inflammatory response and fat is phagocytosed by neutrophils and macrophages with subsequent fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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Question 23
Correct
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You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the examination. You suspect BPH. Anatomically, the prostate has four main lobes. Which of the lobes is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?
Your Answer: Median lobe
Explanation:Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also known as benign prostatic hypertrophy, is characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. The prostate is divided into four major lobes. The median lobe is the most commonly affected by benign prostatic enlargement, resulting in urethral obstruction and urine symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate?Â
Your Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:Respiratory alkalosis: – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)- Pulmonary embolism- Pneumothorax- CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)- High altitude- Pregnancy- Early stages of aspirin overdoseRespiratory acidosis:- COPD- Life-threatening asthma- Pulmonary oedema- Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)- Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy- Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)- ObesityMetabolic alkalosis:- Vomiting- Cardiac arrest- Multi-organ failure- Cystic fibrosis- Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)- Cushing’s syndrome- Conn’s syndromeMetabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):- Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)- Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)- Renal failure- Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):- Renal tubular acidosis- Diarrhoea- Ammonium chloride ingestion- Adrenal insufficiency
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of visual impairment in his right eye. On examination, you notice that neither his right nor left pupil constricts when you shine a light in his right eye. When you flash a light in his left eye, the pupils of both his left and right eyes constrict. Which of the following nerves is the most likely to be affected:
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:In full optic nerve palsy, the afferent pupillary light reflex is lost. Because the afferent optic nerve does not sense light flashed in the afflicted eye, the ipsilateral direct and contralateral consensual reflexes are gone. However, the contralateral direct and ipsilateral consensual reflexes are intact because the efferent oculomotor nerve is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 26
Correct
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Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II:
Your Answer: Lungs
Explanation:Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the removal of two C-terminal residues by the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). This primarily occurs in the lungs, although it does also occur to a lesser degree in endothelial cells and renal epithelial cells.The main actions of angiotensin II are:Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle (resulting in increased blood pressure)Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus (resulting in an increased filtration fraction and preserved glomerular filtration rate)Stimulation of aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortexStimulation of anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) release from the posterior pituitaryStimulation of thirst via the hypothalamusActs on the Na+/H+ exchanger in the proximal tubule of the kidney to stimulate Na+reabsorption and H+excretion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Bile breaks lipids down into monoglycerides and fatty acids.
Correct Answer: Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater.
Explanation:Bile is synthesised in the liver. Bile functions to eliminate endogenous and exogenous substances from the liver, to neutralise gastric acid in the small intestine, and to emulsify fats in the small intestine and facilitate their digestion and absorption. Bile is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. Bile passes out of the gallbladder via the cystic duct. Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater regulated by the sphincter of Oddi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the frontal lobe is which of the following?
Your Answer: Personality change
Correct Answer: Loss of two-point discrimination
Explanation:Lesions in different areas give rise to different symptoms. Lesions of the parietal lobe give rise to loss of two-point discrimination. Lesions to Broca’s area give rise to expressive dysphasia results from damage Lesions to the primary motor cortex give rise to contralateral weakness of the face and arm. Lesions to the prefrontal cortex give rise to personality change. Lesions to the frontal eye field give rise to conjugate eye deviation towards side of lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, you do not agree with this medication, as you can see on his chart that the patient has several other comorbidities. Out of the following, what is NOT a contraindication to using hyoscine butyl bromide?
Your Answer: Closed-angle glaucoma
Correct Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.It has the following contraindications: 1. Closed-angle glaucoma2. Gastrointestinal obstruction3. Intestinal atony4. Paralytic ileus5. Toxic megacolon6. Severe ulcerative colitis7. Significant bladder outflow obstruction8. Urinary retention9. Myasthenia gravisUse cautiously in the following conditions: 1. Acute myocardial infarction (in adults)2. Arrhythmias (may be worsened)3. Autonomic neuropathy4. Hypertension5. Cardiac insufficiency (due to association with tachycardia)6. Congestive cardiac failure (maybe worsened)7. Cardiac surgery (due to association with tachycardia)8. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease9. Ulcerative colitis10. Prostatic hyperplasia11. Use in children (increased risk of side effects)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following side effects would you least associated with ciprofloxacin:
Your Answer: Seizures
Correct Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Common side effects include diarrhoea, dizziness, headache, nausea and vomiting.Other adverse effects include: Tendon damage (including rupture), Seizures (in patients with and without epilepsy), QT-interval prolongation, Photosensitivity and Antibiotic-associated colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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