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Question 1
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A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where
a = Number of exposed cases
b = Number of exposed non-cases
c = Number of unexposed cases
d = Number of unexposed non-cases
OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
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A 42-year-old man presents with a watery eye and some purulent discharge. Mucoid discharge can be expressed from the lacrimal punctum. His eye is painful and red while the nasal end of his lower eyelid is swollen. The redness extends further to reach the nasal peri-orbital area. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute dacryocystitis
Explanation:Acute dacryocystitis presents as inflammation of the lacrimal sac and is typically caused by infection. Symptoms of acute dacryocystitis can be pain, redness of the eye and swelling of the nasal aspect of the eye. The eye is usually watery and discharge can be expressed through the lacrimal punctum which is generally mucoid but can also be purulent. Patient can also present with fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
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A 65 yr. old man with hypertension presented with sudden onset right arm weakness which resolved after 10 hrs. He has had 2 similar episodes during the last 6 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His ECG showed atrial fibrillation and the CT scan of his brain was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
Congestive heart failure – 1 point
Hypertension – 1 point
Age ≥75 years – 2 points
Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
Score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 4, so he needs life-long warfarin to prevent a stroke. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
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Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption
Explanation:Giardiasis also known as travellers diarrhoea is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is an anaerobic parasite affecting the small intestine. It can lead to diarrhoea, flatulence, abdominal cramps, malodourous greasy stools and intestinal malabsorption. It can also cause bloody diarrhoea. The investigation of choice is stool examination for trophozoites and cysts. It is treated by metronidazole and tinidazole as first line therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
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Which of the following is not associated with atrial myxoma?
Your Answer: J wave on ECG
Explanation:J waves in an ECG is associated with hypothermia, hypercalcemia, the Brugada syndrome, and idiopathic ventricular fibrillation. The other responses are all associated with atrial myxoma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?
Your Answer: CA 15-3
Explanation:Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle
Explanation:The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
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A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?
Your Answer: CD15
Explanation:The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Six monthly pulses of cyclophosphamide (2 mg/kg)
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
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A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?
Your Answer: 0.025
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
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A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he has been having extreme difficulty in seeing things clearly and now complains of cloudy vision. On fundoscopy, flame-shaped haemorrhages are found in the patient's right eye. Margins of the optic disc were also found to be blurred. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: CRV thrombosis
Explanation:Fundoscopy reveals flame-shaped haemorrhages which are specific to central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). In CRA thrombosis, fundoscopy would show a cherry-red spot. A patient with retinal detachment would give a characteristic history of seeing flashes of light and floaters. Background retinopathy is associated with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
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A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?
Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy. On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0), White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11), Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400), Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118), Total testosterone normal, Free androgen index elevated, LH / FSH ratio 2.2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
Two of the following three criteria are required:
1. Oligo/anovulation
2. Hyperandrogenism
– Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
– Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Clindamycin
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Tetracycline is not recommended in pregnancy because of the risk to fetal development (bones, teeth!). Metronidazole in pregnancy: currently not thought to be an increased risk in pregnancy; however this is not effective against chlamydia. Amoxicillin is shown to be an adequate treatment for chlamydia, so this is the correct answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
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A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. He has developed tense ascites again and a plan is made to site an ascitic drain. His renal function after 2 days is as follows: Na+ 131 mmol/L, K+ 3.8 mmol/L, Urea 12.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 205 µmol/L, Which of the following pathophysiological changes is most likely to be responsible for the declining renal function?
Your Answer: Splanchnic vasodilation
Explanation:Hepatorenal syndrome is renal vasoconstriction that cannot overcome the effects of splanchnic vasodilation. Vasoactive mediators cause this splanchnic vasodilation, reducing SVR, which is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, activating the RAAS system, leading to renal vasoconstriction. However, the overall splanchnic vasodilation effect is greater than this renal vasoconstriction effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?
Your Answer: Neutralises lithium ions
Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity
Explanation:The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.
Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.
Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.
Features of toxicity
Coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
Hyperreflexia
Acute confusion
Seizure
ComaManagement
Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline
Haemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicity
Sodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date and he had a booster tetanus shot 3 years ago. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer: I.M 0.5 ml tetanus toxoid should be administered as single dose
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:The most suitable management step for tetanus prevention in this scenario would be to ensure that the individual receives a tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine if they have not had a booster dose within the last five years. Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccines are routinely given during childhood immunization schedules, but booster doses are recommended every 10 years thereafter to maintain immunity. Since the individual’s immunization history is up to date, if they have received their primary series of tetanus vaccinations and a booster dose within the last five years, no further action would be needed regarding tetanus prevention.
However, if the individual’s immunization status is uncertain or if it has been more than five years since their last tetanus booster, they should receive a tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine promptly. Additionally, if the wound is contaminated or considered high risk for tetanus infection, tetanus immune globulin (TIG) may also be administered for immediate protection against tetanus toxins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for review. His blood tests show: Haemoglobin 11.2 g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL) MCV 87 fl (80 – 96 fL) Sodium 133 mmol/l (137 – 144 mmol/L) Potassium 4.3 mmol/l (3.5 – 4.9 mmol/L) Urea 19.1 mmol/l (2.5 – 7.5 mmol/L) Creatinine 267 μmol/l (60 – 110 μmol/L) Ferritin 150 μg/l (15 – 300 μg/L) C reactive protein <5 mg/l (< 10 mg/L) What is the most appropriate management of his anaemia?
Your Answer: Commence erythropoetin
Correct Answer: Monitor haemoglobin, no treatment required at present
Explanation:Because the patient has chronic kidney disease, we need to consider the associated adverse effects of trying to maintain normal haemoglobin levels (14-18g/dl in this patient) and instead only instigate therapy when the level falls below 11 g/dl. Thus, in this case we should just monitor the haemoglobin levels and not initiate therapy just yet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and admits to a dislike of high fibre foods. The pain has been grumbling for the past couple of weeks and is partially relieved by defecation. He has suffered intermittent diarrhoea. Blood testing reveals a neutrophilia, and there is also a microcytic anaemia. Barium enema shows multiple diverticula, more marked on the left-hand side of the colon. Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Given that he has diverticula in the clinical scenario combined with his presenting symptoms, it is likely that he has diverticular disease. A low fibre diet would support this diagnosis. Acute diverticulitis would require treatment with antibiotics. Depending on the severity (Hinchey classification) would determine if he needs oral or IV antibiotics, hospital admission or outpatient treatment. Sometimes abscesses or micro perforations occur, which typical require drainage and possibly surgical intervention. Diverticular disease is clearly a better answer than other possible answer choices, simply based on the symptoms presented in the prompt (and mention of low fibre).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulsus alternans
Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse
Explanation:DIAGNOSIS:
A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
Bounding pulses
Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
Hepatomegaly -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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