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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man visits his general practitioner (GP), as he is concerned that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his general practitioner (GP), as he is concerned that he may have inherited a heart condition. He is fit and well and has no history of any medical conditions. However, his 28-year-old brother has recently been diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) after collapsing when he was playing football. The patient’s father died suddenly when he was 42, which the family now thinks might have been due to the same condition.
      Which of the following signs is most likely to be found in a patient with this condition?

      Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur unaffected by position

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur decreased by squatting

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ejection Systolic Murmur in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Decreased by Squatting

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition characterized by asymmetrical hypertrophy of both ventricles, with the septum hypertrophying and causing an outflow obstruction of the left ventricle. This obstruction leads to an ejection systolic murmur and reduced cardiac output. However, interestingly, this murmur can be decreased by squatting, which is not typical for most heart murmurs.

      Squatting affects murmurs by increasing afterload and preload, which usually makes heart murmurs louder. However, in HCM, the murmur intensity is decreased due to increased left ventricular size and reduced outflow obstruction. Other findings on examination may include a jerky pulse and a double apex beat.

      While HCM is often asymptomatic, it can present with dyspnea, angina, and syncope. Patients are also at risk of sudden cardiac death, most commonly due to ventricular arrhythmias. Poor prognostic factors include syncope, family history of sudden death, onset of symptoms at a young age, ventricular tachycardia on Holter monitoring, abnormal blood pressure response during exercise, and septal thickness greater than 3 cm on echocardiogram.

      In summary, understanding the ejection systolic murmur in HCM and its unique response to squatting can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe?

      Your Answer: One week following myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Severe aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Exercise Testing

      Exercise testing is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate a patient’s cardiovascular health. However, there are certain conditions that make exercise testing unsafe or inappropriate. These conditions are known as contraindications.

      Absolute contraindications for exercise testing include acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) within the past two days, unstable angina, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias, symptomatic severe aortic stenosis, uncontrolled heart failure, acute pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarction, acute myocarditis or pericarditis, and acute aortic dissection. These conditions are considered absolute contraindications because they pose a significant risk to the patient’s health and safety during exercise testing.

      Relative contraindications for exercise testing include left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mental or physical impairment leading to an inability to exercise adequately, and high-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. These conditions are considered relative contraindications because they may increase the risk of complications during exercise testing, but the benefits of testing may outweigh the risks in certain cases.

      It is important for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate a patient’s medical history and current health status before recommending exercise testing. If contraindications are present, alternative diagnostic tests may be necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart...

    Correct

    • A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart disease and identified stenosis of the right coronary artery resulting in reduced perfusion of the myocardium of the right atrium. Which structure related to the right atrium is most likely to have been impacted by the decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Supply to Cardiac Conduction System

      The heart’s conduction system is responsible for regulating the heartbeat. The following are the coronary arteries that supply blood to the different parts of the cardiac conduction system:

      Sinoatrial Node
      The sinoatrial node, which is the primary pacemaker of the heart, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 60% of cases through a sinoatrial nodal branch.

      Atrioventricular Node
      The atrioventricular node, which is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse before it reaches the ventricles, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals through the atrioventricular nodal branch.

      Atrioventricular Bundle
      The atrioventricular bundle, which conducts the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, is supplied by numerous septal arteries that mostly arise from the anterior interventricular artery, a branch of the left coronary artery.

      Left Bundle Branch
      The left bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the left ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the left coronary artery.

      Right Bundle Branch
      The right bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the right ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old obese woman is admitted with episodic retrosternal chest pain not relieved...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old obese woman is admitted with episodic retrosternal chest pain not relieved by rest, for the past 3 weeks. The pain is described as squeezing in nature, and is not affected by meals or breathing. The episodic pain is of fixed pattern and is of same intensity. She has a background of diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia and hypertension. Her family history is remarkable for a paternal myocardial infarction at the age of 63. She is currently haemodynamically stable.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute coronary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Coronary Syndrome from Other Cardiac Conditions

      The patient in question presents with retrosternal chest pain that is squeezing in nature and unrelated to meals or breathing. This highly suggests a cardiac origin for the pain. However, the episodic nature of the pain and its duration of onset over three weeks point towards unstable angina, a type of acute coronary syndrome.

      It is important to differentiate this condition from other cardiac conditions such as aortic dissection, which presents with sudden-onset tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. Stable angina pectoris, on the other hand, manifests with episodic cardiac chest pain that has a fixed pattern of precipitation, duration, and termination, lasting at least one month.

      Myocarditis is associated with a constant stabbing chest pain and recent flu-like symptoms or upper respiratory infection. Aortic stenosis may also cause unstable angina, but the most common cause of this condition is critical coronary artery occlusion.

      In summary, careful consideration of the pattern, duration, and characteristics of chest pain can help differentiate acute coronary syndrome from other cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What are the clinical signs that indicate a child has acute rheumatic fever...

    Incorrect

    • What are the clinical signs that indicate a child has acute rheumatic fever carditis?

      Your Answer: Shortened PR interval on ECG

      Correct Answer: Pericardial rub

      Explanation:

      Acute Rheumatic Fever

      Acute rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs after a bacterial infection and is caused by pathogenic antibodies. It is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response that affects the heart, joints, and skin. The condition is triggered by antibodies that cross-react with cardiac tissue, which can lead to pancarditis, arthritis, and intra-dermal inflammation. The diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever is based on a combination of clinical and investigatory findings, which are known as the revised Jones criteria.

      The pancarditis associated with acute rheumatic fever can cause a sustained tachycardia, which is particularly prominent at night. Conduction abnormalities, including prolonged PR interval, are also common. Pericarditis may be detected clinically with a pericardial rub, and patients may exhibit features of congestive cardiac failure, such as cardiomegaly. Several murmurs are recognized in patients with acute rheumatic fever, including aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation, and the Carey Coombs murmur.

      In summary, acute rheumatic fever is a serious condition that can have significant effects on the heart, joints, and skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The revised Jones criteria provide guidance for clinicians in making an accurate diagnosis and initiating appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.

      What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Emboli from a left ventricular thrombus

      Correct Answer: Arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
      What is true about the development of the atrial septum?

      Your Answer: Babies with atrial septal defects are typically cyanosed at birth

      Correct Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination

      Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.

      According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to you for consultation after being seen two days ago for a fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 120 kg. During her previous visit, her ECG showed that she had AF with a heart rate of 180 bpm. She was prescribed bisoprolol and advised to undergo a 48-hour ECG monitoring. Upon her return, it was discovered that she has non-paroxysmal AF.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start her on digoxin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure

      When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with a NOAC or warfarin is also necessary. Cardioversion with amiodarone should not be the first line of treatment due to the patient’s heart failure. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may not be the best option either. Amlodipine is not effective for rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Overall, the treatment plan should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and medical history.

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation and Heart Failure: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      54.9
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance with chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance with chest pain that began 45 minutes ago. An ECG is performed and shows ST elevation in leads V1-V6, with ST depression in leads III and aVF. The closest facility capable of providing primary PCI is a 2 hour transfer time by ambulance. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Analgesia, and transfer for PCI

      Correct Answer: Administer thrombolysis and transfer for PCI

      Explanation:

      Management of ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction in Remote Locations

      ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the gold standard first-line treatment for STEMI, but in remote locations, the patient may need to be taken to the nearest facility for initial assessment prior to transfer for PCI. In such cases, the most appropriate management strategy should be considered to minimize time delays and optimize patient outcomes.

      Administer Thrombolysis and Transfer for PCI

      In cases where the transfer time to the nearest PCI facility is more than 120 minutes, fibrinolysis prior to transfer should be strongly considered. This is particularly important for patients with anterior STEMI, where time is of the essence. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and low-molecular-weight heparin should also be administered, and the patient should be transferred to a PCI-delivering facility as soon as possible.

      Other Treatment Options

      If PCI is not likely to be achievable within 120 minutes of when fibrinolysis could have been given, thrombolysis should be administered prior to transfer. Analgesia alone is not sufficient, and unfractionated heparin is not the optimum treatment for STEMI.

      Conclusion

      In remote locations, the management of STEMI requires careful consideration of the potential time delays involved in transferring the patient to a PCI-delivering facility. Administering thrombolysis prior to transfer can help minimize delays and improve patient outcomes. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and low-molecular-weight heparin should also be administered, and the patient should be transferred to a PCI-delivering facility as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old Asian woman complains of palpitations, shortness of breath on moderate exertion...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Asian woman complains of palpitations, shortness of breath on moderate exertion and a painful and tender knee. During auscultation, a mid-diastolic murmur with a loud S1 is heard. Echocardiography reveals valvular heart disease with a normal left ventricular ejection fraction.
      What is the most probable valvular disease?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Causes and Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common causes and characteristics of heart murmurs:

      Mitral Stenosis: This condition is most commonly caused by rheumatic fever in childhood and is rare in developed countries. Patients with mitral stenosis will have a loud S1 with an associated opening snap. However, if the mitral valve is calcified or there is severe stenosis, the opening snap may be absent and S1 soft.

      Mitral Regurgitation and Ventricular Septal Defect: These conditions cause a pan-systolic murmur, which is not the correct option for differentiating heart murmurs.

      Aortic Regurgitation: This condition leads to an early diastolic murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.

      Ventricular Septal Defect: As discussed, a ventricular septal defect will cause a pan-systolic murmur.

      By understanding the causes and characteristics of different heart murmurs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat underlying heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated on the medical ward due to increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated on the medical ward due to increasing episodes of dyspnoea, mainly on exertion. She has been experiencing fatigue more frequently over the past few months. Upon examination, she exhibits slight wheezing and bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Her medical history includes type I diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, recurrent UTIs, and hypothyroidism. Her current medications consist of insulin, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, and amlodipine. She has never smoked, drinks two units of alcohol per week, and does not use recreational drugs. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 152 g/l, a white cell count of 4.7 × 109/l, a sodium level of 142 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.6 mmol/l, a urea level of 5.4 mmol/l, and a creatinine level of 69 µmol/l. Additionally, her N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) level is 350 pg/ml, which is higher than the normal value of < 100 pg/ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Cor Pulmonale vs. Other Conditions

      Cor pulmonale, or right ventricular failure due to pulmonary heart disease, is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as wheeze, increasing fatigue, and pitting edema. The patient’s history of taking drugs known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, such as methotrexate and nitrofurantoin, supports this diagnosis. Aortic stenosis, asthma, COPD, and left ventricular failure are all possible differential diagnoses, but each has distinguishing factors that make them less likely. Aortic stenosis would not typically present with peripheral edema, while asthma and COPD do not fit with the patient’s lack of risk factors and absence of certain symptoms. Left ventricular failure is also less likely due to the absence of signs such as decreased breath sounds and S3 gallop on heart auscultation. Overall, cor pulmonale is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his ankle after a night out drinking vodka red-bulls. His blood pressure is low at 90/50 mmHg. He insists that it is never normally that low.
      Which one of these is a possible cause for this reading?

      Your Answer: White coat hypertension

      Correct Answer: Incorrect cuff size (cuff too large)

      Explanation:

      Common Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings

      Blood pressure readings can be affected by various factors, including cuff size, alcohol and caffeine consumption, white coat hypertension, pain, and more. It is important to be aware of these factors to ensure accurate readings.

      Incorrect Cuff Size:
      Using a cuff that is too large can result in an underestimation of blood pressure, while a cuff that is too small can cause a falsely elevated reading.

      Alcohol and Caffeine:
      Both alcohol and caffeine can cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.

      White Coat Hypertension:
      Many patients experience elevated blood pressure in medical settings due to anxiety. To obtain an accurate reading, blood pressure should be measured repeatedly on separate occasions.

      Pain:
      Pain is a common cause of blood pressure increase and should be taken into consideration during medical procedures. A significant rise in blood pressure during a procedure may indicate inadequate anesthesia.

      Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.4
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
      What is the most probable location of the occlusion?

      Your Answer: Right (acute) marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction

      Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP). The patient had seen her GP that morning and reported an episode of chest pain that she had experienced the day before. The GP suspected the pain was due to gastro-oesophageal reflux but had performed an electrocardiogram (ECG) and sent a troponin level to be certain. The ECG was normal, but the troponin level came back that afternoon as raised. The GP advised the patient to go to Accident and Emergency, given the possibility of reduced sensitivity to the symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI) in this diabetic patient.
      Patient Normal range
      High-sensitivity troponin T 20 ng/l <14 ng/l
      What should be done based on this test result?

      Your Answer: Safety-netting and return to the GP

      Correct Answer: Repeat troponin level

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction (MI), a troponin level should be checked. If the level is only slightly raised, it does not confirm a diagnosis of MI, but neither does it rule it out. Therefore, a repeat troponin level should be performed at least 3 hours after the first level and sent as urgent.

      In an MI, cardiac enzymes are released from dead myocytes into the blood, causing enzyme levels to rise and eventually fall as they are cleared from blood. If the patient has had an MI, the repeat troponin level should either be further raised or further reduced. If the level remains roughly constant, then an alternative cause should be sought, such as pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, pericarditis, heart failure, or sepsis/systemic infection.

      Admission to the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) is not warranted yet. Further investigations should be performed to ascertain whether an admission is needed or whether alternative diagnoses should be explored.

      Safety-netting and return to the GP should include a repeat troponin level to see if the level is stable (arguing against an MI) or is rising/falling. A repeat electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed, and a thorough history and examination should be obtained to identify any urgent diagnoses that need to be explored before the patient is discharged.

      Thrombolysis carries a risk for bleeding, so it requires a clear indication, which has not yet been obtained. Therefore, it should not be administered without proper evaluation.

      The alanine transaminase (ALT) level has been used as a marker of MI in the past, but it has been since superseded as it is not specific for myocardial damage. In fact, it is now used as a component of liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CK-MB

      Explanation:

      Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI

      When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. The pain started while he was eating and has been constant for the past three hours. It radiates to his back and interscapular region.

      The patient has a history of hypertension for three years, alcohol abuse, and is a heavy smoker of 30 cigarettes per day. On examination, he is cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP is normal, but breath sounds are decreased at the left lung base and a chest x-ray reveals a left pleural effusion.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute Aortic Dissection: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Imaging

      Acute aortic dissection is a medical emergency that causes sudden and severe chest pain. The pain is often described as tearing and may be felt in the front or back of the chest, as well as in the neck. Other symptoms and signs depend on the arteries involved and nearby organs affected. In severe cases, it can lead to hypovolemic shock and sudden death.

      A chest x-ray can show a widened mediastinum, cardiomegaly, pleural effusion, and intimal calcification separated more than 6 mm from the edge. However, aortography is the gold standard for diagnosis, which shows the origin of arteries from true or false lumen. CT scan and MRI are also commonly used for diagnosis. Transoesophageal echo (TEE) is best for the descending aorta, while transthoracic echo (TTE) is best for the ascending aorta and arch.

      In summary, acute aortic dissection is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Symptoms include sudden and severe chest pain, which may be accompanied by other signs depending on the arteries involved. Imaging techniques such as chest x-ray, aortography, CT scan, MRI, TEE, and TTE can aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl with a stab wound...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl with a stab wound on the left side of his chest to the 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. He has muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, and a systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg. What is the most accurate description of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beck’s triad

      Explanation:

      Medical Triads and Laws

      There are several medical triads and laws that are used to diagnose certain conditions. One of these is Beck’s triad, which consists of muffled or distant heart sounds, low systolic blood pressure, and distended neck veins. This triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.

      Another law is Courvoisier’s law, which states that if a patient has a palpable gallbladder that is non-tender and is associated with painless jaundice, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones.

      Meigs syndrome is a triad of ascites, pleural effusion, and a benign ovarian tumor.

      Cushing’s syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur due to prolonged use of corticosteroids, including hypertension and central obesity. However, this is not relevant to the patient in the question as there is no information about steroid use and the blood pressure is low.

      Finally, Charcot’s triad is used in ascending cholangitis and consists of right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 19 - An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman attends her general practice for a medication review. She is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, captopril and furosemide. The general practitioner (GP) performs an examination and notes an irregular pulse with a rate of 100 bpm. The GP makes a referral to the Cardiology Department with a view to establishing whether this woman’s atrial fibrillation (AF) is permanent or paroxysmal and to obtaining the appropriate treatment for her.
      Which of the following is the most recognised risk factor for the development of AF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Atrial Fibrillation

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is most commonly associated with alcohol consumption, chest disease, and hyperthyroidism. Other risk factors include hypertension, pericardial disease, congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, valvular heart disease, and coronary heart disease. AF can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent, and may be diagnosed incidentally through an electrocardiogram (ECG) finding.

      Once diagnosed, management includes investigating with a 12-lead ECG, echocardiogram, and thyroid function tests. The main objectives are rate control, rhythm control, and reducing the risk of thromboembolic disease. Rhythm control can be achieved through electrical cardioversion or drug therapy, while rate control is managed using medications such as digoxin, β-blockers, or rate-limiting calcium antagonists. Warfarin is indicated for patients with risk factors for stroke, and the risk of ischaemic stroke is calculated using the CHADS2vasc scoring system. Novel oral anticoagulants are also available as an alternative to warfarin in certain patients.

      While hyperthyroidism is a recognized risk factor for AF, obesity and smoking are also associated with an increased risk of developing the condition. Pneumothorax, however, is not a recognized risk factor for AF. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing AF and manage the condition if diagnosed.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her infection. You suspect she may have mitral stenosis.
      What is the most suitable surface anatomical landmark to listen for this murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the apex beat

      Explanation:

      Surface Locations for Cardiac Auscultation

      Cardiac auscultation is a crucial part of a physical examination to assess the heart’s function. The surface locations for cardiac auscultation are essential to identify the specific valve sounds. Here are the surface locations for cardiac auscultation:

      1. Apex Beat: The mitral valve is best heard over the palpated apex beat. If it cannot be felt, then it should be assumed to be in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.

      2. Fifth Intercostal Space, Mid-Axillary Line: This location is too lateral to hear a mitral valve lesion in a non-dilated ventricle.

      3. Second Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The pulmonary valve is located in the second intercostal space, left of the sternum.

      4. Fourth Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The tricuspid valve is located in the fourth intercostal space, left of the sternum.

      5. Xiphisternum: The xiphisternum is not used as a marker for cardiac auscultation, though it is used to guide echocardiography for certain standard views.

      Knowing the surface locations for cardiac auscultation is crucial to identify the specific valve sounds and assess the heart’s function accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is...

    Incorrect

    • A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is inquiring about pacemakers.
      Which of the following WOULD BE an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third degree AV block (complete heart block)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Indications for Permanent Pacemaker Insertion

      A third degree AV block, also known as complete heart block, occurs when the atria and ventricles contract independently of each other. This can lead to syncope, chest pain, or signs of heart failure. Definitive treatment is the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Other arrhythmias that may require permanent pacing include type 2 second-degree heart block (Mobitz II), sick sinus syndrome, and symptomatic slow atrial fibrillation. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are not indications for pacing. Type 1 second degree (Mobitz I) AV block is a benign condition that does not require specific treatment. It is important to understand these indications for permanent pacemaker insertion for both exam and clinical purposes.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, weakness, lethargy, and a recent episode of syncope after running to catch a bus. She has a history of atrial flutter and takes bisoprolol regularly. During the physical examination, you notice a high-pitched, diastolic decrescendo murmur that intensifies during inspiration. She also has moderate peripheral edema. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diuretics, oxygen therapy, bosentan

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Hypertension

      Pulmonary hypertension (PAH) is a condition that can cause shortness of breath, weakness, and tiredness. A high-pitched decrescendo murmur may indicate pulmonary regurgitation and PAH. Diuretics can help reduce the pressure on the right ventricle and remove excess fluid. Oxygen therapy can improve exercise tolerance, and bosentan can slow the progression of PAH by inhibiting vasoconstriction. Salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers are appropriate for COPD, but not for PAH. Salbutamol nebulizer and supplemental oxygen are appropriate for acute exacerbations of asthma or COPD, but not for PAH. Aortic valve replacement is not indicated for PAH. Antiplatelets may be helpful for reducing the risk of thrombosis. Increasing bisoprolol may be helpful for atrial flutter, but not for PAH. High-dose calcium-channel blockers may be used for PAH with right heart failure under senior supervision/consultation.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain that began 5 hours ago. She has no known allergies and is not taking any regular medications. Her electrocardiogram shows T-wave inversion in lateral leads but no ST changes, and her serum troponin level is significantly elevated. What is the appropriate combination of drugs to administer immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, prasugrel 60 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg

      Explanation:

      For patients with different combinations of medications, the appropriate treatment plan may vary. In general, aspirin should be given as soon as possible and other medications may be added depending on the patient’s condition and the likelihood of undergoing certain procedures. For example, if angiography is not planned within 24 hours of admission, a loading dose of aspirin and prasugrel with fondaparinux may be given. If PCI is planned, unfractionated heparin may be considered. The specific dosages and medications may differ based on the patient’s individual needs and risk factors.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured in both arms, and the readings are as follows:
      Right arm 152/100
      Left arm 138/92
      What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient to start ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Proper Management of High Blood Pressure Readings

      In order to properly manage high blood pressure readings, it is important to follow established guidelines. If a patient displays a blood pressure of over 140/90 in one arm, the patient should have ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in order to confirm the presence or lack of hypertension, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      It is important to note that a diagnosis of hypertension cannot be made from one blood pressure recording. However, if hypertension is confirmed, based upon the patients’ age, amlodipine would be the antihypertensive of choice.

      When measuring blood pressure in both arms (as it should clinically be done), the higher of the two readings should be taken. Asking the patient to come back in one week to re-record blood pressure sounds reasonable, but it is not in accordance with the NICE guidelines.

      Lastly, it is important to note that considering the patients’ age, ramipril is second line and should not be the first choice for treatment. Proper management of high blood pressure readings is crucial for the overall health and well-being of the patient.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old woman came to the Heart Failure Clinic complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman came to the Heart Failure Clinic complaining of shortness of breath. During the examination, a loud pansystolic murmur was heard throughout her chest. The murmur was more audible during inspiration than expiration, and it was difficult to determine where it was loudest. Additionally, she had distended neck veins and an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation (TR)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs: A Guide

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here is a guide to differentiating some common heart murmurs:

      Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)
      TR presents with a loud pan-systolic murmur audible throughout the chest, often loudest in the tricuspid area. The most common cause is heart failure, with regurgitation being functional due to myocardial dilation. Patients may have raised JVPs, distended neck veins, and signs of right-sided heart failure.

      Aortic Sclerosis
      Aortic sclerosis is a loud murmur early in systole, with normal S1 and S2. It does not affect pulse pressure, and there is no radiation to the right carotid artery. Right-sided murmurs are louder on inspiration.

      Aortic Stenosis
      Aortic stenosis is a mid-systolic ejection murmur, heard best over the aortic area or right second intercostal space, with radiation into the right carotid artery. It may reduce pulse pressure to <40 mmHg, and S2 may be diminished. Pulmonary Stenosis
      Pulmonary stenosis gives a crescendo-decrescendo ejection systolic murmur, loudest over the pulmonary area. It is not pan-systolic, and S2 splitting is widened due to prolonged pulmonic ejection.

      Mitral Regurgitation
      Mitral regurgitation is a pan-systolic murmur heard best over the mitral area, radiating to the axilla. It is not increased on inspiration.

      Remember to listen carefully to S1 and S2, check for radiation, and consider associated symptoms to differentiate heart murmurs.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and is noted to have an irregular pulse. He reports intermittent palpitations over the past two months, which come on around four to five times weekly and are troublesome. He has diet-controlled type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) with a rate of 82 bpm. He has no chest pain and is not in overt cardiac failure. He is otherwise well and enjoys hill walking.
      What is the appropriate new pharmacological therapy for the patient’s condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and apixaban

      Explanation:

      Drug combinations for treating atrial fibrillation: A guide

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common heart condition that requires treatment to control heart rate and prevent stroke. Here are some drug combinations that may be used to manage AF:

      Bisoprolol and apixaban: This combination is recommended for patients who need both rate control and anticoagulation. Bisoprolol is a standard ß-blocker used for rate control, while apixaban is an anticoagulant that lowers the risk of stroke.

      Digoxin and warfarin: Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking. Warfarin is appropriate for anticoagulation.

      Bisoprolol and aspirin: Aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Bisoprolol should be used as first line for rate control.

      Digoxin and aspirin: Similar to the previous combination, aspirin monotherapy is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in patients with AF. Digoxin may be used for rate control in elderly patients with non-paroxysmal AF who lead a sedentary lifestyle. However, in this scenario, bisoprolol is a better choice for rate control since the patient enjoys hill walking.

      Warfarin alone: Even though the patient’s heart rate is currently controlled, he has a history of symptomatic paroxysmal episodes of AF and will need an agent for rate control, as well as warfarin for anticoagulation.

      In summary, the choice of drug combination for managing AF depends on the patient’s individual needs and preferences, as well as their risk factors for stroke. It is important to discuss the options with a healthcare professional to make an informed decision.

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  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He presents with central crushing chest pain and has ST-segment elevation present on an electrocardiogram (ECG). You are at a District General Hospital without access to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and you will not be able to transfer the patient across for PCI in time.
      Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis

      Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, it is important to consider both relative and absolute contraindications before administering thrombolysis.

      Cerebral neoplasm is the only absolute contraindication, while advanced liver disease, severe hypertension (not meeting absolute contraindication values), active peptic ulceration, and pregnancy or recent delivery are all relative contraindications.

      Primary PCI is the preferred treatment option if available, but thrombolysis can be used as an alternative if necessary. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of less than 30 minutes from admission is recommended. Thrombolysis should not be given if the onset of pain is more than 24 hours after presentation.

      It is important to carefully consider contraindications before administering thrombolysis to ensure patient safety and optimal treatment outcomes.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as...

    Incorrect

    • A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as a part of their general practice attachment. The patient informs her that she has a longstanding heart condition, the name of which she cannot remember. The student decides to review an old electrocardiogram (ECG) in her notes, and from it she is able to see that the patient has atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Which of the following ECG findings is typically found in AF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent P waves

      Explanation:

      Common ECG Findings and Their Significance

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart. It records the heart’s rhythm and detects any abnormalities. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:

      1. Absent P waves: Atrial fibrillation causes an irregular pulse and palpitations. ECG findings include absent P waves and irregular QRS complexes.

      2. Long PR interval: A long PR interval indicates heart block. First-degree heart block is a fixed prolonged PR interval.

      3. T wave inversion: T wave inversion can occur in fast atrial fibrillation, indicating cardiac ischaemia.

      4. Bifid P wave (p mitrale): Bifid P waves are caused by left atrial hypertrophy.

      5. ST segment elevation: ST segment elevation typically occurs in myocardial infarction. However, it may also occur in pericarditis and subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding these ECG findings can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various cardiac conditions.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What is the electrophysiological basis of the T wave on a typical ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarisation

      Explanation:

      The T wave on an ECG indicates ventricular repolarisation and is typically positive in all leads except AvR and V1. Abnormal T wave findings may suggest strain, bundle branch block, ischaemia/infarction, hyperkalaemia, Prinzmetal angina, or early STEMI. The P wave represents atrial depolarisation, while atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex. The PR interval is determined by the duration of conduction delay through the atrioventricular node. Finally, the QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (3/15) 20%
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