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  • Question 1 - How does the hippocampal formation interact with emotional memories? ...

    Correct

    • How does the hippocampal formation interact with emotional memories?

      Your Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it related to the time between drug absorption and the onset of a specific pharmacologic effect?

      Your Answer: Latency period

      Correct Answer: First pass effect

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the more commonly used name for Trisomy 18 syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the more commonly used name for Trisomy 18 syndrome?

      Your Answer: Patau syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edwards syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the primary way in which agomelatine works? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary way in which agomelatine works?

      Your Answer: Melatonin receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine is a newly developed antidepressant that primarily targets the melatonin receptors, but its antidepressant properties stem from its ability to block serotonin receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most reliable way to determine someone's current level of intelligence?...

    Correct

    • What is the most reliable way to determine someone's current level of intelligence?

      Your Answer: WAIS

      Explanation:

      The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led...

    Incorrect

    • A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led to their suspension, they argue that it was due to external factors and that they were not entirely responsible for their actions. However, the disciplinary panel disagrees and places more emphasis on the student's personal traits, such as their lack of self-control and tendency towards defiance.

      What is suggested by the perspective of the disciplinary panel?

      Your Answer: Self-serving bias

      Correct Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate explanation for this scenario is the fundamental attribution error. It is important to note that this is distinct from the actor-observer bias, which requires evidence of a difference in how situational factors are considered for others versus ourselves. The actor-observer bias typically involves overemphasizing personality traits for others’ behaviors and situational factors for our own behaviors.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the accurate statement regarding culture-specific disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement regarding culture-specific disorders?

      Your Answer: Myriachit is a similar disease to amok

      Correct Answer: South Asians rarely complain about mental health problems

      Explanation:

      Depression can be presented differently across cultures. For example, Afro-Caribbean men may report erectile dysfunction and other physical symptoms when experiencing depression. South Asians may also experience mental health problems, but are more likely to report physical symptoms rather than psychological distress. In the United Kingdom, there is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among black immigrants. In Siberia, there is a type of jumping disease called Myriachit, which may be similar to latah, a culture-bound syndrome seen in Southeast Asia characterized by hyper-suggestibility, echolalia, echopraxia, coprolalia, disorganization, and automatic obedience. Amok is another culture-bound syndrome that typically occurs in men and involves a period of withdrawal followed by sudden outbursts of homicidal aggression. Susto is a culture-bound syndrome seen in Latin America that is attributed to severe fright causing the soul to leave the body and is characterized by anxiety, sadness, altered sleep and eating habits, and physical symptoms such as headache, stomach-ache, muscle aches, and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the paternal chromosome 15q?

      Your Answer: Angelman syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the accurate statement about the concept of the 'sick role'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the concept of the 'sick role'?

      Your Answer: The sick person is not expected by society to try to get well

      Correct Answer: Sick persons are not considered responsible for their illnesses

      Explanation:

      The concept of the sick role pertains to an implicit agreement between an individual who falls ill and the community they belong to.

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the term used to describe a child who shows distress when...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a child who shows distress when their mother leaves the room but avoids contact with her upon her return?

      Your Answer: Anxious-avoidant attachment

      Correct Answer: Anxious-resistant attachment

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions?

      Your Answer: They can be less threatening if the interview becomes tense

      Correct Answer: They make it easier to control the interview

      Explanation:

      While open questions offer several benefits, they can pose challenges in terms of interview control and record-keeping.

      Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions

      When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When is the optimal time to collect blood samples for monitoring therapeutic lithium...

    Incorrect

    • When is the optimal time to collect blood samples for monitoring therapeutic lithium levels?

      Your Answer: 4 hours after last dose

      Correct Answer: 12 hours after last dose

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An artificially high calcium level can result from abnormalities in which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An artificially high calcium level can result from abnormalities in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes

      Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.

      It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Superego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What are some characteristics of depression in older adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some characteristics of depression in older adults?

      Your Answer: More common

      Correct Answer: More severe

      Explanation:

      The elderly population is at a higher risk of experiencing severe depression and requiring hospitalization. Depression rates in residential homes and medical wards can be as high as 20-30%, and the risk of suicide also increases with age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: Stimulus discrimination

      Correct Answer: Temporal conditioning

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An academic fellow is looking to conduct a research project on Alzheimer's disease...

    Incorrect

    • An academic fellow is looking to conduct a research project on Alzheimer's disease in a region with a high incidence rate. Which region would be the most suitable for his study?

      Your Answer: Central Europe

      Correct Answer: Latin America

      Explanation:

      The prevalence of dementia among individuals aged 60 and above, adjusted to the western Europe population by global burden of disease region, is greatest in Latin America, with a rate of 8.5%. The prevalence rates for other regions are as follows: Central Europe – 5.8%, East Asia – 5%, Sub-Saharan Africa, east – 4%, and Sub-Saharan Africa, west – 2.1%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to...

    Correct

    • Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF)?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary gland is inhibited by dopamine, which is also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) and prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). The reason why antipsychotic medications are linked to hyperprolactinaemia is due to the antagonism of dopamine receptors. On the other hand, serotonin and melatonin seem to stimulate prolactin secretion. While animal studies have indicated that adrenaline and noradrenaline can decrease prolactin secretion, their effect is not as significant as that of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field?

      Your Answer: 19th century

      Correct Answer: 18th century

      Explanation:

      Psychiatry emerged as a distinct medical field in the late 1700s, leading to the establishment of specialized asylums designed to provide therapeutic care for individuals with mental illnesses who were previously confined in institutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which statement accurately describes the pathology of Huntington's disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the pathology of Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: The most striking feature is that of caudate head atrophy

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?

      Your Answer: Galantamine blocks the effects of elevated levels of glutamate

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit both AChE and butyrylcholinesterase, while Donepezil is specifically a reversible inhibitor of AChE.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A client with schizoaffective disorder who takes olanzapine is concerned about the weight...

    Correct

    • A client with schizoaffective disorder who takes olanzapine is concerned about the weight they have gained since beginning treatment. Is there evidence to suggest that switching to a different medication can help reduce weight?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 16 year old teenager wants to pursue a career in art, but...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old teenager wants to pursue a career in art, but their parents insist that they must focus on becoming a doctor of engineer. The teenager is not allowed to take art classes and is forbidden from participating in any art competitions. The parents also dictate what clothes the teenager wears and how they style their hair, expecting them to look presentable at all times.

      According to Erikson's theory, what developmental stage is being challenged by the parents' actions?

      Your Answer: Identity vs. role confusion

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 25 - What medication does not impact the QTc interval? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medication does not impact the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole does not affect the QTc interval and has minimal risk of extrapyramidal side effects, sedation, of weight gain. Amisulpride, citalopram, and quetiapine have a moderate effect on the QTc interval, which requires ECG monitoring due to a prolongation of >10 msec. Haloperidol has a high effect on the QTc interval, which mandates ECG monitoring due to a prolongation of >20 msec.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old male with a history of depression is interested in trying agomelatine...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of depression is interested in trying agomelatine as a potential treatment. Can you explain the mechanism of action of agomelatine?

      Your Answer: MT1 and MT2 receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine acts as a melatonergic agonist at MT1 and MT2 receptors and also as a 5-HT2C antagonist, indirectly increasing norepinephrine and dopamine levels to alleviate depression. Moclobemide, an MAO-A inhibitor, boosts serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine levels in the brain, resulting in antidepressant effects. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, elevates serotonin levels, while venlafaxine, a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, enhances the concentration of both chemicals in the brain, leading to antidepressant benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 27 - An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc...

    Correct

    • An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc interval on a routine ECG. What antipsychotic medication is thought to have the least impact on the QTc interval and could be a viable substitute?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following conditions does not exhibit a vertical transmission pattern? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not exhibit a vertical transmission pattern?

      Your Answer: Achondroplasia

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant conditions exhibit vertical transmission, except for cystic fibrosis, which is a widely recognized autosomal recessive condition.

      Modes of Inheritance

      Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

      Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.

      Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.

      X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance

      In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.

      Multifactorial Inheritance

      Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 30 - Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      34.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (2/5) 40%
Psychopharmacology (4/10) 40%
Genetics (1/4) 25%
Neurosciences (2/2) 100%
Classification And Assessment (1/3) 33%
Stigma And Culture (0/2) 0%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
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