-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 27 year old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?
Your Answer: Iliac
Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal
Explanation:The woman seems to have a chancroid, which may or may not drain to the lymph nodes of the groin. These nodes are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except:
Your Answer: paralysis
Correct Answer: exfoliative skin rash
Explanation:Clostridium species do not present with an exfoliative skin rash. C. perfringens is a common aetiology in necrotizing infections (gas gangrene) as well as food poisoning, which often also includes diarrhoea. C. difficle causes diarrhoea. C. tetany and C. botulinum have neurotoxins that can lead to paralysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of MRSA?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Cephalosporins, such as ceftriaxone, do not cover methicillin-resistant staph aureus. They do cover some gram positives and gram negatives. Vancomycin and teicoplanin given intravenously have good coverage of MRSA and other gram positive bacteria. Rifampicin and doxycycline, although not the best treatment, can be used for outpatients if there are no systemic signs of illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?
Your Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation:There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?
Your Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.
Explanation:Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Tetracycline is not recommended in pregnancy because of the risk to fetal development (bones, teeth!). Metronidazole in pregnancy: currently not thought to be an increased risk in pregnancy; however this is not effective against chlamydia. Amoxicillin is shown to be an adequate treatment for chlamydia, so this is the correct answer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of having had a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism may be responsible for causing deafness in her infant?
Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV is a common viral infection that can be transmitted from a pregnant woman to her unborn child, leading to congenital CMV infection. Congenital CMV infection can result in a range of symptoms and complications in newborns, including deafness. In fact, CMV is one of the leading causes of non-genetic sensorineural hearing loss in children.
Given the mother’s history of symptoms during pregnancy and the concern for deafness in the infant, CMV should also be considered as a potential cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth to a male infant. She is now concerned about her child contracting hep B. Which of the following is the most suitable option for the baby in this case?
Your Answer: Nothing until immune status checked
Correct Answer: HepB full vaccine and Ig
Explanation:Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig should be given to babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers. Hepatitis B vaccine alone or Ig alone is not sufficient to prevent the infection in the new-born baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?
Your Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance
Explanation:Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)