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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has no significant medical history, takes only oral contraceptives, and denies any substance use. Blood and urine tests suggest a possible diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following statements regarding SIADH secretion is accurate?

      Your Answer: It may occur in subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding SIADH: Causes and Treatment Options

      SIADH, or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition characterized by excessive production of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia. While it can occur in various medical conditions, subarachnoid haemorrhage is a known cause of SIADH. In such cases, monitoring sodium levels is crucial. The treatment of choice for SIADH is fluid restriction, but in severe cases, hypertonic saline may be used. Demeclocycline, a tetracycline, is sometimes used to treat hyponatraemia in SIADH. It’s important to note that small cell lung cancer, not adenocarcinoma of the lung, is a well-known cause of SIADH through ectopic ADH secretion. Understanding the causes and treatment options for SIADH is essential for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 21-year-old university student complains of a 2-month history of tiredness and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old university student complains of a 2-month history of tiredness and weight loss. On further questioning the patient reveals that they have been excessively thirsty and have also been passing urine many times during the day and night. The patient is investigated further and is diagnosed with having type 1 diabetes mellitus.
      Which of the following is deficient in this condition?

      Your Answer: Gamma-islet cells

      Correct Answer: Beta-islet cells

      Explanation:

      The Different Types of Islet Cells in the Pancreas

      The pancreas contains clusters of endocrine tissue called islets of Langerhans. These islets are composed of different types of cells that secrete various hormones. The most abundant type of islet cell is the beta-islet cell, which produces insulin. Insulin is essential for regulating blood sugar levels, and its deficiency is the hallmark of type 1 diabetes.

      Gamma-islet cells, also known as pancreatic polypeptide-producing cells, make up a small percentage of islet cells and are not involved in insulin production. Alpha-islet cells, on the other hand, are located at the periphery of the islets and secrete glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-islet cells produce somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.

      Lastly, epsilon-islet cells produce ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. However, these cells make up less than 1% of the islet cells and are not as well understood as the other types.

      In summary, the different types of islet cells in the pancreas play crucial roles in regulating blood sugar levels and other metabolic processes. Understanding their functions and interactions is essential for developing effective treatments for diabetes and other metabolic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following is expected to be elevated in her urine levels?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as phaeochromocytomas, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome can be diagnosed by measuring specific urinary metabolites. For example, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their elevated levels in urine indicate the presence of phaeochromocytomas. Similarly, increased urinary excretion of pregnanetriol and dehydroepiandrosterone are indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, and other symptoms. Additionally, increased urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these metabolites can also occur in other conditions such as extreme stress states or medication use. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old individual with diabetes complains of difficulty reading newsprint. Fundoscopy reveals clouding...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old individual with diabetes complains of difficulty reading newsprint. Fundoscopy reveals clouding of the lens, making it difficult to visualize the retina.
      What is the probable reason for this person's vision impairment?

      Your Answer: Hypopyon

      Correct Answer: Cataract

      Explanation:

      Premature Cataracts and their Association with Diabetes and Other Conditions

      Cataracts can develop prematurely in individuals with certain medical conditions such as diabetes, Cushing’s syndrome, and those who have undergone steroid therapy or experienced trauma. In such cases, it is important to treat the cataracts in order to properly evaluate the back of the eye for signs of diabetic retinopathy. This condition occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the eyes of individuals with these medical conditions to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old teacher visits her GP, complaining of hot flashes and night sweats....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old teacher visits her GP, complaining of hot flashes and night sweats. She suspects that she may be experiencing symptoms of menopause. Can you identify which set of results below are consistent with postmenopausal values?

      A: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 0.5
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 1.1
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 26
      Progesterone (pmol/L) <5

      B: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 0.5
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 1.2
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 120
      Progesterone (pmol/L) 18

      C: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 68
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 51
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 42
      Progesterone (pmol/L) <5

      D: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 1.0
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 0.8
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 250
      Progesterone (pmol/L) 120

      E: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 8.0
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 7.2
      Oestrogen (pmol/L) 144
      Progesterone (pmol/L) <5

      Your Answer: E

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal Blood Tests

      postmenopausal blood tests often reveal elevated levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), as well as low levels of estrogen. These changes in hormone levels are responsible for most of the symptoms associated with menopause, which can be difficult to diagnose. However, once characteristic symptoms are well-established, gonadotrophin levels are typically significantly elevated.

      The menopause is defined as the date of a woman’s last period, without further menses for at least a year. As such, the diagnosis can only be made retrospectively. Prior to menopause, women may experience irregular menstruation, heavy bleeding, and mood-related symptoms. While fertility is greatly reduced during this time, there is still some risk of pregnancy, and many healthcare providers recommend continuing contraception for a year after the last menstrual period.

      In summary, postmenopausal blood tests can provide valuable information about a woman’s hormone levels and help diagnose menopause. However, it’s important to recognize that menopause is a gradual process that can be accompanied by a range of symptoms. Women should work closely with their healthcare providers to manage these symptoms and ensure their ongoing health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer: Sulfonylurea

      Correct Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI

      When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:

      1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.

      2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.

      3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.

      4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

      For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic patient in their 60s is admitted through...

    Incorrect

    • A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic patient in their 60s is admitted through the Emergency department due to hyperglycemia. The patient is dehydrated and has acute on chronic renal impairment, with an eGFR of 30 ml/min/1.73 m2. What diabetes medication(s) can be safely prescribed?

      Your Answer: Liraglutide and metformin

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide and saxagliptin

      Explanation:

      Caution in Prescribing Hypoglycaemic Medication in Renal Impairment

      When prescribing hypoglycaemic medication to patients with renal impairment, caution should be exercised. This is because reduced renal excretion increases the risk of hypoglycaemia. Metformin should not be prescribed or should be discontinued when the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45 ml/min due to the potential for lactic acidosis. Liraglutide, an injectable GLP1 agonist, should also be avoided if the eGFR is less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2. Rosiglitazone has been withdrawn from the market and should not be prescribed. Gliclazide and other sulfonylureas can be used in renal impairment, but a reduced dose may be necessary due to the potential for hypoglycaemia caused by reduced renal excretion. Saxagliptin, a DPP4 inhibitor, should be prescribed at half dose if the eGFR is less than 50 ml/min/1.73 m2. It is important to consider the patient’s renal function when prescribing hypoglycaemic medication to avoid adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - What is the accurate description of growth hormone (GH) and its role in...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate description of growth hormone (GH) and its role in normal growth?

      Your Answer: It stimulates cartilage and bone growth via somatomedin C

      Explanation:

      Functions and Characteristics of Growth Hormone

      Growth hormone (GH) plays a crucial role in stimulating cartilage and bone growth through the production of somatomedin C, also known as insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). While GH has direct effects throughout the body, its receptors have a limited distribution outside the central nervous system (CNS). GH is secreted in a pulsatile manner, with its concentration peaking during sleep. The synthesis of GH is stimulated by the action of somatostatin, which inhibits its release and is sometimes referred to as ‘growth hormone-inhibiting hormone’. In addition to its other actions, GH has a proinsulin-like effect, which is in contrast to its anti-insulin-like effects, such as promoting gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, commonly caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. FSH levels may be low due to the inhibitory effect of raised prolactin, but this is not diagnostic. A skull X-ray may show an enlarged pituitary fossa, but only with large adenomas, making it an inappropriate investigation. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferable to CT for further investigation into the cause of hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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Endocrinology (8/9) 89%
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