00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old woman presented with acute breathlessness that had developed over the past...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presented with acute breathlessness that had developed over the past 24 hours. She had been experiencing progressive weakness, dysphagia, and an 8 kg weight loss for the past three months. She was a non-smoker. During the examination, her temperature was 38.4°C, pulse was 96 beats per minute, and blood pressure was 136/65 mmHg. Coarse inspiratory crackles were heard at the right base and mid zone. The patient had grade 4/5 weakness of the proximal muscles of the upper and lower limbs, but no other abnormalities were detected.

      Lab results showed:
      - Hb: 130g/l (115-165)
      - Platelets: 238 * 109/l (150-400)
      - WBC: 16 * 109/l (4.0-11.0)
      - CRP: 130 mg/l (<10)
      - Na+: 140 mmol/l (135-145)
      - K+: 3.7mmol/l (3.5-4.5)
      - Urea: 7.5 mmol/l (5.0-9.0)
      - Creatinine: 98µmol/l (60-11)
      - Creatine kinase: 5230U/l (24-170)

      What diagnostic test or procedure is most likely to provide a specific diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-synthetase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is specifically associated with anti-synthetase antibodies. In this case, the diagnosis is aspiration pneumonia caused by dysphagia resulting from polymyositis. Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy of unknown origin that is characterized by symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness and elevated levels of skeletal muscle enzymes (creatine kinase). Although several autoantibodies are associated with polymyositis, many of them are not specific to the disease.

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.

      The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man experiences sudden and severe sharp pain in the middle of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man experiences sudden and severe sharp pain in the middle of his back while lifting a heavy object. Upon examination, he displays tenderness over the thoracic spine. Further investigations reveal a compression fracture of the T10 vertebral body. His lab results show normal levels of plasma sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, and phosphate, but his plasma calcium and alkaline phosphatase levels are low while his serum parathyroid hormone level is elevated. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia and its Differentiation from Other Bone Disorders

      Osteomalacia is a bone disorder that is commonly found in elderly individuals, and it is often caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. This condition is characterized by bone fractures, hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and parathyroid hormone levels. In some cases, hypocalcaemia may be present, depending on the severity and chronicity of the vitamin D deficiency. The body tries to maintain normal serum calcium levels by increasing PTH, which enhances the release of calcium from the bone. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels may fall.

      Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is associated with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, hypercalcaemia, and renal impairment. Osteoporosis does not present any laboratory abnormalities, while Paget’s disease does not produce hypocalcaemia or increased parathyroid hormone secretion. In primary hyperparathyroidism, the serum calcium level is increased.

      In summary, the different characteristics of bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis. Osteomalacia, with its combination of bone fractures, hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and parathyroid hormone levels, can be differentiated from other bone disorders such as multiple myeloma, osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, and primary hyperparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents to an outpatient respiratory clinic with a 3-month history...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to an outpatient respiratory clinic with a 3-month history of weight loss, cough, weakness and intermittent haemoptysis. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is on regular amlodipine, ramipril and metformin. He has smoked 15 cigarettes daily for approximately 40 years. He denies alcohol or recreational drug use.

      On clinical examination, he appears underweight. His observations demonstrate a heart rate of 87 beats per minute, blood pressure 145/82 mmHg, respiratory rate 15/minute, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air and temperature of 36.7ºC. Chest auscultation reveals a monophonic wheeze in the left upper lobe. His heart sounds are normal and there are no murmurs or peripheral oedema. There is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. His fingers are clubbed. Power is 3+/5 proximally in the upper and lower limbs. He finds it difficult to get up off his chair. Sensation is preserved, reflexes are normal and plantar reflexes are downgoing. There is no rash.

      Blood tests:

      Hb 111 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 444 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 129 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 111 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 8 mg/L (< 5)
      Creatine kinase 5891 U/L (40-320)
      TSH 5.9 miU/L (0.2 - 5.5)
      Free T4 11.1pmol/L (10 - 24.5)


      A chest x-ray demonstrates a coin lesion in the upper zone of the left lung.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If CK levels are elevated along with malignancy, it may indicate the presence of polymyositis.

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.

      The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      210.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes and a history of social alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes and a history of social alcohol consumption presents with an acutely swollen and red mid foot that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He denies any recent foot injuries. Upon examination, the mid foot is warm and pedal pulses are intact. However, there is a glove and stocking distribution of sensory loss bilaterally. Recent blood tests reveal normal FBC, CRP, and UEC, and a foot radiograph appears normal. What should be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Immobilise in a plaster cast

      Explanation:

      Charcot neuroarthropathy is a condition that presents as a warm, swollen, erythematous foot and ankle, and is often seen in patients with long-standing diabetes and peripheral neuropathy. It can progress through four stages, with radiographs being an important part of diagnosis and treatment involving immobilization and avoidance of weight-bearing. Bisphosphonates and surgery may also be used in severe cases. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of cellulitis. The cause of peripheral neuropathy is most likely diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headaches...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headaches on the left side of her head. She also reports intermittent jaw pain while chewing. Her daughter reports that her mother has been increasingly fatigued over the past few weeks. Laboratory testing shows an ESR of 95 mm/h. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Start 60 mg prednisolone per day

      Explanation:

      Management of Giant Cell Arteritis: Starting Prednisone and Urgent Treatment

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a serious condition that can lead to sudden unilateral visual loss if left untreated. The definitive diagnostic test is a temporal artery biopsy, but treatment with high-dose prednisolone should not be delayed while awaiting biopsy. The histological features on biopsy include intimal hypertrophy, inflammation of the intima and sub-intima, breaking up of the internal elastic lamina, and giant cell infiltration of the internal elastic lamina. Treatment with prednisolone is both diagnostic and dramatic, with a symptom response that confirms the diagnosis. Around three-quarters of patients require between 1 and 3 years of steroid therapy, while the remaining quarter may require continued steroids for some years. Urgent treatment is necessary to prevent potential visual impairment, and investigations such as immunoglobulin testing and CT scan of the head should not delay treatment. A temporal artery biopsy can be booked for surgical list in 5 days’ time to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the Pulmonary Clinic with complaints of a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the Pulmonary Clinic with complaints of a persistent cough and increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past three years. She has a history of smoking five cigarettes per day and occasional alcohol consumption. She reports normal bowel movements but has noticed increased urination and thirst over the past eight months. The patient also complains of back pain and difficulty bending forward for the past six months.

      Upon examination, bilateral crepitations were heard in the upper regions of both lung fields. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her heart rate is 96 bpm. Oxygen saturation on room air was 94%.

      Which diagnostic test would confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of hip and spine with human leukocyte antigen (HLA) B-27 testing

      Correct Answer: Transbronchial lung biopsy

      Explanation:

      Langerhans cell histiocytosis can be diagnosed through a lung biopsy, which identifies Langerhans cells with an irregular convoluted nucleus and confirms the diagnosis through immunohistochemical staining and electron microscopy. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) thorax can help identify pulmonary pathology, but is not useful for confirming the diagnosis. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage can eliminate other disorders, while cytology for malignancy is not specific. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the hip and spine with HLA-B27 testing can diagnose ankylosing spondylitis, but is not relevant to the patient’s symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      85
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old male from the Dominican Republic presents with constant bilateral anterior thigh...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male from the Dominican Republic presents with constant bilateral anterior thigh pain and lower limb weakness. He reports being an active man prior to these symptoms, but is now wheelchair and bed-bound. What is the best course of treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone

      Correct Answer: Optimise diabetic control

      Explanation:

      The patient is HIV negative and presents with bilateral proximal myopathy and severe neuropathic pain in the thighs. There are no structural lesions in the lumbosacral region. These symptoms suggest a diagnosis of diabetic amyotrophy. The onset of proximal pain is usually asymmetric before becoming more symmetrical due to microvascular lumbosacral plexopathy.

      The absence of upper motor neurone signs makes motor neuron disease unlikely. Multifocal motor neuropathy with conduction block can be ruled out due to the involvement of sensory components. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is also unlikely as the symptoms are predominantly proximal and associated with neuropathic pain.

      The recommended treatment for diabetic amyotrophy is to optimize blood sugar control and provide symptomatic treatment with neuropathic agents. Most patients experience at least partial motor recovery and improved pain symptoms.

      Understanding Diabetic Amyotrophy

      Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is a condition that affects individuals with diabetes. The condition is characterized by pain, weakness, and difficulty in movement. The first symptom is usually pain, which is often felt in the hips or buttocks. This is followed by weakness, which can make it challenging to get out of a chair or perform other activities that require physical exertion.

      Diabetic amyotrophy is caused by damage to the nerves that control the muscles in the affected areas. This damage is often a result of high blood sugar levels, which can cause inflammation and damage to the nerves. The condition is more common in individuals with type 2 diabetes, and it typically affects those who have had the condition for a long time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      54.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old male falls while walking his dog. He experiences severe left hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male falls while walking his dog. He experiences severe left hip pain and his left leg is shortened and externally rotated. He is rushed to the Emergency Department where an X-ray confirms a left-sided intracapsular neck of femur fracture. The patient undergoes surgery the next day. What measures should be taken to manage his bone health and reduce the risk of future fragility fractures?

      Your Answer: Start calcium and vitamin D, no imaging required

      Correct Answer: Start alendronate, no imaging required

      Explanation:

      For patients aged 75 years and above who have experienced a fragility fracture, it is recommended to start alendronate as first-line therapy without waiting for a DEXA scan to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis. However, for patients under 75 years, a DEXA scan is necessary before prescribing alendronate. The severity of osteoporosis is best assessed through a DEXA scan rather than an MRI scan, which may be useful in cases where underlying malignancy is suspected. It is important to note that vitamin D and calcium replacement alone are not sufficient treatments for osteoporosis and cannot prevent further fragility fractures.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      66.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and multiple joint pains. Additionally, she has noticed significant hair loss with scarring around the affected areas. She is also sensitive to the sun, particularly on her face, and requires factor 50 sunscreen. On examination, her blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, and she has a flushed facial appearance. She has small joint polyarthropathy, particularly affecting her fingers, toes, ankles, and wrists. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2, and there is scarring alopecia on her scalp. Her laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, elevated ESR, and positive urine for blood and protein. Which test is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer: c-ANCA

      Correct Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematous and Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are autoimmune diseases that are associated with specific autoantibodies. The most common autoantibody in SLE is the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), which is present in virtually all patients with the disease. If ANA is positive, further testing for antibodies to ds-DNA, complement, ANA subtypes, and anti-Ro/La may be done to determine the prognosis and potential organ involvement.

      In contrast, the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody is associated with RA, with a specificity of around 95%. It is present in approximately 75% of patients with RA. Rheumatoid factor, another autoantibody associated with RA, is present in up to 30% of patients with SLE but is less specific.

      Anti-smooth muscle antibody may be positive in autoimmune hepatitis rather than SLE, while c-ANCA is associated with granulomatous polyangiitis and not SLE. Therefore, ANA and anti-CCP are the most likely positive tests in SLE and RA, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      97.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man presents with severe pain and aching in his hands and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with severe pain and aching in his hands and feet upon exposure to cold temperatures. He describes a triad of initial whitening of the fingers due to vasospasm, followed by blue discoloration and then reddening and pain.
      The patient is currently on atenolol 50 mg po daily for hypertension and takes sumatriptan for occasional migraines. He has a history of chronic kidney disease with a creatinine level of 200 μg/l. The sumatriptan is discontinued.
      What other intervention would be the most appropriate for this individual?

      Your Answer: Verapamil is not recommended for Raynaud's

      Correct Answer: Stop atenolol and start ramipril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon can be caused or exacerbated by certain medications, including methysergide and atenolol. In such cases, it is recommended to stop atenolol and switch to ramipril, an ACE inhibitor that has evidence for reno-protection in cases of underlying autoimmune pathology. Calcium channel antagonists like nifedipine may also be helpful in improving symptoms.

      In the absence of underlying connective tissue disease, primary Raynaud’s may be treated with prednisolone at a dose of 40 mg po daily. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as systemic sclerosis, mixed connective tissue disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, polycythemia, and thromboangiitis obliterans.

      Nitrates like isosorbide dinitrate have not been shown to improve Raynaud’s symptoms. NSAIDs like diclofenac are contraindicated in patients with kidney disease and would not improve Raynaud’s symptoms. Verapamil, although a calcium channel blocker, is not typically used for Raynaud’s.

      Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon depend on the underlying cause and may include medication changes, calcium channel antagonists, and ruling out other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of progressive...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of progressive shoulder pain. She reports difficulty getting dressed in the morning due to the pain. She also feels weak and fatigued and has lost around 2 kg in weight. There is no significant medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.8 °C, heart rate of 90 bpm, and blood pressure of 127/77 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal, and breath sounds are vesicular bilaterally. Abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable organomegaly. Bilateral proximal muscle stiffness is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Proximal Muscle Pain and Stiffness in an Elderly Patient

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is an inflammatory condition that typically affects women over 60 years old. It presents with proximal muscle pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day. PMR should not be confused with polymyositis, which causes proximal muscle weakness rather than pain or stiffness. Treatment for PMR involves long-term steroid therapy.

      Hyperthyroidism and other endocrine diseases can also cause proximal myopathy, but this patient’s symptoms suggest an inflammatory cause rather than myopathy. Adhesive capsulitis, or frozen shoulder, typically affects only one shoulder, while bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness should raise suspicion of an alternative diagnosis. Fibromyalgia, a chronic pain syndrome that predominantly affects women, is not an inflammatory disease and does not present with morning stiffness.

      Polymyositis, an inflammatory muscle disease, can cause proximal muscle ache, but morning stiffness is not a feature. If visual symptoms are present, giant cell arteritis should also be considered, as it has similarities with PMR. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of proximal muscle pain and stiffness in an elderly patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      100.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has been taking methotrexate for six...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has been taking methotrexate for six months and has seen significant improvement in his joint symptoms. He is currently on a regimen of methotrexate 15 mg/week, folic acid 5 mg/day, and hydroxychloroquine 200 mg bd. His regular blood tests have been normal until recently. The results of his most recent blood test show deranged liver function tests, with elevated AST and ALT levels. His other blood parameters, including haemoglobin, WBC, neutrophils, platelets, bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase, are within normal ranges. His urea, electrolytes, and creatinine levels are also normal. What is the most likely cause of his abnormal liver function tests?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis Caused by Methotrexate

      When a patient develops hepatitis due to methotrexate, the first step is to discontinue the drug and closely monitor liver function tests (LFTs). If the LFTs do not return to normal, an ultrasound scan of the abdomen and hepatitis autoimmune serology should be arranged. Although rheumatoid arthritis can be associated with autoimmune hepatitis, it is much less common than methotrexate-induced hepatotoxicity. Therefore, it is important to identify the cause of hepatitis in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further liver damage. Proper monitoring and prompt action can help manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of bilateral ankle and right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of bilateral ankle and right wrist pain and swelling. He has no previous history of joint problems. On systematic questioning, he denies any recent infections. He has recently returned from a business trip with three colleagues to Japan.

      On examination, he is febrile, with a temperature of 39.1 °C, and a tachycardia of 120 beats/min. He is noted to have small blisters on the sides of some fingers, and a diffusely red, swollen, painful right wrist that he cannot move. He also has pitting in some nails with hypertrophic plaques of scaling skin on both ankles. He has a similar lesion in his scalp behind the left ear. His left ankle is red and hot and very painful, and held in slight flexion. He resists any movement of it. General medical examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient in question presents with symptoms consistent with disseminated gonococcal infection, specifically the dermatitis-polyarthritis-tenosynovitis syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by fever, symmetrical polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis in the form of painless vesiculopustular lesions. Diagnosis is made through culture of synovial fluid, skin lesions, and urethral swabs. Treatment involves NSAIDs for symptomatic relief, as well as ceftriaxone and azithromycin.

      Other potential diagnoses to consider include reactive arthritis, which presents with a triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis in response to a distant gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. Psoriatic arthritis may also be a possibility, as the patient exhibits scaling skin on their knees and nail pitting, but the onset is too rapid and the single joint disease is more severe than expected. Mixed connective tissue disease, an overlap syndrome including features of systemic lupus erythematosus, systemic sclerosis, and polymyositis, is not consistent with the patient’s history and examination.

      Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      424.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old Japanese city banker with a history of irritable bowel disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Japanese city banker with a history of irritable bowel disease presents with recurrent mouth ulcers that have been occurring more frequently despite previous treatment with chlorhexidine mouthwashes, oral aciclovir, and prednisolone lozenges. He has also been experiencing pain at the tip of his penis during sexual intercourse and has been feeling increasingly tired, leading him to give up playing football. He denies any weight loss and his appetite is unchanged. On examination, multiple aphthous ulcers are found in the oral cavity, as well as a small aphthous ulcer on the tip of the penis. Abdominal examination reveals mild, diffuse tenderness but no masses, and rectal examination reveals no abnormality. Investigations reveal a low haemoglobin level, elevated white cell count and platelets, and slightly elevated urea and creatinine levels. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is slightly elevated, but anti-nuclear antibody and anti-dsDNA antibody tests are negative. The patient is currently taking oxytetracycline for acne. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex type I infection

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s syndrome is a chronic disease that affects multiple systems in the body and is most commonly found in the Mediterranean, Middle East, and Japan. It has been linked to certain HLA types, including B12, -B51, and -B5. Diagnosis is made by excluding other conditions, as there is no specific test for it. Behçet’s syndrome is a vasculitic disorder that affects both arteries and veins, often leading to thrombosis. Symptoms include painful oral and genital ulcers, ocular inflammation, arthritis, skin lesions, and abnormal response to tissue injury. Treatment is usually symptomatic, but some cases may require systemic corticosteroids or immunosuppressants. Reactive arthritis, Crohn’s disease, herpes simplex type I infection, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all conditions that can be ruled out based on the specific symptoms present in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents to rheumatology with severe tophaceous gout. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to rheumatology with severe tophaceous gout. He has been experiencing intermittent gout attacks affecting his first metatarsophalangeal joints for the past few years. However, over the last two months, he has developed inflammation of multiple small joints in his hands, which has prevented him from continuing his work as a train driver. His General Practitioner prescribed Colchicine, but it was discontinued due to severe diarrhoea. The patient's medical history includes an upper GI bleed from a duodenal ulcer six months ago.

      On examination, the patient has severe asymmetrical inflammation of multiple metacarpalphalangeal, distal interphalangeal, and proximal interphalangeal joints in both hands. Yellow-white tophi are present across the inflamed joints. Blood tests taken prior to clinic attendance show:

      Hb 15.2 g/dl
      Platelets 265 * 109/l
      WBC 6.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 134 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 9.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 175 µmol/l
      eGFR 62 ml/min
      Urate 370 µmol/l

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's acute gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short course prednisolone

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of an acute gout attack affecting multiple small joints of the hands, the most effective option is a short course of oral prednisolone. This treatment has been shown to have similar efficacy to NSAIDs in two randomized controlled trials. Intra-articular steroid injection may be effective for acute gout in large joints, but is not recommended for multiple small joints. Naproxen should not be used in this case due to the patient’s history of peptic ulceration and renal impairment. Allopurinol and Febuxostat are used for gout prophylaxis to lower serum urate levels and are not appropriate for treating an acute attack.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of visual disturbance...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of visual disturbance in his left eye, accompanied by peripheral vision loss. He reports constant headaches over the past two weeks, which are worse on the left side of his skull and exacerbated by pressure. He is unable to lie on his left side due to the pain. On examination, he exhibits peripheral loss of vision in the temporal lower quadrant of his left eye and tenderness in the left temporal region and shoulders. He experiences mild difficulty in rising from a seated position, but is otherwise neurologically intact. Blood tests reveal elevated CRP levels and an ESR of 79 mm/h.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital urgently for IV methylprednisolone infusion

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospital admission and prompt administration of corticosteroids are crucial in cases of giant cell arteritis accompanied by visual impairment. Delay in treatment can result in permanent loss of vision. Although there may be concerns about a possible transient ischemic attack or stroke, the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory results suggest a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis. Therefore, urgent CT of the head may not be necessary at this time.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man presents to the medical unit with an acutely swollen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the medical unit with an acutely swollen and hot joint. The swelling is localized to the first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) and is causing him significant discomfort. He reports having experienced this problem before and having it successfully treated, but the medication used caused him to have severe diarrhea.

      Upon examination, the first MTPJ is swollen, red, and extremely tender to the touch. There is limited mobility, and walking causes severe pain.

      The patient's medical history includes chronic kidney disease, gout, osteoarthritis, and angina.

      Blood tests taken upon admission reveal:

      - Hb 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 300* 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 10.4* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Na+ 138 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine 230 µmol/L (55-120)
      - CRP 32 mg/L (<5)

      Based on the symptoms and medical history, the suspected diagnosis is an acute gout flare. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If NSAIDs and colchicine cannot be used due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option for treating gout is a steroid. In this particular case, the most suitable treatment for the patient would be oral prednisolone as he has gout affecting a small joint and has relative contraindications to NSAIDs and colchicine due to asthma, previous intolerance of colchicine, and renal disease. Febuxostat is not a suitable choice as it is a medication used for gout prophylaxis. Another option for treatment would be a steroid injection directly into the affected joint, but not an intramuscular steroid injection.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man with a history of diabetes presented to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a history of diabetes presented to the clinic with bilateral knee pain. On examination, he appeared suntanned with sparse body hair and the knees were swollen and tender, with limited range of movement. He works as an insurance salesman, is a non-smoker but drinks on most weekends, and is on insulin for the diabetes and also takes sildenafil occasionally for erectile dysfunction. The investigations revealed abnormal results for sodium, potassium, creatinine, albumin, bilirubin, ALT, AST, GGT, glucose, LH, FSH, and testosterone. Additionally, an X-ray of the knees showed calcification present. What is the most likely cause of the joint abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Arthropathy in Hereditary Haemochromatosis

      Hereditary haemochromatosis is a condition that should be suspected in patients with liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism and impotence, skin hyperpigmentation, fatigue and arthropathy. The arthropathy in hereditary haemochromatosis is due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition and can include pseudo-gout, chondrocalcinosis and chronic arthropathy. Biochemical findings include high serum iron, ferritin and transferrin saturation, and liver biopsy shows staining for excess iron.

      Cystinosis is a metabolic disease that causes end-stage renal function due to the accumulation of cysteine. Osteomalacia is often asymptomatic and bilateral knee joint pain is not a common presentation. Ochronosis describes the pigment deposition that occurs in the connective tissues of patients with alkaptonuria, which is not associated with the bronze appearance of the skin in this patient. Gout would present with hot, tender, swollen joints and subcortical bone cysts, but bilateral knee involvement would be unusual. Monosodium urate crystal deposition is not associated with hereditary haemochromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old woman with SLE affecting skin and joints has been taking azathioprine...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman with SLE affecting skin and joints has been taking azathioprine (100 mg/day) and hydroxychloroquine 400 mg/day for the past four years. She presents with a sudden onset of a large blind spot in her right eye. Upon examination, a positive scotoma is noted in her right visual field. There is no history of headache, and retinal fundoscopy and the rest of the nervous system examination are normal. Her recent blood test results show normal urea, electrolytes, and creatinine levels, with a haemoglobin level of 131 g/L (115-165), WBC of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), neutrophils of 7.1 ×109/L (1.5-7), platelets of 180 ×109/L (150-400), ESR of 28 mm/hr (0-20), and CRP of 12 mg/L (<10). What is the most likely cause of her visual loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinopathy due to hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine Ocular Toxicity: Risks and Symptoms

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used to treat autoimmune diseases such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can also cause ocular toxicity, with retinopathy being the most concerning. Other benign but more common effects include keratopathy, ciliary body involvement, and lens opacities. The risk of retinopathy is low but increases with daily and cumulative dosage, duration of treatment, coexisting renal or liver disease, patient age, and concomitant retinal disease.

      Symptoms of hydroxychloroquine retinopathy include difficulty reading, decreased vision, missing central vision, glare, blurred vision, light flashes, and metamorphopsia. However, some patients may not experience any symptoms. Advanced retinopathy often presents with a bull’s eye fundoscopic appearance and field defects such as paracentral, pericentral, and central and peripheral field loss.

      Regular screening is recommended to detect reversible premaculopathy. If toxicity is detected, cessation of the drug is the only effective management. Overall, while the risk of hydroxychloroquine ocular toxicity is low, patients should be aware of the potential risks and report any concerning symptoms to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man presents with a one-week history of fever, chills, nausea, vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a one-week history of fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and joint pain. He had been prescribed a five-day course of amoxicillin by his GP with no improvement. He reports experiencing use-related pain in his distal interphalangeal joints and knees, which is more severe than usual, and denies any cough, sore throat, or dysuria. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus, hypertension, coronary artery disease, and gout. On examination, he appears acutely unwell, with no rash noted. His temperature is 39.5°C, pulse 92 beats/min, and BP 180/95 mmHg. Investigations reveal a Hb of 105 g/L, WCC of 20.5 ×109/L, and a large effusion in his right knee. Apart from acute gout, what is the most likely diagnosis from the list below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Acute Monoarticular Arthritis: Differential Diagnoses and Risk Factors

      Acute monoarticular arthritis can have various causes, including gout, septic arthritis, and acute pseudogout. Trauma-induced arthritis is also a possibility, but it is not included in the list of likely diagnoses. In this case, the knee is affected, which is less common in gout but typical for pseudogout. Septic arthritis is the most probable alternative diagnosis due to the presence of rigors and the fact that only one joint is affected, with the knee being the most commonly involved. Negative blood cultures may be due to recent antibiotic use.

      The patient has several risk factors for septic arthritis, such as diabetes mellitus, age over 60 years, and underlying articular disease like osteoarthritis. However, osteoarthritis symptoms do not fluctuate as dramatically as in this case, and systemic symptoms are uncommon. Rheumatic fever arthritis is migratory, involving several joints in sequence, while rheumatoid arthritis affects specific joints.

      The most crucial test to perform at this point is arthrocentesis of the right knee, which can distinguish between infection and crystals, the two most likely causes of acute monoarthritis. Dehydration from vomiting can trigger a gout attack, but it is less common in the knee joint. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and risk factors is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute monoarticular arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old man attends the Gastroenterology outpatient clinic for a follow-up on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man attends the Gastroenterology outpatient clinic for a follow-up on his Crohn's disease, which was diagnosed three years ago. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia, gout, and ischaemic heart disease. The patient has been experiencing increased abdominal pain and diarrhoea for a few months, and the physician recommends starting azathioprine. Before initiating the medication, what is the crucial medication that needs to be checked if he is taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      When taken together, azathioprine and allopurinol can cause a serious interaction that results in bone marrow suppression. This is because allopurinol inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is needed to inactivate 6-mercaptopurine (the active ingredient in azathioprine). As a result, levels of 6-mercaptopurine increase and are metabolized differently, leading to higher levels of 6-thioguanine metabolites that can be incorporated into white blood cell DNA. This can reduce activation and replication potential, which can be life-threatening. To avoid this, dose reductions and extra monitoring are necessary when taking both medications. However, the other medications listed do not interact with azathioprine and do not require additional monitoring.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A middle-aged woman on a camping trip in central Europe developed fever, myalgia,...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman on a camping trip in central Europe developed fever, myalgia, and a rash that cleared from the center. She was diagnosed with Lyme disease and received an extended course of antibiotics, resulting in a normal recovery. What type of tick is the primary carrier responsible for transmitting Lyme disease to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ixodes ricinus

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease Transmission and Responsible Ticks

      Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is primarily transmitted by Ixodes ricinus in Europe. In the United States, the responsible ticks for transmitting Lyme disease are Ixodes pacificus and Ixodes scapularis. These ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and attach themselves to humans and animals, transmitting the bacteria through their bite. It is important to take preventative measures such as wearing protective clothing and using insect repellent when spending time in tick-infested areas to reduce the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Early detection and treatment of Lyme disease is crucial in preventing long-term health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman who has taken up gardening recently complains of pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who has taken up gardening recently complains of pain on the lateral side of her left wrist. The pain is aggravated by gripping objects tightly and using heavy gardening tools. Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness around the lateral margin of the left wrist, extending a few centimeters proximally. Finkelstein's test is positive. The patient's recent FBC, UEC, LFTs, and rheumatoid factor have all been negative. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      Hand and Wrist Conditions

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that affects the tendons in the first extensor compartment at the back of the thumb. It causes localized pain, swelling, and tenderness, which worsen with certain movements. Finkelstein’s test, which involves flexing the thumb and deviating the wrist, may be used to diagnose the condition, but it is not always reliable. Intersection syndrome is another type of tenosynovitis that affects the extensor carpi radialis tendons, causing pain and swelling about 4 cm above the wrist joint. Preiser’s disease and Kienbock’s disease are conditions that involve avascular necrosis of the scaphoid and lunate bones, respectively, and cause pain and swelling in the wrist joint. Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects the palmar fascia of the hand, causing nodular hypertrophy and contractures, which can lead to pitting, nodules, and thickening of the fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Ms. Johnson is a 65-year-old woman with pulmonary fibrosis secondary to dermatomyositis. She...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson is a 65-year-old woman with pulmonary fibrosis secondary to dermatomyositis. She visits your clinic after seven weeks of being on high dose steroids due to disease progression. During the consultation, Ms. Johnson reports an increase in shortness of breath, especially when she exerts herself. She denies any fever or weight loss but has a chronic cough that produces white sputum, which has remained stable.

      Upon examination, Ms. Johnson appears comfortable at rest, and her chest auscultation is surprisingly clear. Her oxygen saturation is 97% at rest, but after walking to the end of the corridor and back, it drops to 82%. An urgent chest radiograph is ordered, which reveals bilateral patchy infiltrates.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Co-trimoxazole is the recommended treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, which is caused by an opportunistic yeast-like fungus. Patients with dermatomyositis or polymyositis and pulmonary fibrosis who are receiving glucocorticoids should also receive PCP prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole. It is important to note that not all patients taking glucocorticoids for rheumatological conditions require PCP prophylaxis, but those with both glucocorticoid use and deficiencies in immune components should be considered. Examples of patients who should receive prophylaxis include those on high doses of prednisolone for one month or more, those undergoing stem cell or solid organ transplantation, and those with dermatomyositis and pulmonary fibrosis. Stopping steroids would not be appropriate in the case of PCP pneumonia.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. The organism responsible for this infection is an unicellular eukaryote, which is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.

      To diagnose PCP, a chest x-ray is typically performed, which may show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates or other findings such as lobar consolidation. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, so a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP involves co-trimoxazole or IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment, but it is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be prescribed if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.

      It is recommended that all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ receive PCP prophylaxis. This infection can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old man with a diagnosis of Paget's disease presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a diagnosis of Paget's disease presents to the clinic with a two-month history of worsening bone pain, mainly in his right leg. He is currently taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, and alendronate.

      Upon examination, there is significant deformity of the long bones, particularly the right tibia.

      The following blood tests were obtained:

      - Calcium: 2.40 mmol/L (2.25-2.5)
      - Albumin: 37g/L (34-54)
      - Corrected calcium: 2.50 mmol/L (2.25-2.5)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 484 U/L (45-105)
      - Alanine transaminase: 27 U/L (5-35)

      What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease is identified by unusual bone remodeling, especially in the long bones and skull. The blood test results that are indicative of this condition include elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, while liver function tests remain normal (since alkaline phosphatase is also present in bones). If there is associated immobility, a high calcium level may be observed.

      Initially, pain is managed with analgesics and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. If the condition persists, treatment is escalated to bisphosphonates and calcitonin.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.

      Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.

      To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.

      Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old male patient, who has a history of hereditary angioneurotic oedema (HAO),...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient, who has a history of hereditary angioneurotic oedema (HAO), presents with recurring fever, arthralgia, and a rash on his upper chest and face. Despite receiving treatment for his HAO, he has been experiencing recurrent attacks and has needed adrenaline on multiple occasions. His C4 levels have consistently been low due to his HAO. What is the probable reason for his current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Hereditary Angioedema and its Association with Low C4 Levels and SLE Risk

      Hereditary angioedema (HAO) is a condition that is caused by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This deficiency results in the continuous activation of the classical complement pathway, which often leads to low levels of C4 due to consumption and activation. If treatment fails to restore normal C4 levels and they remain persistently low, patients with HAO are at a higher risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Therefore, it is important to monitor C4 levels in patients with HAO and ensure that they are adequately treated to prevent the development of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old Hispanic man presents for evaluation with a history of two episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Hispanic man presents for evaluation with a history of two episodes of transient ischaemic attacks in the past 24 months. Additionally, he reports experiencing cramping in his legs when walking for extended periods. He has also been feeling significantly fatigued lately.

      He has a history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years. Arteriography reveals diffuse stenoses of the femoral and popliteal arteries.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 4.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.8 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
      C-Reactive Protein (CRP) 15 mg/l < 10 mg/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 35 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 80 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) Negative

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Overview of Takayasu’s Disease and Differential Diagnoses

      Takayasu’s disease is a rare inflammatory vasculitis that affects the aorta and its branches, causing progressive occlusive disease. It is more common in Asia and the Far East, but can also occur in Caucasian patients. The disease typically presents with constitutional, neurological, or vascular symptoms, as well as cardiac and renal manifestations. Blood tests may show a modest inflammatory response. Treatment involves corticosteroids and steroid-sparing agents, with good long-term survival rates.

      Differential diagnoses for Takayasu’s disease include Buerger’s disease, which predominantly affects young male smokers and presents with inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries and veins in the hands and feet. Behçet’s disease is a rare, multi-system vasculitis associated with oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, usually found in men. Giant-cell arteritis is a condition that affects elderly Caucasian females and is associated with headache and a risk of irreversible blindness. Systemic lupus erythematosus is a disease that typically affects young females and presents with various symptoms, but this patient has no signs of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old female has presented to your neurology clinic with complaints of difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female has presented to your neurology clinic with complaints of difficulty lifting her arms during exercises at the gym for the past few months. She is visibly upset and tearful, mentioning that she has been using a lot of make-up to cover a new purple rash and swelling around her eyelids. She has no significant medical history or recent trauma and is generally healthy. She has had a dry cough for the past 6 months, which she attributes to her previous social smoking habit of up to 2 cigarettes every 2 weeks when going out with friends.

      Upon examination, you note limited passive movement in both shoulders and hips due to tender deltoids and hip flexors. Power examination reveals 4-out-of-5 symmetrically in hip flexion and shoulder abduction. She has an elliptical erythematous rash around her eyes, and the skin around her fingers appears tough bilaterally. Auscultation of her chest reveals bibasal fine inspiratory crackles and normal heart sounds. Her observations show a low-grade temperature of 37.7 degrees. A chest radiograph shows bilateral fibrotic changes.

      Her admission blood tests are as follows:

      - Hb 121 g/l
      - Platelets 590 * 109/l
      - WBC 12.3 * 109/l
      - ESR 20 mm/hr
      - Creatine kinase 3000 u/l
      - LDH 250 u/l

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis that unifies all of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from an inflammatory myositis, as she is experiencing proximal myopathy along with a violaceous rash on her eyelid and mechanics hands, and may also have interstitial lung disease. While inclusion body myositis is a possibility, it is typically limited to proximal muscles and less commonly affects distal, bulbar, and facial muscles. Systemic sclerosis is another potential diagnosis, but it tends to produce inflammatory myositis that is similar to polymyositis and is often accompanied by cranial and peripheral neuropathies. However, the patient’s distinctive cutaneous features strongly suggest dermatomyositis, as she has a heliotropic rash with oedema on her eyelid, as well as other characteristic findings such as Gottron’s papules, shawl and V sign, mechanics hands, and periungual erythema. It is worth noting that the patient’s ESR result was normal, which is not uncommon in dermatomyositis patients.

      Understanding Dermatomyositis

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

      In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old man has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic due to a long history of pain in his back and knee joints. He first experienced recurrent back and wrist pain at the age of 7 and was treated for possible juvenile arthritis, which often responded to analgesia. However, the disease has been relapsing and remitting over the years, and since last year, the back pain has been constant all over his spine and has not responded to analgesia.

      Despite several investigations in the past, including X-rays of the spine and knee, rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibody, and autoimmune profile, all results were reported as normal. He had a normal childhood with no illness, and there is no family history of note. He has also seen dermatologists for an abnormal dark-brown pigmentation in his ears and sclera, but no cause was found.

      During examination, his knees are swollen and painful, and he has tenderness all over his spine. Both sclera and ears show an abnormal dark brown pigmentation. Further investigations reveal abnormal results in his haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, and urinalysis.

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alkaptonuria

      Explanation:

      Alkaptonuria is a genetic disorder that results in the deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic oxidase, leading to the accumulation of homogentisic acid. This causes pigmentation of urine, sclera, and connective tissues, as well as cartilage pigmentation and degeneration in the joints. The Glucostix test may give a false positive, but the Clinitest is normal. Phenylketonuria, on the other hand, is an inborn error of metabolism that leads to decreased metabolism of phenylalanine. If left untreated, it can cause intellectual disability, seizures, behavioural problems, and mental disorder, as well as a musty smell and lighter skin. Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterised by abnormal X-rays and blue sclerae. Ankylosing spondylitis, meanwhile, shows changes in the sacroiliac joints in X-rays, but no pigmentary problems. Finally, Polyarticular Still’s disease is not associated with urinary problems or ocular pigmentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old woman is urgently admitted to the hospital due to an abnormality...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is urgently admitted to the hospital due to an abnormality found in her routine blood tests. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate, folic acid, ramipril, atorvastatin, and antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. Her blood results show a hemoglobin level of 68 g/l, platelets of 65 * 109/l, WBC of 2.1 * 109/l, neutrophils of 0.5 * 109/l, lymphocytes of 0.7 * 109l, and monocytes of 0.1 * 109l. Which antibiotic prescribed for this patient could be responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The simultaneous administration of methotrexate and antibiotics containing trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia.

      Methotrexate interferes with the cell cycle by acting as a folic acid antagonist. Similarly, trimethoprim also acts as a folic acid antagonist. When used together, the risk of myelosuppression is heightened, particularly since trimethoprim reduces the rate at which methotrexate is excreted by the kidneys.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (5/14) 36%
Passmed