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  • Question 1 - A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease five years ago has experienced...

    Correct

    • A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease five years ago has experienced a sudden and significant deterioration in her functioning. Her motor symptoms are limited to her right arm and leg. She has lost nearly all functionality in her right hand, but there is no noticeable tremor. Additionally, her right arm frequently exhibits involuntary jerking movements and is held in a contracted position. The patient also reports a decline in her memory abilities.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Corticobasal degeneration

      Explanation:

      The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).

      Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.

      To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:

      iPD:
      – Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
      – Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
      – Levodopa response: Excellent response
      – Mental changes: Depression
      – Balance/falls: Late in the disease
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing

      MSA:
      – Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
      – Tremor: Not common but may occur
      – Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
      – Mental changes: Depression
      – Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing

      PSP:
      – Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
      – Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
      – Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
      – Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
      – Balance/falls: Within 1 year
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwards

      CBD:
      – Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
      – Tremor: Not common but may occur
      – Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
      – Mental changes: Depression
      – Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
      – Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old patient who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three shocks, the patient experiences a return of spontaneous circulation.

      What are the recommended blood pressure goals following a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Mean arterial pressure 65-100 mmHg

      Explanation:

      After the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), there are two specific blood pressure targets that need to be achieved. The first target is to maintain a systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. The second target is to maintain the mean arterial pressure (MAP) within the range of 65 to 100 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1988.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a hillside overnight. The rescue team informs you that according to the Swiss Staging system, he is at stage II.
      What is the most accurate description of his current medical condition?

      Your Answer: Impaired consciousness without shivering

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature drops below 35°C. It is categorized as mild (32-35°C), moderate (28-32°C), or severe (<28°C). Rescuers at the scene can use the Swiss staging system to describe the condition of victims. The stages range from clearly conscious and shivering to unconscious and not breathing, with death due to irreversible hypothermia being the most severe stage. There are several risk factors for hypothermia, including environmental exposure, unsatisfactory housing, poverty, lack of cold awareness, drugs, alcohol, acute confusion, hypothyroidism, and sepsis. The clinical features of hypothermia vary depending on the severity. At 32-35°C, symptoms may include apathy, amnesia, ataxia, and dysarthria. At 30-32°C, there may be a decreased level of consciousness, hypotension, arrhythmias, respiratory depression, and muscular rigidity. Below 30°C, ventricular fibrillation may occur, especially with excessive movement or invasive procedures. Diagnosing hypothermia involves checking the core temperature using an oesophageal, rectal, or tympanic probe with a low reading thermometer. Rectal and tympanic temperatures may lag behind core temperature and are unreliable in hypothermia. Various investigations should be carried out, including blood tests, blood glucose, amylase, blood cultures, arterial blood gas, ECG, chest X-ray, and CT head if there is suspicion of head injury or CVA. The management of hypothermia involves supporting the ABCs, treating the patient in a warm room, removing wet clothes and drying the skin, monitoring the ECG, providing warmed, humidified oxygen, correcting hypoglycemia with IV glucose, and handling the patient gently to avoid VF arrest. Re-warming methods include passive re-warming with warm blankets or Bair hugger/polythene sheets, surface re-warming with a water bath, core re-warming with heated, humidified oxygen or peritoneal lavage, and extracorporeal re-warming via cardiopulmonary bypass for severe hypothermia/cardiac arrest. In the case of hypothermic cardiac arrest, CPR should be performed with chest compressions and ventilations at standard rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      1088.5
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old man with a history of COPD complains of a headache, dizziness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of COPD complains of a headache, dizziness, and palpitations. He is currently taking modified-release theophylline for his COPD. You suspect theophylline toxicity and schedule a blood test to check his levels.
      When should the blood sample be taken after his last oral dose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-6 hours

      Explanation:

      In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.

      To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to her left shoulder and jaw. The pain has improved after receiving GTN spray under the tongue and intravenous morphine.
      What other medication should be recommended at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      This particular patient has a high risk of experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. Therefore, it is recommended to administer aspirin at a dosage of 300 mg and clopidogrel at a dosage ranging from 300-600 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman with a longstanding history of heavy tobacco use and lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a longstanding history of heavy tobacco use and lung cancer presents with cough, chest pain, worsening shortness of breath, and fatigue.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of patients are classified as Child-Pugh class C. In any given year, around 30% of patients with ascites, a condition characterized by fluid buildup in the abdomen, will develop SBP.

      SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with ascites, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.

      Common clinical features of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, tenderness, worsening ascites, general malaise, and hepatic encephalopathy. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing SBP, such as severe liver disease, gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, intestinal bacterial overgrowth, indwelling lines (e.g., central venous catheters or urinary catheters), previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the ascitic fluid.

      To diagnose SBP, an abdominal paracentesis, also known as an ascitic tap, is performed. This involves locating the area of dullness on the flank, next to the rectus abdominis muscle, and performing the tap about 5 cm above and towards the midline from the anterior superior iliac spines.

      Certain features on the analysis of the peritoneal fluid strongly suggest SBP, including a total white cell count in the ascitic fluid of more than 500 cells/µL, a total neutrophil count of more than 250 cells/µL, a lactate level in the ascitic fluid of more than 25 mg/dL, a pH of less than 7.35, and the presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.

      Patients diagnosed with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and given broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred choice is an intravenous 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administering intravenous albumin can help reduce the risk of kidney failure and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness and numbness in his legs...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness and numbness in his legs for the past several days. Additionally, he has been feeling breathless during walking. He recently went on a vacation where he had diarrhea, and a stool culture confirmed an infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) affects approximately 1-2 individuals per 100,000 annually and is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral nervous system, including the autonomic system. The most common initial symptom is weakness in the hands or feet, often accompanied by pain and tingling sensations as the paralysis spreads. Miller Fisher syndrome, a variant of GBS, is characterized by a triad of symptoms: ataxia, areflexia, and ophthalmoplegia.

      Due to the potential serious consequences of autonomic involvement, such as fluctuations in blood pressure and cardiac arrhythmias, patients with GBS are typically hospitalized. As the diaphragm becomes paralyzed and swallowing becomes difficult, patients may require ventilation and nasogastric feeding.

      GBS is an autoimmune disease that usually develops within three weeks of an infection. The leading cause is Campylobacter jejuni, followed by Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. While the patient’s immune response effectively targets the initial infection, it also mistakenly attacks the host tissue.

      Symptoms of GBS typically peak around four weeks and then gradually improve. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, which confirms the presence of areflexia and progressive weakness in the legs (and sometimes arms). Nerve conduction studies and lumbar puncture can also aid in diagnosis, with the latter often showing elevated protein levels and few white blood cells.

      Treatment for GBS is primarily supportive, with the use of immunoglobulins to shorten the duration of the illness being common. Plasma exchange may also be utilized, although it has become less common since the introduction of immunoglobulin therapy.

      Approximately 80% of patients with GBS make a full recovery, although this often requires a lengthy hospital stay. The mortality rate is around 5%, depending on the availability of necessary facilities such as ventilatory support during the acute phase. Additionally, about 15% of patients may experience some permanent disability, such as weakness or pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman presents with severe diarrhea one week after a hip replacement...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with severe diarrhea one week after a hip replacement surgery. The diarrhea has a foul odor and is yellow in color. You suspect a diagnosis of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD).

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial test to investigate this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile toxin assay

      Explanation:

      The current gold standard for diagnosing Clostridium difficile colitis is the cytotoxin assay. However, this test has its drawbacks. It can be challenging to perform and results may take up to 48 hours to be available.

      The most common laboratory test used to diagnose Clostridium difficile colitis is an enzyme-mediated immunoassay that detects toxins A and B. This test has a specificity of 93-100% and a sensitivity of 63-99%.

      Stool culture, although expensive, is not specific for pathogenic strains and therefore cannot be relied upon for a definitive diagnosis of CDAD.

      Sigmoidoscopy is not routinely used, but it may be performed in cases where a rapid diagnosis is needed or if the patient has an ileus. Approximately 50% of patients may exhibit the characteristic pseudomembranous appearance, which can be confirmed through a biopsy.

      Abdominal X-ray and CT scanning are not typically used, but they can be beneficial in severe cases where complications such as perforation and toxin megacolon are suspected.

      It is important to note that a barium enema should not be performed in patients with CDAD as it can be potentially harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 9 - You are preparing to conduct rapid sequence induction. What clinical observation, typically seen...

    Incorrect

    • You are preparing to conduct rapid sequence induction. What clinical observation, typically seen after administering suxamethonium, is not present when rocuronium is used for neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscle fasciculations

      Explanation:

      When suxamethonium is administered for neuromuscular blockade during rapid sequence induction, one of the clinical observations typically seen is muscle fasciculations. However, when rocuronium is used instead, muscle fasciculations are not present.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 10 - You evaluate a 38-year-old woman who was hit on the side of her...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 38-year-old woman who was hit on the side of her leg by a soccer player while spectating the match from the sidelines. You suspect a tibial plateau fracture and order an X-ray of the affected knee. Besides the fracture line, what other radiographic indication is frequently observed in individuals with acute tibial plateau fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipohaemathrosis evident in suprapatellar pouch

      Explanation:

      Lipohaemathrosis is commonly seen in the suprapatellar pouch in individuals who have tibial plateau fractures. Notable X-ray characteristics of tibial plateau fractures include a visible fracture of the tibial plateau and the presence of lipohaemathrosis in the suprapatellar pouch.

      Further Reading:

      Tibial plateau fractures are a type of traumatic lower limb and joint injury that can involve the medial or lateral tibial plateau, or both. These fractures are classified using the Schatzker classification, with higher grades indicating a worse prognosis. X-ray imaging can show visible fractures of the tibial plateau and the presence of lipohaemathrosis in the suprapatellar pouch. However, X-rays often underestimate the severity of these fractures, so CT scans are typically used for a more accurate assessment.

      Tibial spine fractures, on the other hand, are separate from tibial plateau fractures. They occur when the tibial spine is avulsed by the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). This can happen due to forced knee hyperextension or a direct blow to the femur when the knee is flexed. These fractures are most common in children aged 8-14.

      Tibial tuberosity avulsion fractures primarily affect adolescent boys and are often caused by jumping or landing from a jump. These fractures can be associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease. The treatment for these fractures depends on their grading. Low-grade fractures may be managed with immobilization for 4-6 weeks, while more significant avulsions are best treated with surgical fixation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 11 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing at home. The patient is observed to be hypotensive and drowsy upon arrival and is promptly transferred to the resuscitation bay. The patient's spouse informs you that the patient has been feeling sick with nausea and vomiting for the past 48 hours. It is important to note that the patient has a medical history of Addison's disease. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100mg IM hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for Addisonian (adrenal) crisis is hydrocortisone. This patient displays symptoms that indicate an Addisonian crisis, and the main components of their management involve administering hydrocortisone and providing intravenous fluids for resuscitation.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - You are called to a cardiac arrest in a child in the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a cardiac arrest in a child in the Emergency Department. Which SINGLE statement regarding resuscitation in children is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 15:2

      Explanation:

      The ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio has not been proven through experiments, but it has been validated through mathematical studies. When performing chest compressions on a child, it is recommended to make them at least 1/3 of the depth of the child’s chest. Additionally, the optimal compression rate is between 100 and 120 compressions per minute.
      To protect the airway of an unconscious child, the oropharyngeal (Guedel) airway is the best option. However, it should not be used on awake patients as there is a risk of vomiting and aspiration.
      In children, asystole is the most common arrest rhythm. This occurs when the young heart responds to prolonged hypoxia and acidosis by progressively slowing down, eventually resulting in asystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks have been happening in clusters during the past few weeks and consistently occur at night. An exercise tolerance test has been scheduled, and the results came back completely normal.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prinzmetal angina

      Explanation:

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs during periods of rest, specifically between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. This condition is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, even though patients may have normal arteries. The main treatment options for controlling these spasms are calcium-channel blockers and nitrates. The spasms often follow a cyclical pattern and may disappear after a few months, only to reappear later on.

      Unstable angina may present similarly to Prinzmetal angina, but it does not exclusively occur at night and the exercise tolerance test results are typically abnormal.

      Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It is often a result of cardiac failure caused by increased intravascular volume, which puts extra strain on the heart.

      Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, also known as acute stress cardiomyopathy, can present in a manner similar to an acute myocardial infarction. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it tends to occur in individuals who have recently experienced significant emotional or physical stress. The term Takotsubo refers to the shape the left ventricle takes on, resembling an octopus pot with a narrow neck and round bottom. ECGs often show characteristic changes, such as ST-elevation, but subsequent angiograms reveal normal coronary arteries. The diagnosis is confirmed when the angiogram shows the distinctive octopus pot shape of the left ventricle.

      There is no indication of a psychogenic cause in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - You evaluate an infant with bluish skin discoloration. The possibility of congenital cyanotic...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate an infant with bluish skin discoloration. The possibility of congenital cyanotic heart disease is being considered.
      What is one of the potential causes of congenital cyanotic heart disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to be able to distinguish between the underlying causes of congenital cyanotic and acyanotic heart disease. Tricuspid atresia is one of the causes of congenital cyanotic heart disease. Other causes in this category include Ebstein’s anomaly, Hypoplastic left heart syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, and Transposition of the great vessels.

      On the other hand, congenital acyanotic heart disease has different causes. These include Ventricular septal defect, Patent ductus arteriosus, Atrial septal defect, Atrioventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis, Aortic stenosis, and Coarctation of the aorta.

      By understanding the distinctions between these causes, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate diagnosis and treatment for patients with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
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  • Question 15 - A patient currently undergoing treatment for a malignant condition comes in with a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient currently undergoing treatment for a malignant condition comes in with a recent weight increase, puffiness in the face, high blood pressure, and acne. Blood tests show high sodium levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable location of this tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) that originates from neuroendocrine tissue can lead to the development of paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, such as Cushing syndrome. This occurs due to the inappropriate secretion of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). In this case, it is highly likely that the patient has a neuroendocrine tumor within the lung that is secreting ACTH.

      The signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome may be minimal in cases of ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and the onset of symptoms may be sudden, especially in rapidly growing SCLCs. The typical biochemical profile observed in these cases includes elevated sodium levels, low potassium levels, and a metabolic alkalosis.

      The tumors associated with the production of ectopic ACTH are as follows:
      – Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) – 50%
      – Bronchial carcinoid tumors – 10%
      – Thymic carcinoma – 10%
      – Pancreatic islet cell tumors – 5%
      – Phaeochromocytoma – 5%
      – Medullary thyroid carcinoma – 5%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. She has been in a car accident and has sustained severe burns. You examine her airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. Your plan is to intubate the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
      As per the ATLS guidelines, what is the minimum internal diameter of the endotracheal tube that should be utilized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mm

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 17 - Following the passing of a young patient treated for an extended cardiac arrest...

    Incorrect

    • Following the passing of a young patient treated for an extended cardiac arrest after a near-drowning incident, your supervisor requests that you arrange a training session for the junior physicians. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the management of near-drowning patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients should be extricated from the water in the horizontal position

      Explanation:

      When rescuing drowning patients, it is important to extricate them from the water in a horizontal position whenever possible. This is because the pressure of the water on the body when submerged increases the flow of blood back to the heart, which in turn increases cardiac output. However, when the patient is removed from the water, this pressure effect is lost, which can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure and circulatory collapse due to the loss of peripheral resistance and pooling of blood in the veins. By extricating the patient in a horizontal position, we can help counteract this effect.

      It is worth noting that the amount of water in the lungs after drowning is typically small, usually less than 4 milliliters per kilogram of body weight. Therefore, attempting to drain the water from the lungs is ineffective and not recommended.

      In cases of fresh water drowning, pneumonia may occur due to unusual pathogens such as aeromonas spp, burkholderia pseudomallei, chromobacterium spp, pseudomonas species, and leptospirosis.

      If the patient experiences bronchospasm, nebulized bronchodilators can be used as a treatment.

      To prevent secondary brain injury, it is important to prevent hyperthermia. This can be achieved by maintaining the patient’s core body temperature below 36 degrees Celsius during the rewarming process.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 18 - You review a child with hypocalcaemia with your consultant. She performs an examination...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with hypocalcaemia with your consultant. She performs an examination and taps along the course of the facial nerve as part of this. This causes contraction of the muscles of the eye, mouth, and nose on the same side.

      Which SINGLE sign has the consultant demonstrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chvostek’s sign

      Explanation:

      Chvostek’s sign is an indication of latent tetany and is observed in individuals with hypocalcaemia. When the angle of the jaw is tapped, the facial muscles on the same side of the face will momentarily contract.

      Trousseau’s sign is another indication of latent tetany seen in hypocalcaemia. To test for this sign, a blood pressure cuff is placed around the subject’s arm and inflated to 20 mmHg above systolic blood pressure. This occludes arterial blood flow to the hand for a period of 3 to 5 minutes. In the presence of hypocalcaemia, carpopedal spasm will occur, characterized by flexion at the wrist and MCP joints, extension of the IP joints, and adduction of the thumb and fingers.

      Blumberg’s sign is a diagnostic tool for peritonitis. It is considered positive when rebound tenderness is felt in the abdominal wall upon slow compression and rapid release.

      Froment’s sign is a test used to assess ulnar nerve palsy, specifically evaluating the action of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is instructed to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The examiner then attempts to pull the paper from between the thumb and index finger. A patient with ulnar nerve palsy will struggle to maintain a grip and may compensate by flexing the flexor pollicis longus muscle to sustain the pinching effect.

      Gower’s sign is observed in children with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. When attempting to stand up from the ground, these children will start with both hands and feet on the floor and gradually use their hands to work up their legs until they achieve an upright posture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient has been feeling sick for the past day. The patient's daughter suspects she may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What antidote should be readily accessible in the emergency department for the treatment of digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin specific antibody fragments

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody fragments, known as Digibind or Digifab, are utilized for the treatment of digoxin toxicity. These antibody fragments should be readily available in all hospital pharmacies across the UK and accessible within a maximum of one hour.

      Further Reading:

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.

      ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 20 - You are reviewing a middle-aged woman who came into the department with abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a middle-aged woman who came into the department with abdominal pain. A diagnosis of a simple urinary tract infection has been made, and she will continue with a course of antibiotics at home. She lives at home by herself and has a neighbor who checks on her occasionally. She has mild anxiety, but has capacity and is keen to go back home. Her daughter stops you in the corridor and tells you that she doesn't want her mother to go home, but would like her to go to a rehabilitation center that specializes in mental health.

      What is the most appropriate initial response? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This question delves into the challenges of managing chronic illnesses and promoting patient self-care, while also considering concerns regarding confidentiality. The patient in question is mentally capable and already has caregivers at home. It is both the patient’s preference and the most clinically sensible decision to discharge them back home. It is important to address any family concerns, ensuring that the family members have the patient’s best interests at heart rather than personal or financial motives. It is not appropriate to delegate this conversation to a nurse, as it is your responsibility as the healthcare provider. It is crucial to communicate with the patient’s general practitioner, but it is important to involve the patient in any decision regarding a referral to a nursing home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Passmed