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  • Question 1 - Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in a chemo patient with significant neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Herpes varicella

      Correct Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy that is too aggressive weakens your immune system, putting you at risk for a fungal and many other infection. Neutropenia is a condition in which a person’s neutrophil count is abnormally low. Neutrophils are an infection-fighting type of white blood cell. Neutrophils fight infection by killing bacteria and fungi (yeast) that infiltrate the body. Fungal organisms are significant pathogens in the setting of neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis. She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Protein S

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.Heparin is used for:1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation3. Treatment of fat embolism4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man complains of severe vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Upon presenting himself...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man complains of severe vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Upon presenting himself to the emergency room, it was observed that he is exhibiting ataxia, right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, and left-sided sensory loss to the body. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and the results showed that he is suffering from a right-sided stroke. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral pontine syndrome occurs due to occlusion of perforating branches of the basilar and anterior inferior cerebellar (AICA) arteries. It is also known as Marie-Foix syndrome or Marie-Foix-Alajouanine syndrome. It is considered one of the brainstem stroke syndromes of the lateral aspect of the pons.It is characterized by ipsilateral limb ataxia, loss of pain and temperature sensation of the face, facial weakness, hearing loss, vertigo and nystagmus, hemiplegia/hemiparesis, and loss of pain and temperature sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half...

    Correct

    • A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic branch

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland. 1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth. 4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin. 5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Compliance is decreased by all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is decreased by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Hyperinflated lungs

      Correct Answer: Aging

      Explanation:

      Factors increasing compliance:Old ageEmphysemaFactors decreasing compliance:Pulmonary fibrosisPulmonary oedemaAtelectasisExtremes of lung volumes (at higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule: ...

    Correct

    • About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: 65 - 70%

      Explanation:

      Of the filtered sodium, about 65% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She...

    Correct

    • You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She has a history of gout, and this discomfort is identical to prior relapses, according to her. She is currently taking 200 mg of allopurinol per day and has been for the last year. This is her second round of acute gout within this time period. She has no prior medical history to speak of and does not take any other medications. She doesn't have any known drug allergies.Which of the following management options is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE? 

      Your Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout episode because it can both prolong and trigger another acute attack. Allopurinol should be continued in patients who are currently taking it, and acute attacks should be treated as usual with NSAIDs or colchicine, as needed.Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), such as naproxen, are the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks. Colchicine can be used in situations where NSAIDs are contraindicated, such as in patients with hypertension or those who have had a history of peptic ulcer disease. Because there is no reason for this patient to avoid NSAIDs, naproxen would be the medicine of choice from the list above.It would be reasonable to titrate up the allopurinol dose once the acute episode has subsided, targeting <6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l) plasma urate levels .Febuxostat (Uloric) is a drug that can be used instead of allopurinol to treat persistent gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation taking the new antiplatelet drug ticagrelor, compared with standard treatment with warfarin is done over a 2-year time period. 30 of the 300 patients taking ticagrelor and 20 of the 500 patients taking warfarin suffered a stroke over the 2-year period. One of these statements is true regarding the outcomes of this study.

      Your Answer: The relative risk is 0.4

      Correct Answer: Ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk and relative risk are used to assess the strength of a relationship between a disease and a factor that may affect it.Absolute risk (AR) is the risk of developing a disease over a time period:AR = the number of events that occur in a group / number of people in that groupThe absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treated group (ART). ARR = ARC – ARTThe control group is the warfarin group, therefore the ARC is 20/500 (0.04). Treatment group is the ticagrelor group and ART = 30/300 (0.1). ARR = 0.04 – 0.1 = -0.06. This shows that treatment with ticagrelor increases risk of developing stroke. This is also termed a relative risk increase.Relative risk, or risk ratio, (RR) is used to compare the risk in the two different groups. It is the ratio of the absolute risks of the disease in the treatment group (ART) to the absolute risk of the disease in the control group (ARC):RR=ART /ARCTherefore RR = 0.1 / 0.04 = 2.5RR < 1 means the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome being studiedRR = 1 means the treatment has no effect on the outcome being studiedRR > 1 means the intervention increased the risk of the outcome being studiedSince RR is 2.5, ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke.SUMMARYAbsolute risk reduction is -0.06Absolute risk in warfarin group = 0.04Relative risk = 2.5Ticagrelor has no effect on stroke is incorrect because RR is not =1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      74.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation...

    Correct

    • Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of 3 weeks and longer?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.The usual incubation period for rubella is 14 days; with a range of 12 to 23 days.Gonorrhoea has a short incubation period of approximately 2 to 7 days.The mumps virus can be isolated from infected saliva and swabs rubbed over the Stensen’s duct from 9 days before onset of symptoms until 8 days after parotitis appears.Scarlet fever, which appears within 1 to 2 days after bacterial infection, is characterized by a diffuse red rash that appears on the upper chest and spreads to the trunk and extremities. The rash disappears over the next 5 to7 days and is followed by desquamation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year old male patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and was...

    Correct

    • A 32-year old male patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and was given appropriate treatments. Because he is a family man, he fears that he might transmit the infection to the rest of his family members. The causative agent of meningococcal meningitis is spread via what mode of transmission?

      Your Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      N. meningitidis, the causative agent of meningococcal meningitis, is considered both a commensal and a pathogen. It can be found in the surfaces of mucous membranes such as the nasopharynx and oropharynx. With this, it can be transmitted from a carrier to a new host via respiratory droplet secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You undertake a medication review for a patient on the Clinical Decision Unit....

    Incorrect

    • You undertake a medication review for a patient on the Clinical Decision Unit. Among the drugs he is currently taking is simvastatin.Which of the following side effects is he LEAST likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Cerebral ischaemia

      Correct Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.The following are common or very common side effects of nitratesArrhythmiasAstheniaCerebral ischaemiaDizzinessDrowsinessFlushingHeadacheHypotensionNausea and vomitingDiarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is the most potent stimulus of fibrinolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most potent stimulus of fibrinolysis:

      Your Answer: Tissue factor pathway inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Tissue plasminogen activator

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolysis is a normal haemostatic response to vascular injury. Plasminogen, a proenzyme in blood and tissue fluid, is converted to plasmin by activators either from the vessel wall (intrinsic activation) or from the tissues (extrinsic activation). The most important route follows the release of tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) from endothelial cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Incorrect

    • Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer: Reticuloendothelial system

      Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Continuous capillaries, found in the skin, lungs, muscles and CNS, are the most selective with low permeability, as junctions between the endothelial cells are very tight, restricting the flow of molecules with MW > 10,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the...

    Correct

    • Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Bence Jones proteins are monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains found in urine (and plasma) of some patients with myeloma. Because of their relatively small size, light chains are readily excreted into the urine. The presence of significant amounts of Bence Jones proteins in urine is indicative of malignant B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient has suffered a nerve injury that has caused weakness of the...

    Correct

    • A patient has suffered a nerve injury that has caused weakness of the pectoralis minor muscle.Pectoralis minor receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Medial pectoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis minor is a thin, triangular muscle that is situated in the upper chest. It is thinner and smaller than pectoralis major. It is innervated by the medial pectoral nerve.The origin of pectoralis minor is the 3rdto the 5thribs, near the costal cartilages. It inserts into the medial border and superior surface of the coracoid process of the scapula.The main action of pectoralis minor is to draw the scapula inferiorly and anteriorly against the thoracic wall. This serves to stabilise the scapula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, which has been well controlled by the use of lithium for many years.What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is the inability to produce concentrated urine. It is characterised by the presence of excessive thirst, polyuria and polydipsia. There are two distinct types of diabetes insipidus:Cranial (central) diabetes insipidus and;Nephrogenic diabetes insipidusCranial diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone). Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output as high as 10-15 litres per 24 hours, but adequate fluid intake allows most patients to maintain normonatraemia. 30% of cases are idiopathic, and a further 30% are secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis) and drugs, such as naloxone and phenytoin. A very rare inherited form also exists that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness and bladder atonia.Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal resistance to the action of vasopressin. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is markedly elevated. Serum sodium levels can be maintained by secondary polydipsia or can be elevated. Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia) and drugs, including long-term lithium usage and demeclocycline.In view of the history of long-term lithium use, in this case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except:

      Your Answer: They provide a way to estimate the pre-test probabilities of having a condition

      Correct Answer: A likelihood ratio less than 1 indicates that the result is associated with the presence of the disease

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCDBone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarctionAnaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in natureAplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte countInfection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially SalmonellaGrowth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweightHand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in childrenAcute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe diseasePulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCDAvascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusionCentral nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is strokeOphthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitisCardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atriumGastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involvedGenitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCDDermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Normal human immunoglobulin is mostly used to protect against which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Normal human immunoglobulin is mostly used to protect against which of the following infectious diseases?

      Your Answer: Measles, mumps and rubella

      Correct Answer: Measles and hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Immune globulin IM is indicated for prophylaxis following exposureto hepatitis A, to prevent or modify measles (rubeola) in a susceptible person exposed fewer than 6 days previously,for susceptible household contacts of measles patients,particularly contacts <1 year and pregnant women without evidence of immunity, and to modify rubella in exposed pregnant women who will not consider a therapeutic abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the...

    Correct

    • Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate? 

      Your Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:Respiratory alkalosis: – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)- Pulmonary embolism- Pneumothorax- CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)- High altitude- Pregnancy- Early stages of aspirin overdoseRespiratory acidosis:- COPD- Life-threatening asthma- Pulmonary oedema- Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)- Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy- Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)- ObesityMetabolic alkalosis:- Vomiting- Cardiac arrest- Multi-organ failure- Cystic fibrosis- Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)- Cushing’s syndrome- Conn’s syndromeMetabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):- Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)- Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)- Renal failure- Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):- Renal tubular acidosis- Diarrhoea- Ammonium chloride ingestion- Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the...

    Correct

    • A patient who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic as his grandson was recently diagnosed with chickenpox. His grandson spent the weekend with her, and he was in close contact with him. He takes 50 mg of prednisolone once daily and has been for the past six months. There is no history of chickenpox.Out of the following, which is TRUE regarding the next plan of action for her care?

      Your Answer: She should receive prophylactic varicella-zoster Immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) is indicated for post exposure prevention and treatment of varicella. It is recommended as prophylaxis for high-risk patients with no known immunity (i.e. no known previous chickenpox) who have had a significant exposure to varicella-zoster (considered >4 hours close contact).The high-risk groups are:1. Neonates2. Pregnant women3. The immunocompromised (e.g. cancer, immunosuppressive therapies)4. Those on high dose steroids (children on more than 2 mg/kg/day for more than 14 days, or adults on 40 mg/day for more than a week)This patient is at high risk of developing adrenal insufficiency and may need a temporary increase in her steroid dose during infection or stress. It would be inappropriate to stop or wean down her dose of prednisolone and can cause side effects.Since he is on steroids without immunity for chickenpox, he is at risk of developing severe varicella infection, with possible complications including pneumonia, hepatitis and DIC. If he develops a varicella infection, he will need to be admitted and require a specialist review and intravenous Acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral three and a half digits. You suspect carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following clinical features would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer: Inability to touch the pad of the little finger with the thumb

      Explanation:

      Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel will result in weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles – resulting in weakness of opposition, abduction and flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint and anaesthesia or paraesthesia over the distribution of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve (skin over the palmar surface and fingertips of the lateral three and a half digits). The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and abduction of the fingers is produced by the interossei, also innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is produced by the flexor pollicis longus, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is produced by the flexor digitorum profundus. Median nerve injury at the wrist will not affect the long flexors of the forearm as these are innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve which arises in the proximal forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 47-year-old woman comes in with palpitations that have been bothering her for...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman comes in with palpitations that have been bothering her for the past four days. Her haemodynamics are normal, but her heart rate is currently 150 beats per minute. An ECG is performed, which reveals that she is experiencing atrial flutter. The patient is examined by a cardiology registrar, who recommends starting her on verapamil to control her ventricular rate while she waits for cardioversion.In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to the use of verapamil?

      Your Answer: Acute porphyria

      Explanation:

      In most cases of atrial flutter, ventricular rate control is used as a stopgap measure until sinus rhythm is restored. A beta-blocker (e.g. bisoprolol), diltiazem, or verapamil can be used to reduce the rate of contractions in the heart.Electrical cardioversion, pharmacological cardioversion, and catheter ablation can all be used to return the heart to a normal rhythm. Cardioversion should not be attempted until the patient has been fully anticoagulated for at least three weeks if the duration of atrial flutter is unknown or it has lasted longer than 48 hours. Emergency electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice when there is a sudden onset of symptoms and haemodynamic compromise. For recurrent atrial flutter, catheter ablation is preferred.Verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker that is non-dihydropyridine phenylalkylamine and can be used to treat supraventricular arrhythmias. It’s a calcium channel blocker with a high negative inotropic effect that lowers cardiac output, slows the heart rate, and may impair atrioventricular conduction. At high doses, it can cause heart failure, exacerbate conduction disorders, and cause hypotension.Adults should take 240-480 mg of verapamil in 2-3 divided doses. 5-10 mg IV over 30 seconds is the corresponding intravenous (IV) dose. After an IV injection, the peak effect lasts 3-5 minutes, and the action lasts 10-20 minutes.Verapamil should not be taken with beta-blockers like atenolol or quinidine because the combination of their negatively inotropic and negatively chronotropic effects can result in severe hypotension, bradycardia, impaired atrioventricular conduction, heart failure (due to impaired cardiac contractility), and sinus arrest.The use of verapamil is contraindicated in the following situations:Acute porphyrias are a type of porphyria that occurs suddenly.Accessory conducting pathways are linked to atrial flutter or fibrillation (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White-syndrome)BradycardiaShock caused by the heartInsufficiency of the heart (with reduced ejection fraction)Left ventricular function has been significantly harmed in the past (even if controlled by therapy)Hypotension (blood pressure less than 90 mmHg)AV block in the second and third degreesSinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses becomeSino-atrial occlusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 46-year-old male who is suffering from a chest infection. You decide to start giving...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male who is suffering from a chest infection. You decide to start giving the patient antibiotics, however he is allergic to penicillin. You consult with one of your co-workers about the best choice of antibiotic to give. From the following choices, which is considered an example of bacteriostatic antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics that are bactericidal kill bacteria, while antibiotics that are bacteriostatic limit their growth or reproduction. The antibiotics grouped into these two classes are summarized in the table below:Bactericidal antibioticsBacteriostatic antibioticsVancomycinMetronidazoleFluoroquinolone, such as ciprofloxacinPenicillins, such as benzylpenicillinCephalosporin, such as ceftriaxoneCo-trimoxazoleTetracyclines, such as doxycyclineMacrolides, such as erythromycinSulphonamides, such as sulfamethoxazoleClindamycinTrimethoprimChloramphenicol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      146.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade fever, and malaise. Upon history taking, she noted that she had a fine rash over her body a week ago that quickly fades. Further examination and observation was done and the presence of mild splenomegaly was noted. Her test shows positive for heterophile antibody test, suspecting a diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.Which of the following characteristics is mostly associated with the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?

      Your Answer: Massive hepatomegaly

      Correct Answer: Atypical lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis which is a clinical entity characterized by sore throat, cervical lymph node enlargement, fatigue and fever. It is accompanied by atypical large peripheral blood lymphocytes. These atypical lymphocytes, also known as Downey cells, are actually activated CD8 T lymphocytes, most of which are responding to EBV-infected cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      93.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is an ECG change typically associated with hyperkalaemia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an ECG change typically associated with hyperkalaemia:

      Your Answer: Wide QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalitiesK+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappearK+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A newborn baby is born by vaginal delivery to a mother who has...

    Correct

    • A newborn baby is born by vaginal delivery to a mother who has a Chlamydia infection and who is started on treatment after the delivery. The neonate subsequently develops an infection also.Which one of these is the most common neonatal manifestation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection?

      Your Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis is the most common neonatal manifestation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection. The second commonest neonatal manifestation is pneumoniaOphthalmia neonatorum refers to any conjunctivitis in the newborn period, irrespective of causative organism. Presently, chlamydia is the single most common cause, accounting for up to 40% of cases. Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by chlamydia typically presents 5 to 14 days after birth with unilateral or bilateral watery discharge that progressively becomes more copious and purulent. There is no associated risk of ulceration and perforation, and the eyes are less inflamed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A patient who was put on low molecular weight heparin for suspected DVT...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who was put on low molecular weight heparin for suspected DVT and was scheduled for an ultrasound after the weekend, arrives at the emergency department with significant hematemesis. Which of the following medications can be used as a heparin reversal agent:

      Your Answer: Idarucizumab

      Correct Answer: Protamine sulfate

      Explanation:

      The management of bleeding in a patient receiving heparin depends upon the location and severity of bleeding, the underlying thromboembolic risk, and the current aPTT (for heparin) or anti-factor Xa activity (for LMW heparin). As an example, a patient with minor skin bleeding in the setting of a mechanical heart valve (high thromboembolic risk) and a therapeutic aPTT may continue heparin therapy, whereas a patient with major intracerebral bleeding in the setting of venous thromboembolism several months prior who is receiving heparin bridging perioperatively may require immediate heparin discontinuation and reversal with protamine sulphate. If haemorrhage occurs it is usually sufficient to withdraw unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin, but if rapid reversal of the effects of the heparin is required, protamine sulphate is a specific antidote (but only partially reverses the effects of low molecular weight heparins). Clinician judgment and early involvement of the appropriate consulting specialists is advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 73-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department 48 hours after being discharged from...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department 48 hours after being discharged from the hospital after a two-week stay for sepsis treatment. She has fever, productive cough with thick green sputum, and shortness of breath. An X-ray shows left lower lobe pneumonia. Which of the bacteria listed below is more likely to be the causative agent:

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), or nosocomial pneumonia, is a lower respiratory infection that was not incubating at the time of hospital admission and that presents clinically 2 or more days after hospitalization. Pneumonia that presents sooner should be regarded as community­ acquired pneumonia. VAP refers to nosocomial pneumonia that develops among patients on ventilators. Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that presents more than 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.Common bacteria involved in hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) include the following [10] :Pseudomonas AeruginosaStaphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-susceptible S aureus (MSSA) and methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA)Klebsiella pneumoniaeEscherichia coli

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      32.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (5/9) 56%
Anatomy (4/4) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/7) 43%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (3/5) 60%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/3) 67%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/2) 50%
Immunoglobulins And Vaccines (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Immunological Products & Vaccines (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Passmed