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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman gave birth to her first child by caesarean section 3...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman gave birth to her first child by caesarean section 3 weeks ago. She is currently breastfeeding and wants to begin using contraception. What method of contraception should she avoid due to absolute contraindication?

      Your Answer: Combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal tympanic membrane

      Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      131.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

    He has a mild early...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

      He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.

      Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.

      Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:

      Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 16.6 Ă—109/L (4-11)
      93% neutrophils -
      5% band forms -
      2% lymphocytes -
      Platelets 420 Ă—109/L (150-400)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment

      When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      127.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The community midwife has approached you regarding a patient she saw for her...

    Correct

    • The community midwife has approached you regarding a patient she saw for her booking appointment that morning. The patient is a 22-year-old student who did not plan on becoming pregnant and is currently taking multiple prescribed medications. The midwife has requested that you review the medication list to determine if any of them need to be discontinued. The patient is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism, beclomethasone and salbutamol inhalers for asthma, adapalene gel for acne, and occasionally uses metoclopramide for migraines. She also purchases paracetamol over the counter for her migraines. She is believed to be approximately 8 weeks pregnant but is waiting for her dating scan.

      Which of her medications, if any, should be stopped?

      Your Answer: Adapalene gel

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is not recommended to use topical or oral retinoids, including Adapalene gel, due to the risk of birth defects. Benzoyl peroxide can be considered as an alternative. Levothyroxine may need to be adjusted to meet the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy, and consultation with an endocrinologist may be necessary. beclomethasone inhaler should be continued to maintain good asthma control, unless there is a specific reason not to. Metoclopramide is generally considered safe during pregnancy and can be used if needed.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Abuse of which of the following substances is implicated most frequently as the...

    Incorrect

    • Abuse of which of the following substances is implicated most frequently as the cause of occupational accidents and injuries among workers aged 18 to 25?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Marijuana

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Consumption and Occupational Injuries

      Workers who consume alcohol are at a higher risk of experiencing occupational injuries compared to non-users. According to research, even light and moderate drinking can result in significant personal and societal costs. The majority of alcohol-related problems in the workplace are caused by light and moderate drinkers, not just those who drink on the job. Heavy drinking outside of work can also contribute to these issues. Hangover-related health problems, such as an increased risk of heart attacks, reduced cognitive abilities, and a psychiatric disorder known as Elpenor syndrome, which is characterized by irrational behavior, can further exacerbate the negative effects of alcohol consumption in the workplace. It is important for employers to address alcohol use among their employees to ensure a safe and productive work environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 77-year-old woman presents with a complaint of distorted vision and difficulty reading...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old woman presents with a complaint of distorted vision and difficulty reading with her right eye. She reports seeing straight lines as bent and her peripheral vision is unaffected. Upon fundoscopy, yellow spots are observed around the macular region.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Visual Distortion

      Age-Related Macular Degeneration: A typical history of age-related macular degeneration includes yellow spots called drusen, which are collections of lipid and protein material beneath the retinal pigment epithelium and within Bruch’s membrane.

      Cataract: Cataract causes gradual loss of acuity but not distortion of lines.

      Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion: Patients with branch retinal vein occlusion usually complain of sudden onset of blurred vision or a central visual field defect.

      Chronic Glaucoma: Chronic glaucoma, also known as primary open-angle glaucoma, causes loss of peripheral vision while sparing central vision.

      Retinal Detachment: Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, flashes of light, and sudden loss of an outer part of the visual field, which may be described as a curtain over part of the field of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      95.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be acceptable?

      Your Answer: 1a: Old age. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (93-year-old patient)

      Correct Answer: 1a: Cardiac arrest. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac arrest cannot be listed as the sole cause of death on a death certificate as it is a method of dying and requires further clarification.

      While the use of old age is discouraged, it may be listed on a death certificate for patients over the age of 80 if specific criteria are met (refer to the provided link).

      The only acceptable abbreviations for HIV and AIDS should be used on a death certificate.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went smoothly. She reports feeling fine and has no issues to report. During the examination, linear, clearly defined abrasions are observed on her forearms and scalp. The patient appears unconcerned about these lesions and has a history of severe anxiety and depression. A punch biopsy is performed, which reveals nonspecific results.

      What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis artefacta

      Explanation:

      The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern from the patient may indicate dermatitis artefacta, a condition where the lesions are self-inflicted. A punch biopsy has ruled out other potential causes, and the patient’s history of psychiatric disorders supports this diagnosis. Atopic dermatitis is a possibility, but typically presents with additional symptoms such as pruritus and scaly erythematous plaques. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma cannot be ruled out without a biopsy, and lichen planus is unlikely due to the patient’s lack of distress from pruritus.

      Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta

      Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.

      Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.

      Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.

      Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.

      In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      79.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old boy has a one-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy has a one-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position and climb stairs. His maternal grandfather suffered from a similar condition but died in a motorboat accident at the age of 32. He has normal tone and reflexes in his limbs but weakness proximally in his arms and legs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Becker muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of muscular dystrophy

      Muscular dystrophies are a group of inherited disorders that cause progressive muscle wasting and weakness. There are several types of muscular dystrophy, each with its own unique characteristics. It is important to differentiate between these types in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

      Becker muscular dystrophy is a less severe form of the disorder, with a later onset and longer life expectancy. It mainly affects the proximal muscles of the limbs and is inherited in an X-linked-recessive pattern.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy, on the other hand, is a more severe form that presents in early childhood and leads to wheelchair dependence and early death. It is also inherited in an X-linked-recessive pattern and affects the proximal muscles of the limbs, as well as the heart and intellect.

      Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is an autosomal dominant or recessive disorder that affects the face and shoulder muscles in early adulthood, but doesn’t affect life expectancy.

      Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy is an autosomal dominant or recessive disorder that presents in the teenage years with weakness in the pelvic girdle and shoulders, but doesn’t affect life expectancy or intellect.

      Myasthenia gravis is an acquired, autoimmune disorder that causes fluctuating muscle weakness, particularly in the extraocular, bulbar, or proximal limb muscles. It typically occurs in adulthood.

      Understanding the differences between these types of muscular dystrophy can aid in diagnosis and management of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      65.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Refer to lipid clinic in secondary care

      Correct Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.

      QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.

      Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      106.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus since she was 20 years old. Her diabetes is currently well managed, and she has no other medical conditions. There is no family history of diabetes.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Thyroid disease

      Explanation:

      The Link Between Diabetes and Other Medical Conditions

      Diabetes, a chronic metabolic disorder, is often associated with other medical conditions. Autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease, which affect the thyroid gland, have a higher prevalence in women with diabetes. However, diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of developing giant cell arteritis (GCA) or polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), but the high-dose steroids used to treat these conditions can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes (T2DM). Anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction, is not linked to diabetes, but increased steroid use in asthmatic patients, a chronic respiratory condition, is a risk factor for developing T2DM. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune condition that causes widespread inflammation, doesn’t have a significant increased risk in diabetic patients, but steroid treatments used to treat SLE can increase the risk of developing T2DM. Understanding the link between diabetes and other medical conditions is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      80.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is irregularly irregular at 98/min, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      231.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness of breath on exertion. You suspect left ventricular failure. Identify the single test that, if normal, would make the diagnosis of heart failure highly unlikely.

      Your Answer: A chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: An ECG

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Heart Failure: Importance of ECG and Natriuretic Peptides

      When a patient is suspected of having heart failure, several investigations are recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and blood glucose, are typically performed. However, the results of these tests alone are not sufficient to diagnose heart failure.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is also commonly performed, although its predictive value for heart failure is limited. A normal ECG can make left ventricular systolic dysfunction unlikely, with a negative predictive value of 98%. On the other hand, an abnormal ECG may indicate the need for further testing, such as echocardiography.

      Serum natriuretic peptides, which are released by the heart in response to increased pressure or volume, can also be helpful in diagnosing heart failure. If these levels are normal, the diagnosis of heart failure is less likely. However, this test is not always available or necessary in the initial investigation.

      A chest x-ray can provide supportive evidence for heart failure and rule out other potential causes of breathlessness. It is important to note that oxygen saturation may be normal in heart failure, so this alone cannot be used to rule out the condition.

      Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosing heart failure and determining the underlying cause. It is recommended in patients who have either a raised natriuretic peptide level or an abnormal ECG. By providing detailed images of the heart’s structure and function, echocardiography can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

      In summary, a combination of tests is necessary to diagnose heart failure and determine the best course of treatment. The ECG and natriuretic peptides can provide important clues, but echocardiography is essential for confirming the diagnosis and identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop his Ibuprofen, and discuss weaning him off his Citalopram if he feels ready to do this

      Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms

      This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.

      Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.

      To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      219.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The parents of a 4-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis are seeking guidance on...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 4-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis are seeking guidance on whether to have more children. Both parents are non-carriers of the disease. What is the likelihood that their next child will be a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65 year old man presents with a productive cough that has lasted...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man presents with a productive cough that has lasted for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath over the past two days and reports feeling weak and lethargic. He also has a fever and rigors. His wife brought him to the community Emergency Medical Unit (EMU) as she was concerned about his rapid deterioration.

      Upon examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. He appears distressed but is not confused.

      Initial investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 18 * 109/l. His electrolyte levels are within normal range, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/l and a potassium level of 3.7 mmol/l. His urea level is 9.2 mmol/l and creatinine level is 130 µmol/l. A chest X-ray shows left lower zone consolidation.

      What is his CURB-65 score based on the given information?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The patient is currently in a room with normal air temperature, measuring 38.9º. Their blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg and they appear to be distressed, but not confused. Initial tests indicate that their hemoglobin level is 134 g/l and their platelet count is currently unknown.

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      203.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance on managing his diabetes medications during Ramadan. He is currently taking metformin 500mg three times a day. What advice should be given to him?

      Your Answer: Switch to subcutaneous biphasic insulin for the duration of Ramadan

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      To adjust for Ramadan, it is recommended to take one-third of the usual metformin dose before sunrise and the remaining two-thirds after sunset. For further information, please refer to the Diabetes Care source.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy. What is the correlation between a low alpha-feto protein level and this condition?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      AFP levels are elevated in cases of neural tube defects and reduced in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is created by the fetus during its development. When the levels of AFP are higher than normal, it may indicate the presence of certain conditions such as neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly), abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis), multiple pregnancy, Down’s syndrome, trisomy 18, and maternal diabetes mellitus. On the other hand, decreased levels of AFP may also be significant and should be further investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had no symptoms, and her breast examination was normal. She mentioned that her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 43. What would be the best course of action for further investigation?

      Your Answer: Refer to secondary care for early screening

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a family history of Jewish ancestry and breast cancer, they should be referred to secondary care. This is one of the criteria that require early referral, as listed below. However, the current presentation doesn’t require an urgent referral. Although the NHS Screening programme is being extended to begin at 47, this patient has valid reasons to be referred earlier.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a...

    Correct

    • A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a teenager and has never been suicidal, nor suffered with any other form of mental illness.

      Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in their management?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline

      Bupropion and Varenicline are two drugs commonly used for smoking cessation. However, they both have specific contraindications that need to be considered before prescribing them to patients.

      Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, seizures, central nervous system tumors, and acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal. Additionally, certain factors can increase the risk of seizures in patients taking Bupropion, such as the use of medications that lower the seizure threshold, diabetes, alcoholism, history of cranial trauma, and use of stimulants and anorectics.

      On the other hand, Varenicline is listed as a caution rather than a contraindication in patients with a history of mental health problems. While patients with psychiatric illnesses should be closely monitored while taking Varenicline, it is not specifically contraindicated in this population.

      In summary, when considering the contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline, it is important to note that Bupropion is specifically contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, while Varenicline is cautioned in patients with a history of mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      94.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are contemplating recommending ulipristal (EllaOne) for a female who has come in...

    Correct

    • You are contemplating recommending ulipristal (EllaOne) for a female who has come in seeking emergency contraception. What is the timeframe for using ulipristal after unprotected sexual intercourse?

      Your Answer: 120 hours (5 days)

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Emma, aged 23 years, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)...

    Correct

    • Emma, aged 23 years, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for the past 2 months, which she believes is due to the stress of her new job. She often feels bloated and has irregular bowel movements. Emma is hesitant to take medications and seeks advice from her GP, Dr. Patel, who recommends the low-FODMAP diet and refers her to a registered dietitian. What are some examples of safe low-FODMAP foods that can be included in Emma's diet to manage her IBS symptoms?

      Your Answer: Salmon

      Explanation:

      Monash University in Australia has developed a low-FODMAP diet to manage irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates found in many foods that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine. They can cause diarrhoea by encouraging water intake into the small intestine or bloating by fermenting in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been shown to reduce symptoms of IBS such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, this diet is challenging to follow as it excludes many foods that contain oligo-, di-, mono-saccharides, and polyols, including various vegetables, fruits, and grains. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician rather than initiating the diet without guidance. High-FODMAP foods to avoid include wheat, most dairy products (except aged cheeses), pulses, beans, onion, garlic, and excess fructose. The diet mainly consists of unprocessed meat/fish and low FODMAP vegetables and grains.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      189.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health and not taking any regular medications. He has recently entered into a new relationship and has not experienced this issue before.
      What is the probable cause of this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Psychological factors

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Erectile Dysfunction in a Young Man

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common problem that affects men of all ages. In a young, otherwise healthy man, psychological factors are the most likely cause of ED. This may be due to anxiety, stress, or relationship issues, especially if the symptoms started around the time of a new relationship. Other possible causes of ED include medical conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism, and testicular cancer. However, these are less likely in a 28-year-old man who previously had no erectile problems. Prostate cancer is also an unlikely cause of ED in a young man. It is important to consult a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of ED and to discuss appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with motor neuron disease. Is there any...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with motor neuron disease. Is there any drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in such cases?

      Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide

      Correct Answer: Riluzole

      Explanation:

      Managing Motor Neuron Disease

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. While the cause of the disease is unknown, there are several management strategies that can help improve the patient’s quality of life and prolong survival.

      One such strategy is the use of riluzole, which prevents the stimulation of glutamate receptors and is mainly used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Studies have shown that it can prolong life by about three months. Respiratory care is also crucial, and non-invasive ventilation, usually BIPAP, is used at night. This has been shown to provide a survival benefit of around seven months.

      Nutrition is another important aspect of managing motor neuron disease, and the preferred method of support is through a percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG). This has been associated with prolonged survival. However, despite these management strategies, the prognosis for motor neuron disease remains poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As a GP registrar, you arrive at the surgery and notice a 32-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP registrar, you arrive at the surgery and notice a 32-year-old patient with epilepsy parking in the patient's car park. He has an appointment with you later in the day. You recall from previous consultations that his last seizure was 6 months ago. During the consultation, the patient denies driving. What should be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Inform the DVLA anonymously to maintain the doctor-patient relationship

      Correct Answer: Inform him of the DVLA rules and your duty to inform the DVLA if he refuses to stop

      Explanation:

      It is not appropriate to ignore the situation when you have witnessed the patient driving. Instead, you should inform the patient about the DVLA regulations and your obligation to report them if they refuse to stop driving. Reporting the patient to the DVLA immediately may harm your relationship with them, and it is better to give them a chance to rectify the situation themselves. It is always best to be transparent with patients about your actions.

      Confiscating the patient’s keys is not a practical solution and may lead to conflict.

      It is important to note that the new ‘6 month rule’ only applies to patients who have experienced their first seizure and have undergone an investigation, rather than those with pre-existing epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old man walks into the General Practice Surgery without an appointment, complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man walks into the General Practice Surgery without an appointment, complaining of central chest pain radiating to his jaw.
      On examination, he is agitated. His respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute (normal range 12–20) and his pulse is 130 beats per minute (normal range 60–100).
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). An accompanying friend suspects that the patient took a drug around 30 minutes previously but is unsure what it was.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ecstasy

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Risks Associated with Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have significant impacts on cardiovascular health. Chronic cocaine use, for example, is a major risk factor for acute myocardial ischaemia, which can cause central chest pain, tachycardia, and other symptoms. Alcohol consumption, particularly binge-drinking, is also considered a cardiovascular risk factor, although it is not as strongly correlated with immediate effects as cocaine. Amphetamine and ecstasy intoxication can cause symptoms such as tachycardia, hyperthermia, and hypertension, and there have been reports of myocardial infarction associated with chronic use. Cannabis use can also cause tachycardia and other symptoms, but is rarely associated with MI. Overall, substance abuse can have serious consequences for cardiovascular health, particularly in men who are more likely to engage in drug use and dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - As the duty doctor, you are presented with a 3-year-old girl and her...

    Incorrect

    • As the duty doctor, you are presented with a 3-year-old girl and her mother in an emergency appointment. The child has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past 4 days, and her mother is growing increasingly concerned as her symptoms do not seem to be improving. The child is now very pale and vomits every time she eats or drinks anything. She is having watery stools 6-8 times a day, and her nappies are only about 50% of normal. She has not had a fever or any rashes, and she is typically healthy and developing normally.

      Upon examination, the child appears tired and pale, sitting on her mother's lap without smiling. She looks ill. Her heart rate is 120 bpm, and her capillary refill time is 2-3 seconds. She has dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgor. Her temperature is 37.1ºC, and her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute. Her abdomen is soft and doesn't appear tender.

      You suspect that the child has viral gastroenteritis, but you are concerned that she is dehydrated and may require admission for rehydration. Before calling the paediatric team at your local hospital, you compare the child's observations to the NICE traffic light system for feverish children.

      Which observation is scoring red (high risk)?

      Your Answer: Reduced urine output

      Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE traffic light system, reduced skin turgor is a red flag symptom in a child. This patient is displaying several symptoms of dehydration, including diarrhoea and vomiting for four days. He has three amber symptoms, including pallor reported by parent/carer, decreased urine output, and dry mucous membranes. Additionally, he has two red symptoms, including appearing ill to a healthcare professional and reduced skin turgor. Although his heart rate and respiratory rate are within normal ranges for his age, he requires admission to the hospital for rehydration and care under the paediatric team.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      96.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the...

    Incorrect

    • You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the proper application of emollients. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Emollients should be rubbed in to the skin until they 'disappear'

      Correct Answer: Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The condition is characterized by an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, eczema typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, a more typical distribution is seen, with flexor surfaces affected and the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. By understanding the features and management of eczema in children, parents and caregivers can help alleviate symptoms and improve the child’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex information, and a reduced ability to cope independently. There is evidence that she has had such problems since an early age.
      Which term is currently used in the UK to describe this patient’s impairment?

      Your Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Terms for Cognitive Impairments

      There are various terms used to describe cognitive impairments, but it is important to use the correct terminology to avoid confusion and stigma.

      A learning disability refers to a long-term reduced ability to cope independently or process new or complex information. It is important to seek specialist input for assessment and support if a learning disability is suspected.

      An intellectual disability is a general impairment that affects a person’s overall functioning. However, the correct term to use is still learning disability.

      A learning difficulty, such as dyslexia, doesn’t impair a person’s general functioning.

      The terms mental handicap and mental sub normality are outdated and no longer used in clinical practice. It is important to use respectful and accurate language when discussing cognitive impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      43.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/4) 25%
Cardiovascular Health (0/4) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (2/2) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Passmed