00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into...

    Correct

    • You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You plan on administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia.

      According to the resuscitation council, what is the maximum recommended total dose of atropine that should be administered?

      Your Answer: 3mg

      Explanation:

      When treating adults with bradycardia, a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg can be administered. Each dose is given intravenously every 3-5 minutes. The total dose should not exceed 3mg.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You evaluate a 62-year-old woman in the Emergency Room with intense central chest...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 62-year-old woman in the Emergency Room with intense central chest discomfort. She is extremely worried as she experienced a heart attack (MI) 8 weeks ago. Today the pain is sharp and is alleviated by leaning forward. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 37.9°C and she has pitting edema in both ankles. The ECG shows Q waves in the anterolateral leads.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s syndrome is a form of pericarditis that occurs within 2 to 10 weeks following a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is distinguished by intense chest pain that is usually alleviated by assuming an upright position. Additionally, individuals may experience a mild fever, a pericardial rub, pulsus paradoxus, and indications of right ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple administrations of atropine, there has been no improvement in the patient's condition. Which two medications would be the most suitable options to consider next for treating this rhythm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline/Isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline and isoprenaline are considered as second-line medications for the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine fails to improve the condition, transcutaneous pacing is recommended. However, if pacing is not available, the administration of second-line drugs becomes necessary. Adrenaline is typically given intravenously at a dosage of 2-10 mcg/minute, while isoprenaline is given at a dosage of 5 mcg/minute. It is important to note that glucagon is not mentioned as a treatment option for this patient’s bradycardia, as the cause of the condition is not specified as a beta-blocker overdose.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67 year old female attends the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old female attends the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The patient reports experiencing brief episodes of palpitations over the past few weeks, but they usually resolve themselves after 5-10 minutes. However, today's episode has been ongoing for 30 minutes. The patient denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. She is currently taking aspirin 75mg once daily as her only medication. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hemoglobin (Hb): 115 g/l
      Platelets: 155 * 109/l
      White blood cells (WBC): 6.4 * 109/l
      Sodium: 138 mmol/l
      Potassium: 3.8 mmol/l
      Urea: 4.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 74 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR): 68 mL/min/1.73m2

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, revealing atrial fibrillation. You decide to assess the patient's bleeding risk using the ORBIT tool. What is this patient's ORBIT score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden confusion, severe headache, and problems with coordination. Upon initial assessment at triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be significantly elevated at 224/126 mmHg. You suspect the presence of hypertensive encephalopathy. What is the primary treatment option for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment option for hypertensive encephalopathy, a condition characterized by sudden confusion, severe headache, and coordination problems due to significantly elevated blood pressure, is labetalol.

      Further Reading:

      A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.

      The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.

      Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.

      The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the abdomen. You observe that the patient is breathing rapidly and her neck veins are distended. The trachea is centrally located. Her vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 88/56 mmHg
      Heart rate: 127 bpm
      Respiration rate: 28 rpm
      SpO2: 99% on 15L oxygen

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by several classical signs, including distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension. When neck veins are distended, it suggests that the right ventricle is not filling properly. In cases of trauma, this is often caused by the compression of air (tension pneumothorax) or fluid (blood in the pericardial space). One important distinguishing feature is the deviation of the trachea.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you observe a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Upon examination, you observe that he has plum-red discoloration of his cheeks.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard.

      The mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis is a rumbling sound that is best heard at the apex, in the left lateral position during expiration, using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, and it is more common in females, with about two-thirds of patients being female.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for the past few weeks. She reports that it tends to occur when she is climbing stairs or walking uphill but subsides quickly when she rests. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with metformin, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), for which she takes lansoprazole. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Stable angina is characterized by chest pain in the center of the chest that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. The pain may spread to the jaw or left arm and can be relieved by resting for a few minutes. Typically, the pain is brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      On the other hand, unstable angina is defined by the presence of one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. In unstable angina, the ECG may appear normal or show T wave / ST segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are usually normal.

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. These attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, and patients with this condition often have normal coronary arteries.

      It is important to note that gastro-esophageal reflux (GORD) is not relevant to this question and is included in the patient’s history to distract the candidate. Typical symptoms of GORD include heartburn and acid regurgitation, and it can also present with non-cardiac chest pain, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection in the submandibular area. It most commonly occurs due to an infection in the floor of the mouth that spreads into the submandibular space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing severe chest pain while walking his dog. The patient complains of feeling nauseated and states that the pain spreads to his neck. An ECG is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads I and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely blocked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      Patients who have a STEMI caused by a blockage in the left circumflex artery (LCX) will usually show ST elevation in leads I and AVL. These leads correspond to the high lateral area of the heart, which is supplied by the LCX artery.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You evaluate a 75-year-old woman with chronic heart failure.
    Which specific beta-blocker is approved...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 75-year-old woman with chronic heart failure.
      Which specific beta-blocker is approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebivolol

      Explanation:

      Currently, there are three beta-blockers that have been approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol.

      Chronic HF is a common clinical syndrome resulting from coronary artery disease (CAD), HTN, valvular heart disease, and/or primary cardiomyopathy. There is now conclusive evidence that β-blockers, when added to ACE inhibitors, substantially reduce mortality, decrease sudden death, and improve symptoms in patients with HF. Despite the overwhelming evidence and guidelines that mandate the use of β-blockers in all HF patients without contraindications, many patients do not receive this treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 48 hours. The discomfort intensifies with deep breaths and when lying flat, but eases when she sits upright. Additionally, the discomfort radiates to both of her shoulders. Her ECG reveals widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression. You strongly suspect a diagnosis of pericarditis.
      Which nerve is accountable for the pattern of her discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uraemia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.

      The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that is pleuritic in nature. This pain is typically relieved by sitting forwards and worsened when lying flat. It may also radiate to the shoulders. Other symptoms may include shortness of breath, tachycardia, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.

      The pericardium receives sensory supply from the phrenic nerve, which also provides sensory innervation to the diaphragm, various mediastinal structures, and certain abdominal structures such as the superior peritoneum, liver, and gallbladder. Since the phrenic nerve originates from the 4th cervical nerve, which also provides cutaneous innervation to the front of the shoulder girdle, pain from pericarditis can also radiate to the shoulders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be administered as an infusion of 300 mg over 20-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, as the ECG machine has indicated 'anterior infarction' in its comments.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute anterior STEMI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: V3-V4

      Explanation:

      The leads V3 and V4 represent the anterior myocardial area.

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after developing severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient rates the severity as 10/10 on the visual analogue scale. You note the patient is prescribed medication for hypertension but the patient admits she rarely takes her tablets. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 180/88 mmHg
      Pulse rate 92 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 rpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. You prescribe antihypertensive therapy. What is the target systolic blood pressure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100-120 mmHg

      Explanation:

      To manage aortic dissection, it is important to lower the systolic blood pressure to a range of 100-120 mmHg. This helps decrease the strain on the damaged artery and minimizes the chances of the dissection spreading further. In this patient, symptoms such as tearing chest pain and a widened mediastinum on the chest X-ray are consistent with aortic dissection.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are called to cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Emergency Department. As part of your management, a dose of amiodarone is administered.
      Amiodarone should be administered at which of the following points during a pediatric VF arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After the 3rd shock

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while performing chest compressions. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, which should be given as an intravenous bolus. To ensure proper administration, the medication should be diluted in 20 mL of 5% dextrose solution.

      In cases where VF/pVT continues after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of Amiodarone should be administered. It is important to note that Amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole, and its use is specifically indicated for shockable cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The QRS duration is typically normal

      Explanation:

      Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.

      When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.

      It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are called to a VF cardiac arrest in the resus area of...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a VF cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Pediatric Emergency Department.
      Epinephrine should be administered at which of the following points during a pediatric VF arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After the 3rd shock once chest compressions have been resumed

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) once chest compressions have been resumed. The recommended dose is 1 mg, which can be administered as either 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution or 1 mL of a 1:1000 solution.

      Subsequently, adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes, alternating with chest compressions. It is important to administer adrenaline without interrupting chest compressions to ensure continuous circulation and maximize the chances of successful resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, difficulty breathing, and heart palpitations. The patient reports that these symptoms began six hours ago. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are as follows:

      - Blood pressure: 118/76 mmHg
      - Pulse rate: 86 bpm
      - Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, confirming the presence of atrial fibrillation. As part of the treatment plan, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case is 2.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness and palpitations that have been occurring for the past 2 hours. An ECG confirms the presence of atrial fibrillation. The patient has no previous history of atrial fibrillation but was diagnosed with mild aortic valve stenosis 8 months ago during an echocardiogram ordered by his primary care physician. The patient reports that the echocardiogram was done because he was experiencing shortness of breath, which resolved after 2-3 months and was attributed to a recent bout of pneumonia. The decision is made to attempt pharmacological cardioversion. What is the most appropriate medication to use for this purpose in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, amiodarone is recommended as the initial choice for pharmacological cardioversion of atrial fibrillation (AF) in individuals who have evidence of structural heart disease.

      Further Reading:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department with central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department with central chest pain. After evaluating the patient and reviewing the tests, your consultant determines that the patient has unstable angina. Your consultant instructs you to contact the bed manager and arrange for the patient's admission. What crucial finding is necessary to establish the diagnosis of unstable angina?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal troponin assay

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between unstable angina and other acute coronary syndromes can be determined by normal troponin results. Unstable angina is characterized by new onset angina or a sudden worsening of previously stable angina, often occurring at rest. This condition typically requires hospital admission. On the other hand, stable angina is predictable and occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress, lasting for a short duration of no more than 10 minutes and relieved within minutes of rest or sublingual nitrates.

      To diagnose unstable angina, it is crucial to consider the nature of the chest pain and negative cardiac enzyme testing. The presence or absence of chest pain at rest and the response to rest and treatment with GTN are the most useful descriptors in distinguishing between stable and unstable angina. It is important to note that patients with unstable angina may not exhibit any changes on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

      If troponin results are abnormal, it indicates a myocardial infarction rather than unstable angina.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling 111 for guidance regarding recent chest discomfort. The patient is worried that she might be experiencing a heart attack. During the assessment, you inquire about the nature of the pain, accompanying symptoms, and factors that worsen or alleviate the discomfort, prior to conducting a physical examination. Which history would be most suggestive of a acute myocardial infarct (AMI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiation of the pain to the right arm

      Explanation:

      The characteristic with the highest likelihood ratio for AMI is the radiation of chest pain to the right arm or both arms. Additionally, the history characteristics of cardiac pain also have a high likelihood ratio for AMI.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.
      Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type A Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Predominantly negative QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 72-year-old man who complains of difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 72-year-old man who complains of difficulty breathing. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During the examination, you observe a faint first heart sound (S1).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The first heart sound (S1) is created by vibrations produced when the mitral and tricuspid valves close. It occurs at the end of diastole and the start of ventricular systole, coming before the upstroke of the carotid pulsation.

      A sample of the normal heart sounds can be listened to here (courtesy of Littman stethoscopes).

      A loud S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
      – Increased transvalvular gradient (e.g. mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis)
      – Increased force of ventricular contraction (e.g. tachycardia, hyperdynamic states like fever and thyrotoxicosis)
      – Shortened PR interval (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome)
      – Mitral valve prolapse
      – Thin individuals

      A soft S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
      – Inappropriate apposition of the AV valves (e.g. mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation)
      – Prolonged PR interval (e.g. heart block, digoxin toxicity)
      – Decreased force of ventricular contraction (e.g. myocarditis, myocardial infarction)
      – Increased distance from the heart (e.g. obesity, emphysema, pericardial effusion)

      A split S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
      – Right bundle branch block
      – LV pacing
      – Ebstein anomaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents with a history of central chest pain that lasted approximately 45 minutes. Her ECG showed T wave inversion in the lateral leads, but her pain settled, and ECG normalized following the administration of GTN spray and IV morphine. She was also given 325 mg of aspirin on arrival. A troponin test has been organized and admission arranged.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, possibly a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) or unstable angina. The troponin test will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but this normalized after treatment with GTN and morphine, ruling out a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      Immediate pain relief should be provided. GTN (sublingual or buccal) can be used, but intravenous opioids like morphine should be considered, especially if a heart attack is suspected.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications like bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered right after presentation.

      Fondaparinux should be given to patients without a high bleeding risk, unless coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours of admission. Unfractionated heparin can be an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who will undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours. For patients with significant renal impairment, unfractionated heparin can also be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for a SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. She is connected to an ECG monitor, and you observe the presence of an arrhythmia.
      What is the most frequently encountered type of arrhythmia in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
      Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ECG findings in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Some impulses are filtered out by the AV node

      Explanation:

      The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.

      In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.

      The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks have been happening in clusters during the past few weeks and consistently occur at night. An exercise tolerance test has been scheduled, and the results came back completely normal.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prinzmetal angina

      Explanation:

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs during periods of rest, specifically between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. This condition is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, even though patients may have normal arteries. The main treatment options for controlling these spasms are calcium-channel blockers and nitrates. The spasms often follow a cyclical pattern and may disappear after a few months, only to reappear later on.

      Unstable angina may present similarly to Prinzmetal angina, but it does not exclusively occur at night and the exercise tolerance test results are typically abnormal.

      Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It is often a result of cardiac failure caused by increased intravascular volume, which puts extra strain on the heart.

      Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, also known as acute stress cardiomyopathy, can present in a manner similar to an acute myocardial infarction. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it tends to occur in individuals who have recently experienced significant emotional or physical stress. The term Takotsubo refers to the shape the left ventricle takes on, resembling an octopus pot with a narrow neck and round bottom. ECGs often show characteristic changes, such as ST-elevation, but subsequent angiograms reveal normal coronary arteries. The diagnosis is confirmed when the angiogram shows the distinctive octopus pot shape of the left ventricle.

      There is no indication of a psychogenic cause in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. The patient's pulse rate is recorded as 44 beats per minute. Your assessment focuses on identifying reversible causes of bradycardia. Which of the following metabolic conditions is commonly associated with reversible bradycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypermagnesemia

      Explanation:

      Some reversible metabolic causes of bradycardia include hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypothermia. These conditions can lead to a slow heart rate and can be treated or reversed.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began a few hours ago. This is his first-ever episode, and he has no significant medical history.
      Which of the following accurately characterizes the type of AF he has experienced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute

      Explanation:

      In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.

      Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.

      Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.

      Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.

      By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in a neighbor's backyard. It is suspected that the patient had consumed alcohol at a nearby club and opted to walk home in the snowy conditions. The patient's temperature is documented as 27.8ºC. The nurse connects leads to conduct a 12-lead ECG. Which of the subsequent ECG alterations is most closely linked to hypothermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osborn waves

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). These changes include a slower heart rate (bradycardia), the presence of Osborn Waves (also known as J waves), a prolonged PR interval, a widened QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Additionally, the ECG may show artifacts caused by shivering, as well as the presence of ventricular ectopics. In severe cases, hypothermia can lead to cardiac arrest, which may manifest as ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF), or asystole.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed