-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his solicitor. He has recently been charged with assault and criminal damage and is facing a custodial sentence. His solicitor thinks he may have mental health problems and hopes that this may result in a lenient sentence. He admits he has always been impulsive, irritable and had a short temper, which frequently results in fights. He has no close friends and admits to being lonely. Reviewing his notes there are several episodes of deliberate self-harm usually provoked by arguments. There is no evidence of thought disorder.
What the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Common Mental Health Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Borderline Personality Disorder, Schizophrenia, Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression are some of the most common mental health disorders that affect individuals worldwide. Each disorder has its own set of characteristics and symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s daily life.
Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by extreme fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, an inability to maintain friendships, an unstable sense of self, powerful emotions that change quickly and often, feelings of emptiness, frequent dangerous behavior, and self-harm. Men with this disorder may also exhibit aggressive behavior, seek to control others by criticism, demonstrate extreme jealousy, and be reluctant to share emotional experiences.
Schizophrenia is a psychotic illness that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder, and lack of insight.
Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a developmental condition of inattention and distractibility, with or without accompanying hyperactivity. The hyperactivity decreases in adulthood, but impulsivity, poor concentration, and risk-taking can get worse. These can interfere with work, learning, and relationships with other people. Depressions, anxiety, feelings of low self-esteem, and drug misuse are more common in adults with the condition.
Bipolar Affective Disorder is characterized by periods of deep, prolonged, and profound depression that alternate with periods of an excessively elevated or irritable mood known as mania.
Depression involves both low mood and/or absence loss of interest and pleasure in most activities, accompanied by an assortment of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these common mental health disorders is crucial in identifying and seeking appropriate treatment for individuals who may be struggling with them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on the right side of her chest. She reports experiencing a sharp burning pain on her chest wall 48 hours ago. Upon examination, vesicles are present and the rash doesn't extend beyond the midline. The patient is given antiviral medication and follow-up is scheduled.
What is the primary benefit of administering antiviral therapy to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It reduces the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia
Explanation:Antivirals can reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia in older people with shingles, but do not prevent the spread or recurrence of the condition. Analgesia should also be prescribed and bacterial superinfection is still possible.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old female presents with a sore throat. Upon examination, she has enlarged tonsils on both sides and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Her medical history shows that she has had six episodes of tonsillitis in the past year and has missed several days of school due to her sore throat. With a Centor score of 3/4, you decide to prescribe penicillin V. What other treatment options should be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT for consideration of a tonsillectomy
Explanation:The frequency of tonsillectomies has significantly decreased in recent years due to increased recognition of the possible risks and limited advantages. Nevertheless, the patient meets the referral standards outlined by NICE.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms in her feet.
The patient has been receiving routine monitoring at the clinic due to her poorly controlled diabetes, high blood pressure, and renal dysfunction.
She reports that she was prescribed amitriptyline a few weeks ago, which provided significant relief for her symptoms. However, she had to discontinue its use due to bothersome adverse effects.
What would be the most suitable medication to consider next for managing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The recommended drugs for painful neuropathy are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. If one of these drugs fails due to poor tolerance or effectiveness, then one of the other three should be tried. Phenytoin and valproate were previously used but are not currently recommended. Carbamazepine is only used for trigeminal neuralgia. Nortriptyline is not included in the latest guidelines. These guidelines aim to provide healthcare professionals with evidence-based recommendations for the management of neuropathic pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing. He recently read an article in a newspaper that discussed the potential role of PSA testing in screening for prostate cancer and mentioned seeing your GP to discuss this further.
He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.
What advice would you give regarding PSA testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 25 men with a normal PSA level will turn out to have prostate cancer
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer: Benefits and Limitations
PSA testing for prostate cancer in asymptomatic men is a contentious issue with some advocating it as a screening test and others wary of over-treatment and patient harm. It is important to clearly impart the benefits and limitations of PSA testing to the patient so that they can make an informed decision about whether to be tested.
One of the main debates surrounding PSA testing is its limitations in terms of sensitivity and specificity. Two out of three men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, leading to potential over-treatment.
There is also debate about the frequency of PSA testing. Patients with elevated PSA levels who are undergoing surveillance often have PSA levels done every three to six months, but how often should a PSA level be repeated in an asymptomatic man who has had a normal result? Some experts suggest a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.
When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. It is important for patients to weigh the potential benefits and limitations of PSA testing before making a decision.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old woman is discharged from the orthopaedic ward where there have been a number of outbreaks of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
Her daughter comes armed with a number of concerns about MRSA and tells you she knows a lot about the condition.
Which of her beliefs is well founded?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is safe to kiss her mother
Explanation:Understanding MRSA Infections
MRSA is a type of bacteria that can colonize wounds and venous access sites. While its community nasal carriage rate is typically less than 1%, this rate may increase in patients who have recently taken beta-lactam antibiotics. Fortunately, MRSA infections can still be treated with a variety of antibiotics, including IV vancomycin. Patients with MRSA are properly isolated on hospital wards to prevent the spread of infection. It’s important to note that MRSA infections can occur outside of hospitals as well. Therefore, it’s crucial to understand the causes and symptoms of MRSA infections to prevent their spread.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents as a new patient at your clinic for his first appointment. He has had no major health issues and has never been hospitalised. He mentions that his father passed away from sudden cardiac death at the age of 35, and an autopsy revealed that he had hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the likelihood that this patient has inherited the same condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:The inheritance pattern of HOCM is autosomal dominant, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50 percent chance of passing on the mutated gene to their child.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents with episodic pain in the right side of his face, which has been going on for 2 months. In addition, he complains of a buzzing sound in his right ear and right-sided hearing loss. Two weeks earlier he also complained of numbness in his face, but the doctor who saw him then was unable to find any abnormal signs. When you see him, he is in pain. He does appear to have hearing loss and a reduced corneal reflex on the right, but nothing else.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:Distinguishing between Trigeminal Neuralgia and Acoustic Neuroma: A Clinical Overview
When presented with facial numbness and a diminished corneal reflex, a structural lesion is highly suspected, rather than trigeminal neuralgia. While tinnitus and hearing loss may be present in both conditions, the latter favors a structural lesion. Brainstem plaques and acoustic neuromas can mimic trigeminal neuralgia symptoms, but sensorineural hearing loss is more indicative of a structural lesion. Acoustic neuromas are typically benign and slow-growing, but can cause symptoms through mass effect and pressure on local structures. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden, unilateral, brief, stabbing, recurrent pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the Vth cranial nerve. Ménière’s disease and viral labyrinthitis may also cause hearing loss, but vertigo is the most prominent symptom. While the age of presentation may slightly favor a diagnosis of acoustic neuroma over multiple sclerosis, the vast majority of cases are never diagnosed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history of Parkinson's disease. He is currently on co-beneldopa 650mg five times daily. The patient reports excessive drooling of saliva, which has not improved with speech and language therapy. What would be the best initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start glycopyrronium bromide
Explanation:To manage drooling of saliva in people with Parkinson’s disease, the recommended first line of medical treatment is glycopyrronium bromide. If this medication is not effective, not well-tolerated, or contraindicated, it may be necessary to refer the patient to a specialist service for botulinum toxin A. While scopolamine is also an antimuscarinic that can be used for drooling in Parkinson’s disease, it carries a higher risk of adverse cognitive effects. Increasing co-beneldopa will not have any impact on non-motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including drooling. Atropine can be used, but sublingual atropine ophthalmic solution is preferred over inhalers.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents with a 6 month history of chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea that is beginning to impact her daily life, especially at work. During the consultation, Linda mentions experiencing painful bowel movements that begin just before her period and persist throughout it.
As her healthcare provider, you suspect endometriosis. Linda asks you about the best way to confirm this diagnosis.
What is the definitive test that can be done to confirm endometriosis for Linda?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic visualisation of the pelvis
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, laparoscopy is the most reliable method of diagnosing endometriosis in patients.
To confirm the presence of endometriosis, it is necessary to perform a laparoscopic examination of the pelvis, regardless of whether a transvaginal or transabdominal ultrasound appears normal.
If a thorough laparoscopy is conducted and no signs of endometriosis are found, the patient should be informed that she doesn’t have the condition and offered alternative treatment options.
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby two weeks ago without any known complications. She is curious about iron supplementation and has undergone blood tests. The results show that her Hb level is 107 g/L, which is below the normal range for females (115-160 g/L). What is the appropriate Hb cut-off point to initiate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually at 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a woman requires oral iron therapy. For the first trimester, the cut-off is less than 110 g/L, for the second and third trimesters, it is less than 105 g/L, and for the postpartum period, it is less than 100 g/L. If a woman falls below these levels, she should receive oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. Treatment should continue for three months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow for the replenishment of iron stores.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of redness and pain in his left eye for the past two days. He also reports mild sensitivity to light and blurred vision. He wears contact lenses daily and is in good health otherwise.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red with swelling of the eyelid, conjunctival inflammation, and excessive tearing. However, ocular movement is normal.
What are the most frequently implicated organisms in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:If someone has contact lens associated keratitis, it is important to consider the possibility of a Pseudomonas infection. In the UK, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most frequently encountered bacterial pathogen in cases of contact lens associated keratitis.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).
Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.
Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the consultation, she reveals that she smokes around 12 cigarettes per day and has made two attempts in the past to quit smoking. What is the most effective intervention for achieving smoking cessation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief advice from a physician
Explanation:Effective Interventions for Smoking Cessation: Brief Advice and Lifestyle Changes
Brief advice from a physician can be a powerful tool in helping people quit smoking. In less than 30 seconds, a physician can ask a person if they smoke and if they have considered quitting, while also offering help. This type of intervention has been proven effective for lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. However, acupuncture and hypnotherapy have little evidence to support their effectiveness in smoking cessation. While a prescribed exercise program may not be effective, short bouts of moderate exercise can help distract from cravings. Additionally, a low-calorie diet doesn’t impact a person’s ability to quit smoking successfully. By incorporating brief advice and lifestyle changes, physicians can help their patients successfully quit smoking.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a painful, swollen, left lower leg. She has recently been started on a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has never smoked. Her mother had a pulmonary embolism in her thirties, while pregnant.
On examination, her body mass index (BMI) is 23 kg/m2.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation
Explanation:Understanding Thrombophilias: Factor V Leiden Mutation and Other Genetic Risk Factors for DVT
Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious medical condition that can be caused by a variety of risk factors, including heritable thrombophilias. These genetic conditions can be identified in up to 50% of venous thromboemboli cases, and the most common heritable thrombophilia in Caucasians is the Factor V Leiden mutation. This autosomal-dominant condition affects around 5% of the population and increases the risk of thrombosis three to eight times, depending on the individual’s genotype. Other genetic risk factors for DVT include protein C and protein S deficiencies, which are less common than Factor V Leiden mutation. It is important to consider these genetic risk factors when evaluating patients with DVT, especially those with a family history of hormone-associated VTE or without other traditional risk factors for thrombosis. Understanding thrombophilias can help clinicians make informed decisions about treatment and prevention strategies for DVT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not be routinely offered to women during the initial antenatal care visit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood glucose
Explanation:NICE has made a surprising decision to no longer recommend routine glucose testing during antenatal care. Instead, they suggest that only individuals who are considered at risk, such as those with a history of obesity, previous macrosomic baby, family history, or Asian ethnicity, should have their blood glucose levels checked.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man with a history of prostate cancer, Parkinson's disease, and heart failure presents to your office with a complaint of bilateral breast enlargement that has developed over the past three months.
Which of the following medications he is taking is the least likely to have contributed to this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicalutamide
Explanation:Medications and their effects on hormones
Bisoprolol is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure and hypertension. Its side effects include bradycardia and bronchospasm, but it is not known to cause gynaecomastia.
Bicalutamide is an anti-androgen medication used to treat advanced prostate cancer. It can have oestrogen-like effects due to its mechanism of action. Goserelin is also used to treat advanced prostate cancer and works by disrupting the endogenous hormonal feedback system, leading to reduced production of testosterone and oestrogen.
Finasteride is used to treat prostate enlargement and works as an anti-androgen, reducing the production of dihydrotestosterone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic steroid with moderate antiandrogen action, which can potentially lead to gynaecomastia. Understanding the effects of these medications on hormones is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate treatment and manage potential side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?
Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.
In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.
In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which drug is listed as having a severe interaction with Cimetidine, considering that Ranitidine is unavailable due to a manufacturing problem and GP practices in the area are advised to prescribe Cimetidine as a potential cost-effective alternative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Cimetidine and Nifedipine Interaction
Cimetidine and nifedipine have a severe interaction as cimetidine moderately increases the exposure to nifedipine. The manufacturer advises monitoring and adjusting the dose accordingly. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes interactions as severe (red) or moderate (amber). While the list of amber interactions for a drug can be extensive, it is crucial to focus on the most severe (red) ones, especially when it comes to exams or clinical practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which group of patients should receive a pneumococcal booster vaccination every 6 years and be vaccinated against pneumococcus if they have any of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Those with chronic kidney disease
Explanation:The pneumococcal vaccine is typically administered as a single dose, but individuals who have undergone a splenectomy or have chronic kidney disease should receive a booster shot every five years.
The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.
The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.
Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old gentleman comes to see you for the result of his x ray. He was seen by a colleague two weeks ago with knee pain and was referred for plain films of his right knee.
The x ray report states: 'loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis and subchondral cyst formation'.
What is the underlying cause of his knee pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Radiological Features of Joint Diseases
Osteoarthritis is a joint disease that can be identified through four core features on plain x-ray examination. These features include loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cyst formation. All of these features are present on the x-ray, making osteoarthritis the correct diagnosis.
Chondrocalcinosis, on the other hand, is characterized by calcium deposition in structures such as the cartilage. In gout, x-rays may only show soft tissue swelling, but chronic inflammation can lead to punched out lesions in juxta-articular bone. Late-stage gout is characterized by tophi formation and joint space narrowing.
In rheumatoid arthritis, plain films can show soft tissue swelling, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and loss of joint space. As the disease progresses, the destructive nature of the disease can lead to bony erosions, subluxation, and massive deformity. Septic arthritis, an infective process, can be identified through early plain film radiographic findings of soft tissue swelling around the joint and a widened joint space from joint effusion. With the progression of the disease, joint space narrowing can occur as articular cartilage is destroyed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman with a body mass index of 51 kg/m2 presents to you seeking guidance on weight management, including the use of medication. You recently reviewed a systematic review of RCTs comparing orlistat to placebo for weight management, which included an asymmetrical funnel plot. What type of bias could this indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Publication bias
Explanation:The failure to publish results from valid studies, particularly if they show a negative or uninteresting result, is known as publication bias. This can result in a skewed representation of the effectiveness of a treatment or intervention. To assess for publication bias, a funnel plot can be used, which plots the effect estimates from individual studies against their size or precision. If publication bias has occurred, smaller studies with no evidence of an effect may not have been published, resulting in an asymmetric appearance of the funnel plot. Other types of bias include attrition bias, performance bias, and selection bias, which refer to systematic differences in withdrawals from a study, care provided or exposure to other factors, and baseline characteristics of the groups being compared, respectively. Effective randomisation and blinding can help prevent these types of bias.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis comes in for evaluation. Her hands are severely affected by the disease and she needs assistance with bathing and getting dressed. Which benefit form should be filled out?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attendance Allowance
Explanation:As the individual is over 65 years of age, they qualify for Attendance Allowance instead of Personal Independence Payment (which is the updated term for Disability Living Allowance).
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of chronic heart failure due to alcoholic cardiomyopathy (NYHA class I). Which medication should be avoided due to contraindication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.
Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause malabsorption and non-bloody diarrhea. The condition can be acquired locally, and stool microscopy may not always detect it. However, the good news is that it can be treated with metronidazole. Once treated, malabsorption typically resolves. If you experience symptoms of giardia lamblia, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute urticaria
Explanation:Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms
Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.
In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.
Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.
Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of hearing loss in his left ear. He reports feeling a blockage in the ear and has previously had his ears syringed. Upon examination, the ear is found to be occluded by wax. What is the most appropriate initial management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ear drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for earwax: Ear Drops, Microsuction, and Manual Removal
earwax, also known as cerumen, can cause discomfort and hearing problems if it builds up in the ear canal. The first-line treatment for earwax is ear drops, which can soften the wax and make it easier to remove. Microsuction is a safer alternative to irrigation, but it is not widely available. Manual removal using a probe is also an option. However, there is little evidence on the effectiveness of these treatments.
Various types of ear drops can be used, including sodium bicarbonate, sodium chloride, olive oil, and almond oil. Cerumol® is a commonly used proprietary agent. However, the British National Formulary warns against using docusate sodium (Waxsol®, Molcer®) or urea hydrogen peroxide (Exterol®, Otex®) as they may irritate the external meatus.
Regardless of the type of ear drop used, the patient should lie with the affected ear uppermost for 5-10 minutes after applying the drops. While using any type of ear drop appears to be better than no treatment, it is uncertain if one type of drop is more effective than another. Therefore, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional before attempting to remove earwax at home.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline and topical adapalene for three months to treat moderate acne vulgaris. He reports a positive response to the treatment with only occasional breakouts on his forehead. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop lymecycline and continue adapalene
Explanation:When treating acne vulgaris, it is important to limit the use of a single oral antibiotic to a maximum of three months. Additionally, it is recommended to review the treatment plan every 8-12 weeks. If topical treatments are not effective for moderate acne, an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline can be added for a maximum of three months to prevent antibiotic resistance. Once the acne has cleared or improved significantly, maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid should be considered as first-line options, unless contraindicated.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to hospital and subsequently dies.
What is the most common cause of death in people with a learning disability?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circulatory disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Death in People with Learning Disabilities
People with learning disabilities are at a higher risk of premature death compared to the general population. The most common cause of death in this group is circulatory or cardiovascular disease, accounting for 22.9% of deaths. Regular health check-ups can help promote long-term health and prevent such diseases.
Cancer is another major cause of death, responsible for 13.1% of deaths in people with learning disabilities. While it is a significant cause of death, it is not the most common.
Aspiration pneumonitis, a potentially preventable cause of death, accounts for 3.6% of deaths in people with learning disabilities. It is important to be aware of this cause of death and take necessary precautions to prevent it.
Epilepsy is responsible for 3.9% of deaths in people with learning disabilities. Like aspiration pneumonitis, it is a preventable cause of death, and awareness can help reduce the risk.
Respiratory disease is the second most common cause of death in people with learning disabilities, accounting for 17.1% of deaths. It is crucial to monitor and manage respiratory conditions in this population to prevent premature deaths.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
You are asked to prescribe diamorphine to go into a syringe driver for a 85-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic colorectal cancer. He is currently taking a total of 100 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours.
Having calculated the correct dose of diamorphine for his syringe driver over 24 hours, what dose of subcutaneous diamorphine would you prescribe for breakthrough pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mg
Explanation:Drug Dose Calculations
Calculating drug doses can be a challenging task, especially when it comes to converting between different medications and routes of administration. One common question in medical exams involves calculating the appropriate dose of a medication for a patient.
To answer this question correctly, there are several steps to follow. Firstly, the total oral dose of morphine must be converted to diamorphine. Then, the breakthrough dose of subcutaneous diamorphine must be calculated, not the oral morphine dose.
To calculate the 24-hour dose of diamorphine for a patient, the total daily dose of oral morphine should be divided by 3. For example, if a patient is taking 90 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours, this is equivalent to 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours by syringe driver.
According to the BNF, the subcutaneous dose for breakthrough pain should be between one sixth and one tenth of the 24-hour dose. Therefore, for this patient, the correct breakthrough dose of subcutaneous diamorphine would be between 3 mg and 5 mg.
It is important to note that drug dose calculations are a common area of weakness in medical exams. Examiners often include questions on this topic, and it is essential for healthcare professionals to have a good understanding of how to calculate drug doses accurately.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner by his parents for a consultation. The child has been diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome, and his parents wish to better understand what this means.
Which of the following options is most likely to be problematic in this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Developmental and Behavioral Challenges
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects many aspects of an individual’s life. It is characterized by hypotonia and developmental delay in infancy, followed by obesity, learning disability, and behavior problems in adolescence and adulthood. The disorder is relatively common, with a prevalence of 1 in 15,000 to 1 in 30,000, and most cases are inherited sporadically.
One of the most notable symptoms of Prader-Willi syndrome is an exceptional interest in food that becomes apparent during the second year of life. Individuals with the disorder may exhibit extreme food-seeking behaviors, such as eating garbage, frozen food, or stealing to obtain food. This hyperphagia can be dangerous, causing massive stomach dilation.
As individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome age, they are at risk for obesity-related complications such as sleep apnea, cor pulmonale, diabetes mellitus, and atherosclerosis. Hypogonadism can also occur, leading to osteoporosis. Additionally, behavioral issues are common in adults with the disorder.
Overall, Prader-Willi syndrome presents a range of challenges for individuals and their families. Understanding the disorder and its symptoms is crucial for managing its effects and providing appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)