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Question 1
Correct
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What is a known factor that can lead to depression?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Organic Causes of Depression
Depression can have various organic causes, including medications, drug abuse, metabolic disorders, nutritional deficiencies, neurological conditions, haematological disorders, infections, and carcinomas. The following table provides a list of some of the organic causes of depression.
Category: Medications
Causes: Reserpine, interferon alpha, beta blockers, levodopa, digoxin, anabolic steroids, H2 blockers, oral contraceptivesCategory: Drug abuse
Causes: Alcohol, amphetamine, cocaine, hypnoticsCategory: Metabolic
Causes: Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, diabetes mellitusCategory: Nutritional
Causes: Pellagra, vitamin B12 deficiencyCategory: Neurological
Causes: Stroke, MS, brain tumour, Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, epilepsy, syphilis, subdural hematomaCategory: Haematological
Causes: Anemia, leukaemiaCategory: Other
Causes: Infection, carcinomaIt is important to note that depression can have multiple causes, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which group had the highest incidence rates for psychosis according to the AESOP study?
Your Answer: White British
Correct Answer: African-Caribbean
Explanation:The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a scenario where a study participant alters their behavior due to the awareness of being observed?
Your Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Simpson’s Paradox is a real phenomenon where the comparison of association between variables can change direction when data from multiple groups are merged into one. The other three options are not valid terms.
Types of Bias in Statistics
Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.
There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly one. At first, the child is very scared but eventually becomes comfortable and enjoys playing with the dog. What type of therapeutic approach does this demonstrate?
Your Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Correct Answer: Flooding
Explanation:Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias
Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A teenager who has recently dropped out of school has started to abuse drugs. His friend brings him to A&E as he started behaving strangely and appeared to be experiencing hallucinations. As he walks into the cubicle you note a very unsteady gait and further questions reveal a sense of muscle rigidity. Which of the following do you expect he has been using?
Your Answer: LSD
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about the issue of alcohol misuse in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: The highest levels of binge drinking occur in people aged 16-24
Explanation:Prevalence of Substance Misuse, with a Focus on Alcohol Misuse
Alcohol misuse is a major issue, particularly in the UK, where it is among the highest rates in Europe. Men are more likely to experience both alcohol dependence and binge drinking than women. Specifically, 6% of men and 2% of women experience alcohol dependence, while 21% of men and 9% of women engage in binge drinking. It is worth noting that this figure contradicts the findings from the NPMS in 2000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate estimate of the ratio of males to females with OCD?
Your Answer: 1:04
Correct Answer: 1:01
Explanation:Both males and females are equally likely to experience OCD, according to most studies. While some discrepancies have been reported, the majority support a 1:1 ratio.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of child abuse?
Your Answer: Child less than one year of age
Correct Answer: Old parents
Explanation:Child Abuse: Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Child abuse is a serious problem that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of child abuse occurring. These include a history of abuse in the caregiver, substance misuse in the caregiver, inaccurate knowledge about child development, teenage parents, children of single parents, domestic violence in the home, high levels of stress within the family, younger children, children with disabilities, poverty, social isolation, and living in a dangerous neighborhood.
However, there are also protective factors that can help prevent child abuse from occurring. These include parental resilience, social connections, knowledge of parenting and child development, concrete support in times of need, and social and emotional competence of children. By promoting these protective factors, we can help reduce the risk of child abuse and create a safer and healthier environment for children to grow and thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the local Emergency department with double vision.
She has been consuming more than 20 units of alcohol daily for several years. She appears unkempt, emaciated and malnourished. Her blood alcohol level is negative and she claims to have stopped drinking five days ago. She has been experiencing vomiting multiple times a day for the past three days.
The Emergency department physician seeks your expert opinion. You observe signs of lateral rectus palsy, ataxia and nystagmus.
What is the most probable location of the lesion in the women's nervous system?Your Answer: Mammillary bodies
Explanation:This case presents a man who exhibits the classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, including ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion. The underlying lesion is located in the Mammillary bodies and around the third ventricle and aqueduct. This condition is typically caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B-1), which can be triggered in individuals who are malnourished and dependent on alcohol due to prolonged vomiting. Korsakoff’s amnesic syndrome is a later manifestation of this condition, characterized by memory loss and confabulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. You history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?:
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that causes a gradual accumulation of iron in the body over time. If left untreated, this excess iron can be deposited in organs like the liver and heart, potentially leading to organ failure. Treatment typically involves phlebotomy, which removes excess iron from the body and helps maintain healthy iron levels.
Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs
Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:
Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride
Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)
Mood stabilizers: Lithium
Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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You are asked to evaluate a patient who has just begun taking clozapine. The nurse is worried about his fever and tachycardia, which have persisted for a few hours. The patient reports experiencing some chest discomfort. What is your suspicion regarding his condition?
Your Answer: Myocarditis
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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What is a true statement about opioid detoxification?
Your Answer: Ultra-rapid detoxification is associated with serious adverse events
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone of buprenorphine.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A newly admitted elderly patient on the ward attends ward round. They are found to have been on lorazepam 4 mg QDS for a number of years. Your consultant asks you to convert this to diazepam so that the patient can be slowly weaned off benzodiazepines. Select the correct equivalent dose of diazepam:
Your Answer: 20mg QDS
Correct Answer: 40mg QDS
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Addiction
Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 14
Incorrect
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For what discovery did someone receive a Nobel Prize in 1949 regarding the therapeutic benefits of frontal leucotomy in specific psychoses?
Your Answer: Sakel
Correct Answer: Moniz
Explanation:A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness?
Your Answer: A person's fitness to plead is decided by a judge
Correct Answer: Someone is unfit to plead if they cannot recall the alleged crime
Explanation:Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A study examining potential cases of neuroleptic malignant syndrome reports on several physical parameters, including patient temperature in Celsius.
This is an example of which of the following variables?:Your Answer: Ordinal
Correct Answer: Interval
Explanation:Types of Variables
There are different types of variables in statistics. Binary of dichotomous variables have only two values, such as gender. Categorical variables can be grouped into two or more categories, such as eye color of ethnicity. Continuous variables can be further classified into interval and ratio variables. They can be placed anywhere on a scale and have arithmetic properties. Ratio variables have a value of 0 that indicates the absence of the variable, such as temperature in Kelvin. On the other hand, interval variables, like temperature in Celsius of Fahrenheit, do not have a true zero point. Lastly, ordinal variables allow for ranking but do not allow for arithmetic comparisons between values. Examples of ordinal variables include education level and income bracket.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 17
Correct
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Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the SCOFF questionnaire.
Your Answer: Do you regularly feel that you are overweight?
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An aging patient is referred by their GP due to concerns about memory loss that has been worsening over the past three years. Upon examination, you diagnose the patient with Alzheimer's disease and administer an MMSE test resulting in a score of 9. A CT scan is ordered and reveals only generalized atrophy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Treatment is not indicated in this case
Correct Answer: Memantine
Explanation:The clinical assessment of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease guides the decision to initiate treatment. NICE guidelines suggest the use of memantine for individuals with advanced Alzheimer’s disease, as indicated by a score of 0-10 on the MMSE.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the calculation that the nurse performed to determine the patient's average daily calorie intake over a seven day period?
Your Answer: Arithmetic mean
Explanation:You don’t need to concern yourself with the specifics of the various means. Simply keep in mind that the arithmetic mean is the one utilized in fundamental biostatistics.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 20
Correct
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What is a true statement about transference?
Your Answer: It is largely an unconscious process
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In Korsakoff syndrome, which aspect of memory is most significantly impacted?
Your Answer: Semantic
Correct Answer: Episodic
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.
Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 22
Correct
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What is a true statement about transient global amnesia?
Your Answer: Repetitive questioning is a common feature
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with delirium?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Based on statistics from England and Wales, what is the percentage of males who claim to have experienced the most severe forms of rape of sexual assault by penetration within the last year?
Your Answer: 2%
Correct Answer: 0.10%
Explanation:Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings
According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.
In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.
The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct?
Your Answer: Thanatos and eros
Explanation:Aggression – Freud
According to Freud, aggression is a result of the primary instinct called thanatos, also known as the death instinct. He believed that every individual possesses this drive, which aims to cause complete destruction and death. Additionally, Freud proposed the existence of an opposing instinct called eros, which is the life instinct. He also introduced the concept of catharsis, which is a process of releasing libidinal energy and inducing a sense of calmness. This process occurs when we witness an aggressive act of engage in a mildly aggressive act.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What drug is classified as a schedule 3 controlled substance?
Your Answer: Fentanyl
Correct Answer: Temazepam
Explanation:Temazepam falls under the category of drugs classified as schedule 3.
Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What demographic is most frequently targeted in homicides committed by individuals receiving mental health treatment?
Your Answer: Child
Correct Answer: Acquaintance
Explanation:Homicide is a serious issue in the UK, with an average of 580 convictions each year. Shockingly, 11% of those convicted were patients under mental health services, although this figure has been decreasing. An independent review of mental health homicides found that 80% of perpetrators were male, with a mean age of 37. In most cases, the perpetrator knew the victim, with 33% being friends and 33% being partners. Illicit substances were used in 75% of cases, and 95% of perpetrators were in the community at the time of the offence. These findings highlight the need for continued efforts to prevent homicides and support those with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What are the defining characteristics of borderline personality disorder?
Your Answer: Affective instability
Correct Answer: Dissociative symptoms
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder often presents with stress-related dissociation as a prominent symptom. Dissociation refers to a disturbance of interruption in the typical functioning of various cognitive processes, including consciousness, perception, attention, memory, and identity. This can manifest as feelings of detachment from oneself (depersonalization) of the surroundings (derealization), which may seem surreal, hazy, of insignificant. Memory disturbances can range from difficulty recalling information to complete dissociative amnesia.
Personality Disorder (Borderline)
History and Terminology
The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.
Features
The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.
Abuse
Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.
comorbidity
Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.
Psychological Therapy
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.
NICE Guidelines
The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about anorexia nervosa as defined by the ICD-11?
Your Answer: The prognosis for adults diagnosed with anorexia nervosa is better than the prognosis for adolescents with anorexia nervosa.
Correct Answer: Laxative abuse is more common among females than in males
Explanation:Females are more likely to abuse laxatives, while males are more likely to engage in excessive exercise. Anorexia Nervosa typically develops earlier in females than in males. The prognosis for adolescents diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa is generally better than for adults. Anorexia Nervosa can involve both bingeing and purging, and the ICD-11 recognizes two patterns: the ‘restricting pattern’ and the ‘binge-purge pattern’. Indications of preoccupation with weight and shape may not always be explicitly reported, but can be inferred from behaviors such as frequent weighing, measuring body shape, monitoring calorie intake, of avoiding certain clothing of mirrors. Such indirect evidence can support a diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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What is the method used to establish accountability for criminal actions?
Your Answer: McNaughten rules
Explanation:The issue of consent in individuals under the age of 16 is evaluated through the Gillick test, while cases of medical negligence are assessed using the Bolam test.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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