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  • Question 1 - A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching....

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?

      Your Answer: Skin scrapings

      Correct Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 2 - Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity...

    Correct

    • Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners for the past 6 months and is concerned about the potential impact of a sexually transmitted infection on her unborn child. Which of the following STIs is typically included in the antenatal screening program in the UK?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      During the booking visit for prenatal care, healthcare providers typically test for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can have serious consequences for the mother and/or the developing fetus. These include syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV. Testing for hepatitis C is usually only done for women who are at high risk, such as those who use intravenous drugs. Other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis, genital herpes, and genital warts, are not routinely tested for during pregnancy unless the patient has symptoms or is considered to be at risk. It is important to identify and treat STIs during pregnancy to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.

      The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.

      At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.

      At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.

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  • Question 3 - A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise to reduce feeds to every 3 hours and offer advice on other ways to settle during the evening

      Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support

      Explanation:

      Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.

      There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.

      While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.

      For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

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      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female primip comes in during the 12th week of pregnancy with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female primip comes in during the 12th week of pregnancy with complaints of ongoing nausea. Her urine dipstick shows no ketones present. She asks for medication to alleviate her symptoms. What is the best drug to recommend?

      Your Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines are the preferred initial treatment for vomiting during pregnancy.

      Specific Points for Antenatal Care

      Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.

      For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.

      Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.

      Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.

      In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 5 - The practice nurse has asked you to see a patient who has had...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse has asked you to see a patient who has had a routine cervical smear test which shows atypical endometrial cells. She is 55 years old and has only had two periods in the last year.

      She wants to know what course of action needs to be followed.

      What is the correct course of action with a finding of atypical endometrial cells in a woman aged 55?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral - possibility of endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Non urgent referral to a gynaecologist - likely to be an endometrial polyp.

      Explanation:

      Atypical Endometrial Cells: Significance and Associated Risks

      Diagnosis of atypical endometrial cells is of clinical significance as it may indicate the presence of significant uterine disease. In fact, more than one-third of women with histological follow-up have been found to have such conditions. Atypical endometrial cells may be associated with various conditions such as endometrial polyp, chronic endometritis, intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD), endometrial hyperplasia, and endometrial carcinoma. The risk of carcinoma is particularly concerning, and patients should be referred to a gynaecologist for further investigation. Urgent referral is recommended, and patients should be seen within two weeks of referral to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?

      Your Answer: At least one month

      Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

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  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.

      She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.

      What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?

      Your Answer: Normal finding

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive

      In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.

      To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.

      Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?

      Your Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.

      If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.

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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has been exhibiting erratic behavior and mood swings since giving birth to their daughter 10 days ago. During the appointment, she seems restless and agitated.

      According to her partner, she has been avoiding sleep due to her fear that something terrible might happen to their baby. The woman has a history of depression but has not taken her fluoxetine medication for the past 6 months due to concerns about potential complications.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a woman exhibiting symptoms of agitation and paranoid delusions after giving birth is to admit her to the hospital for urgent assessment. This is likely a case of postpartum psychosis, which is different from postnatal depression. Prescribing medication to aid in sleep or reassuring the patient that her low mood will improve with time are not appropriate options in this case. Gradual titration of medication would also not manage her acute symptoms and ensure the safety of herself and her baby. Ideally, she should be admitted to a Mother & Baby Unit for proper care.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

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  • Question 10 - You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 28-year-old female about...

    Incorrect

    • You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 28-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.

      What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?

      Your Answer: Change patch fortnightly with no breaks

      Correct Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches

      Explanation:

      The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for extra contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption means that it is not affected by vomiting or diarrhea, eliminating the need for additional precautions. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraception followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.

      How to Use the Combined Contraceptive Patch

      The Evra patch is the only combined contraceptive patch approved for use in the UK. It is worn for 3 weeks straight and then removed for a week, during which a withdrawal bleed occurs. If the patch is not changed on time, different rules apply depending on the week of the patch cycle.

      If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2, it should be changed immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are needed. However, if the delay is greater than 48 hours, a barrier method of contraception should be used for the next 7 days. If unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred during this extended patch-free interval or in the last 5 days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3, it should be removed as soon as possible and a new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed. If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.

      For more information on combined hormonal methods of contraception, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

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  • Question 11 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has entered a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception due to her suspicion of being in menopause. She is currently experiencing hot flashes and has not had a period in 9 months. What is the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer: Contraception is needed until 12 months after her last period

      Correct Answer: Contraception is needed until 24 months after her last period

      Explanation:

      Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 12 - Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.

      During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman who recently immigrated from Malawi comes in for a check-up...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who recently immigrated from Malawi comes in for a check-up suspecting she may be pregnant. After a positive pregnancy test, it is revealed that she is HIV positive. What aspect of her management plan should be excluded to ensure the best possible outcome?

      Your Answer: Encourage Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      The BHIVA guidelines recommend that women on HAART with an undetectable viral load may consider vaginal delivery, but it is uncertain if this will be implemented in real-world situations. As for breastfeeding, the guidelines advise all HIV-positive mothers, regardless of their antiretroviral therapy and infant PEP, to exclusively use formula feeding from the time of birth.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby two weeks ago without any known...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby two weeks ago without any known complications. She is curious about iron supplementation and has undergone blood tests. The results show that her Hb level is 107 g/L, which is below the normal range for females (115-160 g/L). What is the appropriate Hb cut-off point to initiate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: 115

      Correct Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually at 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a woman requires oral iron therapy. For the first trimester, the cut-off is less than 110 g/L, for the second and third trimesters, it is less than 105 g/L, and for the postpartum period, it is less than 100 g/L. If a woman falls below these levels, she should receive oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. Treatment should continue for three months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow for the replenishment of iron stores.

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  • Question 15 - Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at...

    Correct

    • Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. As a first-time pregnant individual, she is worried about the potential impact of a surgical abortion on her future fertility. What advice should be given to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: No evidence of impact on future fertility

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that their future fertility is not impacted by the abortion and there is no association with placenta praevia, ectopic pregnancy, stillborn or miscarriage. However, they should also be made aware of the potential complications that may arise from the procedure. These include severe bleeding, uterine perforation (surgical abortion only), and cervical trauma (surgical abortion only). The risks of these complications are lower for early abortions and those performed by experienced clinicians. In the event that one of these complications occurs, further treatment such as blood transfusion, laparoscopy or laparotomy may be required. Additionally, infection may occur after medical or surgical abortion, but this risk can be reduced through prophylactic antibiotic use and bacterial screening for lower genital tract infection.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30 for contraception for the past two years. However, she recently went on a weekend trip with her partner and forgot to take her pills, missing two in a row. She had regular intercourse with her partner during the weekend. Today, she is supposed to take the 19th pill of the packet and claims not to have missed any other pills. You advise her to take two pills as soon as possible. What further advice should you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use condoms for the next 7 days + skip the 7 day break

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of her combined screening test for Down syndrome. Her risk is 1:200, but she is unsure of what this means. What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should offer her referral for diagnostic testing

      Explanation:

      Screening tests for Down syndrome are not always accurate, as they can miss detecting the condition in a significant number of babies. If a patient receives a low-risk result, they will not be offered any further testing for Down syndrome.

      However, if a patient receives a higher risk result, meaning their baby has a risk greater than 1 in 150, they will be offered a diagnostic test to confirm whether or not their baby has Down syndrome. It is ultimately up to the patient to decide whether or not to undergo the diagnostic test.

      Diagnostic tests for Down syndrome include chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:

      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 9.5
      2 15.1

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old female visits her doctor after missing one of her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female visits her doctor after missing one of her Microgynon 30 pills yesterday morning. She has been taking Microgynon for the last 2 years and is currently on day 4 of her pill packet. She had sexual intercourse the previous night and is uncertain about the next steps. She took yesterday's pill and today's pill this morning. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action needed

      Explanation:

      No action is required as she has missed only one pill. For more details, please refer to the FSRH guidelines.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman who delivered a baby a week ago comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who delivered a baby a week ago comes in for a follow-up appointment with her spouse. The husband expresses concern about her mood as she appears to be depressed and is not bonding well with the newborn. He recalls her behavior three days ago when she was speaking rapidly and incoherently about the future. The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but mentions that she feels like her child has been born into a terrible world. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission

      Explanation:

      The mother’s behavior suggests that she may be experiencing puerperal psychosis and requires immediate admission for psychiatric assessment.

      Although not all psychotic symptoms are present, there are several indications of significant mental health issues, such as the mother’s unusual lack of interaction with her baby, incoherent speech about the future, and expressing concern that the baby has been born into a troubled world.

      Therefore, it is crucial that the mother receives prompt psychiatric evaluation.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her rubella...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her rubella status. Her sister's child has recently been diagnosed with rubella, and she is currently 10 weeks pregnant.

      What would be the initial course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss immediately with the local Health Protection Unit

      Explanation:

      In case of suspected rubella during pregnancy, it is important to consult with the local Health Protection Unit for guidance on appropriate investigations. If the mother is found to be non-immune to rubella, the MMR vaccine should be administered after delivery. However, the risk of transmission to the fetus in this scenario is uncertain. If transmission does occur, particularly later in the pregnancy, it can cause significant harm to the developing fetus. Hospitalization is not necessary at this point.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, rubella is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is as high as 90% in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, but damage is rare after 16 weeks. Congenital rubella syndrome can cause a range of features, including sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It is important to note that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is crucial to check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the postnatal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.

      Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.

      What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient

      Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.

      The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.

      Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of her smear test.

      Unfortunately, the sample was inadequate and needs to be repeated.

      How soon after the initial smear should she have the repeat smear taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Importance of Waiting for Cervical Epithelium Regeneration and Antimicrobial Treatment

      It is crucial to wait for at least three months for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium after a screening test. This is because the epithelium needs time to heal and regenerate before another test is conducted. Rushing to re-sample before the regeneration of the epithelium can lead to inaccurate results, which can be detrimental to the patient’s health.

      Moreover, if there is any suspicion of infection, antimicrobial treatment should be administered before re-sampling. This is because an infection can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, leading to false positives or false negatives. Therefore, it is essential to wait for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium and treat any suspected infection before conducting another screening test.

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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

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  • Question 25 - What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill may help to maintain bone mineral density

      Explanation:

      The use of the combined oral contraceptive pill could potentially alleviate certain symptoms experienced during perimenopause and help preserve bone mineral density.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week. She has no other medical conditions. This is her first pregnancy and she is 10-weeks pregnant.

      During the booking appointment, the midwife sent a mid-stream urine sample to screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria. The patient denied experiencing any urinary symptoms. The culture results showed that she is positive for Escherichia Coli, which is sensitive to nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. A repeat sample confirmed the findings.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to screen pregnant women for bacteriuria as untreated cases may lead to acute pyelonephritis. Therefore, taking no action based on urine results is inappropriate. Trimethoprim is not recommended in the first trimester due to its teratogenic risk, so nitrofurantoin is a better option. Local prescribing guidelines should always be followed. If group B streptococcal bacteriuria is detected, antenatal services must be informed as prophylactic intrapartum antibiotics will be necessary.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum seeks advice. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum seeks advice. She had unprotected sex with her partner two nights ago. She is currently breastfeeding her baby and her partner gives a formula feed at night. She has not had any periods since giving birth and is concerned about the possibility of becoming pregnant again, which she considers not an option at the moment. The incident of unprotected sex occurred approximately 50 hours ago, and she is not open to considering an intrauterine device. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      The lactational amenorrhea method is most effective for women who are less than 6 months postpartum, fully breastfeeding, and not experiencing menstrual periods. However, if the baby is receiving formula at night, this method may not be completely reliable. Additionally, ulipristal, a medication used for emergency contraception, is excreted in breast milk for up to 5 days after use, so it is recommended to avoid breastfeeding for a week after taking it, which could significantly impact a woman’s ability to breastfeed.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is evaluated for pre-eclampsia. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is evaluated for pre-eclampsia. Her current blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and the urine dipstick shows:

      Protein +
      Leucocytes negative
      Blood negative

      There is no swelling and the patient is asymptomatic. Among the listed medications, which one is the least appropriate to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      To prevent birth defects, it is recommended to steer clear of ACE inhibitors and angiotensin-2 receptor blockers. Instead, many healthcare providers opt to prescribe methyldopa or labetalol as the initial treatment for this condition.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman has had four previous live births.

    Twenty weeks into her fifth...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has had four previous live births.

      Twenty weeks into her fifth pregnancy she presents with diffuse lower abdominal pain.

      On examination she is tender in the suprapubic area. She has a fundal height of 28 cm and there is a firm mass related to the uterus. She has urinary frequency but no dysuria. Only one fetal heart is heard.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine fibroids

      Explanation:

      Fibroids in Pregnancy

      Fibroids are a common occurrence in pregnancy, with reported incidence rates varying depending on the method of diagnosis used. These growths are dependent on estrogen and may increase in size during pregnancy, leading to large for dates pregnancies. However, they can also be complicated by red degeneration, which occurs when the blood supply to the fibroid is compromised, resulting in pain and uterine tenderness. Treatment for this condition is expectant, with bed rest and analgesia being the primary methods used. Other complications that may arise include malpresentation, obstructed labor, and, in rare cases, postpartum hemorrhage. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to monitor patients with fibroids closely during pregnancy.

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge. Further investigation confirms infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of C. trachomatis Infection in Pregnancy

      C. trachomatis infection is becoming more common in the UK and can lead to adverse fetal outcomes such as spontaneous miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, and intrauterine growth retardation. Therefore, treatment is advised ahead of test results if chlamydia is strongly suspected clinically. Current UK guidelines recommend three different options for pregnant patients: erythromycin, amoxicillin, and azithromycin. However, erythromycin is the most appropriate option as it is the recommended treatment by most guidelines. Doxycycline, co-trimoxazole, and metronidazole are not routinely used in the treatment of chlamydia during pregnancy. It is also important to note that pregnant patients should be tested for cure 5 weeks after completing treatment (or 6 weeks if azithromycin is used).

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