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  • Question 1 - A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to near-fainting. Whilst in the department, the patient loses consciousness and upon examination, no pulse is detected. You begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Which two medications (aside from oxygen) are administered as part of the advanced life support resuscitation protocol?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline and amiodarone

      Explanation:

      According to the ALS algorithm, the main drugs used during CPR are oxygen, adrenaline, and amiodarone. Adrenaline is administered every 3-5 minutes as per the 2021 UK ALS algorithm. Amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

      Further Reading:

      In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.

      During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.

      There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.

      There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.

      When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.

      Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his wife with a 24 hour history of vomiting and increasing fatigue over the past 1-2 hours. Initial tests confirm a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis and the patient is started on intravenous fluids and an insulin infusion. You are reminded by your attending physician to monitor the bicarbonate level and adjust the insulin infusion rate if it is not improving as anticipated. What is the minimum desired change in bicarbonate that should be aimed for?

      Your Answer: Venous bicarbonate rising by at least 0.5 mmol/L/hr

      Correct Answer: Venous bicarbonate rising by at least 3 mmol/L/hr

      Explanation:

      When patients with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) are treated with insulin infusion, it is expected that their plasma bicarbonate levels will increase by at least 3 mmol/L per hour. Insulin therapy is aimed at correcting both hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. However, if capillary ketones are not decreasing by at least 0.5 mmol/L per hour, venous bicarbonate is not rising by at least 3 mmol/L per hour, or plasma glucose is not decreasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour, the insulin infusion rate should be reevaluated.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      75.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a severe headache. There is currently a heatwave in the area, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin feels dry and hot, he is breathing rapidly, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is extremely restless and experiencing severe shivering.
      What is the most suitable initial course of treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Dantrolene

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.

      The typical clinical features of heat stroke include a core temperature greater than 40.6°C, extreme fatigue, headache, syncope, facial flushing, vomiting, and diarrhea. The skin is usually hot and dry, although sweating can occur in around 50% of cases of exertional heat stroke. The loss of the ability to sweat is a late and concerning sign. Hyperventilation is almost always present. Cardiovascular dysfunction, including arrhythmias, hypotension, and shock, as well as respiratory dysfunction, including acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), can occur. Central nervous system dysfunction, such as seizures and coma, may also be observed. If the temperature rises above 41.5°C, multi-organ failure, coagulopathy, and rhabdomyolysis can occur.

      In the management of heat stroke, benzodiazepines like diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases, patients may require paralysis. Antipyretics like paracetamol, aspirin, and NSAIDs have no role in the treatment of heat stroke. They do not work because the hypothalamus, which regulates body temperature, is healthy but overloaded in heat stroke. Moreover, antipyretics may actually be harmful in patients who develop complications like liver, blood, and kidney problems as they can worsen bleeding tendencies.

      Dantrolene is commonly used in the treatment of heat stroke, although there is currently no high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with a nosebleed and was initially assessed by one of the medical students. You get ready to conduct rhinoscopy in order to locate the source of bleeding.

      What is the probable location of epistaxis?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach plexus

      Explanation:

      Most nosebleeds, also known as epistaxis, occur at a specific area called Little’s area.

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You review a patient with a history of renal failure that has presented...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient with a history of renal failure that has presented with nausea, fatigue, and sleepiness. Upon reviewing her blood results today, you note that her glomerular filtration rate has recently fallen significantly. She has no other medical history of note.

      At what level should patients generally begin dialysis when their glomerular filtration rate (GFR) reaches?

      Your Answer: 15 ml/minute

      Correct Answer: 10 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Patients typically initiate dialysis when their glomerular filtration rate (GFR) drops to 10 ml/min. However, if the patient has diabetes, dialysis may be recommended when their GFR reaches 15 ml/min. The GFR is a measure of kidney function and indicates how well the kidneys are able to filter waste products from the blood. Dialysis is a medical procedure that helps perform the function of the kidneys by removing waste and excess fluid from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      75.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old man who has presented to...

    Incorrect

    • You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old man who has presented to the ER after experiencing a sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, the patient's heart rate is found to be 44 beats per minute, indicating bradycardia. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing asystole?

      Your Answer: Ventricular pauses of 2s duration

      Correct Answer: Mobitz II AV block

      Explanation:

      Having Mobitz II AV block increases the risk of developing asystole. Other risk factors for asystole include recent asystole, third degree AV block (complete heart block) with a broad QRS complex, and a ventricular pause lasting longer than 3 seconds.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      138.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are managing an elderly trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. The patient...

    Correct

    • You are managing an elderly trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. The patient has sustained severe chest contusions and you have concerns regarding the presence of cardiac tamponade. What is considered a classic clinical sign of cardiac tamponade?

      Your Answer: Neck vein distension

      Explanation:

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by several classic clinical signs. These include distended neck veins, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. These three signs are collectively known as Beck’s triad. Additionally, patients with cardiac tamponade may also experience pulseless electrical activity (PEA). It is important to recognize these signs as they can indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25 year old third year medical student is brought into the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old third year medical student is brought into the emergency department for a check up after fainting while observing a prolonged delivery that required an emergency C-section. The patient complains of feeling warm and sweaty for a couple of minutes before becoming lightheaded and losing consciousness. There were no reports of loss of bladder or bowel control, and no tongue biting was observed. Physical examination reveals no focal neurological deficits and a normal cardiovascular examination. Blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg when lying down and 120/72 mmHg when standing.

      What is the probable cause of the fainting episode?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the fainting episode in this 25-year-old third year medical student is vasovagal syncope. Vasovagal syncope is a common type of fainting that occurs in response to certain triggers, such as emotional stress, pain, or seeing blood. In this case, the prolonged delivery and emergency C-section likely triggered the patient’s vasovagal response.

      The patient’s symptoms of feeling warm and sweaty before fainting are consistent with vasovagal syncope. During a vasovagal episode, there is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate, leading to a temporary loss of consciousness. The absence of loss of bladder or bowel control and tongue biting further support this diagnosis.

      The physical examination findings of no focal neurological deficits and a normal cardiovascular examination also align with vasovagal syncope. Additionally, the blood pressure measurements of 122/74 mmHg when lying down and 120/72 mmHg when standing suggest orthostatic hypotension, which is commonly seen in vasovagal syncope.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old woman comes in with complaints of tiredness and frequent nosebleeds. During...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman comes in with complaints of tiredness and frequent nosebleeds. During the examination, she displays a widespread petechial rash and enlarged gums.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      Leukaemic infiltrates in the gingiva are frequently observed in cases of acute myeloid leukaemia. This type of leukaemia primarily affects adults and is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 65 and 70. The typical presentation of acute myeloid leukaemia involves clinical symptoms that arise as a result of leukaemic infiltration in the bone marrow and other areas outside of the marrow. These symptoms may include anaemia (resulting in lethargy, pallor, and breathlessness), thrombocytopaenia (manifesting as petechiae, bruising, epistaxis, and bleeding), neutropenia (leading to increased susceptibility to infections), hepatosplenomegaly, and infiltration of the gingiva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.

      To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling 111 for guidance regarding recent chest discomfort. The patient is worried that she might be experiencing a heart attack. During the assessment, you inquire about the nature of the pain, accompanying symptoms, and factors that worsen or alleviate the discomfort, prior to conducting a physical examination. Which history would be most suggestive of a acute myocardial infarct (AMI)?

      Your Answer: Radiation of the pain to the left arm

      Correct Answer: Radiation of the pain to the right arm

      Explanation:

      The characteristic with the highest likelihood ratio for AMI is the radiation of chest pain to the right arm or both arms. Additionally, the history characteristics of cardiac pain also have a high likelihood ratio for AMI.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 2-month-old baby is brought in by his mother with a reported high...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old baby is brought in by his mother with a reported high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures his temperature again as part of her initial assessment.

      Which of the following is recommended by NICE as an appropriate method of measuring body temperature in this age group?

      Your Answer: Infra-red tympanic thermometer

      Correct Answer: Electronic thermometer in the axilla

      Explanation:

      In infants who are less than 4 weeks old, it is recommended to measure their body temperature using an electronic thermometer placed in the armpit.

      For children between the ages of 4 weeks and 5 years, there are several methods that can be used to measure body temperature. These include using an electronic thermometer in the armpit, a chemical dot thermometer in the armpit, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.

      It is important to note that measuring temperature orally or rectally should be avoided in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 2-week-old baby comes in with vomiting, decreased weight, and an electrolyte imbalance....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-week-old baby comes in with vomiting, decreased weight, and an electrolyte imbalance. After being referred to the pediatricians, they are diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH).
      Which ONE statement is correct about this condition?

      Your Answer: The commonest cause is 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis can be made by finding elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of inherited disorders that are caused by autosomal recessive genes. The majority of affected patients, over 90%, have a deficiency of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This enzyme is encoded by the 21-hydroxylase gene, which is located on chromosome 6p21 within the HLA histocompatibility complex. The second most common cause of CAH is a deficiency of the enzyme 11-beta-hydroxylase. The condition is rare, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 500 births in the UK. It is more prevalent in the offspring of consanguineous marriages.

      The deficiency of 21-hydroxylase leads to a deficiency of cortisol and/or aldosterone, as well as an excess of precursor steroids. As a result, there is an increased secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary, leading to adrenocortical hyperplasia.

      The severity of CAH varies depending on the degree of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Female infants often exhibit ambiguous genitalia, such as clitoral hypertrophy and labial fusion. Male infants may have an enlarged scrotum and/or scrotal pigmentation. Hirsutism, or excessive hair growth, occurs in 10% of cases.

      Boys with CAH often experience a salt-losing adrenal crisis at around 1-3 weeks of age. This crisis is characterized by symptoms such as vomiting, weight loss, floppiness, and circulatory collapse.

      The diagnosis of CAH can be made by detecting markedly elevated levels of the metabolic precursor 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Neonatal screening is possible, primarily through the identification of persistently elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels.

      In infants presenting with a salt-losing crisis, the following biochemical abnormalities are observed: hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia.

      Boys experiencing a salt-losing crisis will require fluid resuscitation, intravenous dextrose, and intravenous hydrocortisone.

      Affected females will require corrective surgery for their external genitalia. However, they have an intact uterus and ovaries and are capable of having children.

      The long-term management of both sexes involves lifelong replacement of hydrocortisone (to suppress ACTH levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion for anemia caused by excessive vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion for anemia caused by excessive vaginal bleeding. While receiving the second unit of blood, she experiences sensations of both heat and coldness. Her temperature is recorded at 38.1ºC, whereas her pre-transfusion temperature was 37ºC. Apart from this, she feels fine and does not exhibit any other symptoms.
      What is the probable cause of this transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Cytokines from leukocytes

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.

      Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.

      In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then treating it with a zinc chloride solution to increase its concentration. This process creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This allows it to effectively inhibit the absorption of toxins by up to 50%.

      The usual dose of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.

      However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. These include cases where the patient is unconscious or in a coma, as there is a risk of aspiration. It should also be avoided if seizures are imminent, as there is a risk of aspiration. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, activated charcoal should not be used to prevent the risk of obstruction.

      Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with certain drugs and toxins, such as aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in cases of overdose with iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.

      There are potential adverse effects associated with the use of activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhalation of charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32 year old woman is brought into the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman is brought into the emergency department with burns to her chest and arms. The patient was trying to handle a grease fire but accidentally spilled the burning contents onto herself. Your consultant requests you to evaluate the severity of the burns. What is used to estimate the extent of a burn injury?

      Your Answer: Lund and Browder chart

      Explanation:

      TBSA, or Total Body Surface Area, is a method commonly used to estimate the size of small burns and very large burns by including the area of unburnt skin. However, it is not considered a reliable method for medium-sized burns.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you that she has a rare platelet disorder and provides you with her outpatient letter from the hematology department, which includes details about the condition. According to the letter, her disorder is attributed to decreased levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is an uncommon condition affecting platelets, where they have a deficiency or abnormality in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. This disorder leads to platelet dysfunction and can result in various complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly...

    Correct

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly consuming peanuts in a dish at a Thai eatery. She has a history of hypertension, but her blood pressure is effectively managed with a daily dose of atenolol 50 mg and amlodipine 5 mg. You have given her two injections of IM adrenaline, but her condition continues to worsen.
      Which of the following interventions is most likely to quickly improve her condition?

      Your Answer: IM glucagon

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on beta-blockers may not respond effectively to adrenaline during anaphylaxis. Research conducted on animals and reported cases have indicated that glucagon can be utilized to counteract the effects of beta-blockade if initial adrenaline doses prove ineffective.

      Although prednisolone and hydrocortisone can be beneficial later on, it typically takes 6-8 hours for them to take full effect. Therefore, they are unlikely to have any impact on the patient during the brief period it will take for the ambulance to arrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused and is experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is difficult to obtain a history from him as he is mumbling. You also note that he appears flushed and his skin is warm to the touch.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Theophylline

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      This patient exhibits clinical features that are consistent with the ingestion of a drug that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the central and peripheral nervous system. There are several anticholinergic drugs commonly used in clinical practice. Some examples include antihistamines like promethazine and diphenhydramine, typical and atypical antipsychotics such as haloperidol and quetiapine, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine, antidepressants like tricyclic antidepressants, and antispasmodics like hyoscine butylbromide. Other sources of anticholinergic effects can come from plants like datura species and certain mushrooms.

      When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in both the central and peripheral nervous system. The central inhibition leads to an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma and seizures. The peripheral inhibition can cause dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

      In summary, the ingestion of an anticholinergic drug can result in a toxidrome characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of these drugs and to recognize the clinical features associated with their ingestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are requested to deliver a teaching session on delirium for the incoming...

    Correct

    • You are requested to deliver a teaching session on delirium for the incoming medical interns rotating to the emergency department. What is a commonly acknowledged characteristic of delirium?

      Your Answer: Lucid intervals usually occur during the day

      Explanation:

      Delirium is characterized by fluctuating symptoms of disturbed consciousness that typically develop over hours to days. During the day, lucid intervals may occur, while the worst disturbances are often experienced at night. In contrast, dementia has a gradual onset and does not involve fluctuations in mental state. Stroke, on the other hand, is associated with focal neurological deficits.

      Further Reading:

      Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.

      Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.

      The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.

      Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries, pressure sores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      19.4
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left renal angle and her temperature is measured at 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the laboratory.
      What is the MOST SUITABLE antibiotic to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, she is showing signs of sepsis and is pregnant, which makes it necessary to admit her for inpatient treatment.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also recommends considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and intravenous first-line options (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) include amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line option is cefalexin, and intravenous first-line option (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) is cefuroxime. Intravenous second-line options or combining antibacterials should be considered if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, and consultation with a local microbiologist is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who...

    Correct

    • You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who is currently using a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). What impact would you anticipate NSAID treatment to have on renal measurements?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs have been found to have a relatively high occurrence of renal adverse drug reactions (ADRs). These ADRs primarily occur due to changes in renal haemodynamics caused by alterations in prostaglandin levels.

      Normally, prostaglandins play a role in dilating the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus. This dilation helps maintain normal glomerular perfusion and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

      However, NSAIDs work by reducing prostaglandin levels. This reduction leads to unopposed vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, resulting in decreased renal plasma flow. Consequently, this decrease in renal plasma flow leads to a decrease in GFR. It is important to note that NSAIDs do not have any impact on the filtration fraction itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      90.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg by a patient with Alzheimer's disease at a nearby nursing home. The bite wound seems to have only punctured the skin without any ongoing bleeding or signs of infection such as redness, swelling, or discharge. Despite the absence of current infection, you decide to administer prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended length of time for prophylactic antibiotics in a non-infected human bite wound?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      In cases of human bite wounds where the skin is broken but no blood is drawn, it is recommended to consider antibiotic prophylaxis, especially if the bite occurs in a high-risk area like the hands. According to NICE guidelines, a 3-day course of antibiotics is usually sufficient for prophylaxis in bite wounds. However, if the bite wound becomes infected, a 5-day course of antibiotics is advised for treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.

      Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.

      When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.

      Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.

      The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.

      Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      29.8
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  • Question 24 - You are managing a 62-year-old woman who has suffered a displaced fracture of...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 62-year-old woman who has suffered a displaced fracture of the distal radius. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). You opt to administer prilocaine 0.5% for the regional block. What would be the appropriate dosage for this patient?

      Your Answer: 3 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The suggested amount of Prilocaine for Bier’s block is 3mg per kilogram of body weight. It is important to note that there is no available formulation of prilocaine combined with adrenaline, unlike other local anesthetics.

      Further Reading:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old individual presents on a Tuesday morning after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual presents on a Tuesday morning after being bitten by a tick a few days ago while hiking in the woods. The tick was promptly removed and there have been no symptoms experienced since. After conducting some online research, the individual is extremely worried about the potential of acquiring Lyme disease.

      What is the MOST suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Organise immunoblot test for Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: Reassurance only, no need to test or treat

      Explanation:

      According to the current NICE guidance, it is not recommended to diagnose Lyme disease in individuals who do not show any symptoms, even if they have been bitten by a tick. Therefore, there is no need to conduct tests or provide treatment in such cases. It is important to reassure these patients that the majority of ticks do not transmit Lyme disease. However, it is advised that they remain vigilant for any potential symptoms and return for re-evaluation if necessary. The ‘Be Tick Aware’ campaign by Public Health England can serve as a helpful resource for further information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 22-year-old individual comes in with a painful, itchy, red left eye. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old individual comes in with a painful, itchy, red left eye. During the examination, there is noticeable redness in the conjunctiva, and follicles are observed on the inner eyelid when it is turned inside out. They recently had a mild and short-lived upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no other significant medical history.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Viral conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis is the most common reason for red eyes, accounting for about 35% of all eye problems seen in general practice. It occurs when the conjunctiva, the thin layer covering the white part of the eye, becomes inflamed. Conjunctivitis can be caused by an infection or an allergic reaction.

      Infective conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection. The most common type of infective conjunctivitis is viral, with adenoviruses being the main culprits. Bacterial conjunctivitis is also common and is usually caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, or Haemophilus influenzae.

      The symptoms of infective conjunctivitis include sudden redness of the conjunctiva, discomfort described as a gritty or burning sensation, watering of the eyes, and discharge that may temporarily blurry vision. It can be challenging to differentiate between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis based on symptoms alone.

      Here are some key features that can help distinguish between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis:

      Features suggestive of viral conjunctivitis:
      – Mild to moderate redness of the conjunctiva
      – Presence of follicles on the inner surface of the eyelids
      – Swelling of the eyelids
      – Small, pinpoint bleeding under the conjunctiva
      – Pseudomembranes (thin layers of tissue) may form on the inner surface of the eyelids in severe cases, often caused by adenovirus
      – Less discharge (usually watery) compared to bacterial conjunctivitis
      – Mild to moderate itching
      – Symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection and swollen lymph nodes in front of the ears

      Features suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis:
      – Purulent or mucopurulent discharge with crusting of the eyelids, which may cause them to stick together upon waking
      – Mild or no itching
      – Swollen lymph nodes in front of the ears, which are often present in severe bacterial conjunctivitis
      – If the discharge is copious and mucopurulent, infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be considered.

      By considering these distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage cases of conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy and difficulty swallowing. She remembers being bitten by an insect approximately 10 years ago, which resulted in a fever and flu-like symptoms. On her ankle, where the bite occurred, she now has a firm, violet-colored lump.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chagas disease

      Explanation:

      Chagas disease, also known as American Trypanosomiasis, is a tropical illness caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. It is transmitted by Triatomine insects, commonly known as kissing bugs, which belong to the Reduviidae family. This zoonotic disease is prevalent in Central and South America, with an estimated 8 million people infected in the region. In Brazil alone, there are approximately 120,000 new cases reported each year.

      The disease progresses through two stages: the acute stage and the chronic stage. During the acute stage, many patients may not experience any symptoms, and the infection can go unnoticed. However, some individuals may exhibit symptoms such as fever, malaise, muscle pain, loss of appetite, and occasionally vomiting and diarrhea. Clinical signs may include swollen lymph nodes and enlargement of the liver and spleen. At the site of the insect bite, an inflammatory response called a chagoma can occur. This is characterized by a swollen, violet-colored nodule that can last up to 8 weeks. Another distinctive sign of acute Chagas disease is Romaña’s sign, which is eyelid swelling caused by accidentally rubbing bug feces into the eyes.

      Following the acute stage, an estimated 10-30% of individuals progress to the chronic stage of Chagas disease. There is typically a latent phase between the acute and chronic phases, which can last for as long as 20-30 years. The chronic phase is associated with various complications, including cardiovascular problems such as dilated cardiomyopathy, heart failure, and arrhythmias. Gastrointestinal issues like megacolon, megaesophagus, and secondary achalasia can also arise. Neurological complications, such as neuritis, sensory and motor deficits, and encephalopathy, may occur. Additionally, psychiatric symptoms, including dementia, can manifest in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and drooling....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and drooling. Speaking is difficult for the child. The medical team calls for an experienced anesthesiologist and ear, nose, and throat surgeon. The child is intubated, and a diagnosis of acute epiglottitis is confirmed.
      Which antibiotic would be the best choice for treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.

      In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.

      The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.

      To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.

      When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating large amounts. She also experiences extreme fatigue. The healthcare provider suspects diabetes mellitus and schedules an oral glucose tolerance test.
      What is the current WHO threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus using an oral glucose tolerance test?

      Your Answer: 11.1 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), the following criteria are used to diagnose diabetes mellitus:

      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l.
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration that is higher than 7.0 mmol/l.
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l, measured two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
      – An HbA1c level that is greater than 48 mmol/mol (equivalent to 6.5%).

      These guidelines provide specific thresholds for diagnosing diabetes mellitus based on various glucose measurements and HbA1c levels. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these criteria when evaluating individuals for diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.8
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with an inability to close...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with an inability to close their mouth following an accidental elbow to the jaw. The suspicion is a dislocated temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Typically, in which direction does TMJ dislocation occur?

      Your Answer: Anterior

      Explanation:

      In most cases, TMJ dislocation occurs in an anterior and bilateral manner.

      TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.

      The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.

      Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.

      If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.

      Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.

      Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.

      After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      19.6
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  • Question 31 - A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood film.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Sickle-cell disease

      Explanation:

      Target cells, also referred to as codocytes or Mexican hat cells, are a distinct type of red blood cells that display a unique appearance resembling a shooting target with a bullseye. These cells are commonly observed in individuals with sickle-cell disease, distinguishing it from the other conditions mentioned in the provided options. Hence, sickle-cell disease is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additionally, target cells can also be associated with other conditions such as thalassaemia, liver disease, iron-deficiency anaemia, post splenectomy, and haemoglobin C disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee....

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. How much IM adrenaline should be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer: 300 mcg

      Explanation:

      The management of anaphylaxis involves several important steps. First and foremost, it is crucial to ensure proper airway management. Additionally, early administration of adrenaline is essential, preferably in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. Aggressive fluid resuscitation is also necessary. In severe cases, intubation may be required. However, it is important to note that the administration of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone should only be considered after early resuscitation has taken place.

      Adrenaline is the most vital medication for treating anaphylactic reactions. It acts as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist, which helps reverse peripheral vasodilatation and reduce oedema. Furthermore, its beta-adrenergic effects aid in dilating the bronchial airways, increasing the force of myocardial contraction, and suppressing histamine and leukotriene release. Administering adrenaline as the first drug is crucial, and the intramuscular (IM) route is generally the most effective for most individuals.

      The recommended doses of IM adrenaline for different age groups during anaphylaxis are as follows:

      – Children under 6 years: 150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000)
      – Children aged 6-12 years: 300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000)
      – Children older than 12 years: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)
      – Adults: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      8.6
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  • Question 33 - A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a condition that you identify as a...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a condition that you identify as a notifiable infection. You fill out the notification form and reach out to the local health protection team.
      Which of the following is the LEAST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has a primary goal of swiftly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is important, it is not the main focus. Since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient for reporting.
      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to notify the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) if they suspect cases of certain infectious diseases.
      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 specify the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
      It is worth noting that roseola infantum is not considered a notifiable disease, making it the least likely option among the diseases listed above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.5
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  • Question 34 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After being evaluated...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After being evaluated by the dermatology consultant on call, she is diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about Stevens-Johnson syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer: Epidermal detachment is seen in less than 10% of the body surface area

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially deadly form of erythema multiforme. It can be triggered by anything that causes erythema multiforme, but it is most commonly seen as a reaction to medication within 1-3 weeks of starting treatment. Initially, there may be symptoms like fever, fatigue, joint pain, and digestive issues, followed by the development of severe mucocutaneous lesions that are blistering and ulcerating.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The extent of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when detachment affects between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Several drugs can potentially cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, including tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.6
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  • Question 35 - A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department with wheezing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department with wheezing and swelling of the lips. The patient's friend informs you that he has a nut allergy. Anaphylaxis is suspected. What is the underlying pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: Cell-mediated reaction

      Correct Answer: IgE mediated immediate reaction

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that is caused by the immune system overreaction to a specific allergen. This reaction is classified as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which means it is mediated by the IgE antibodies.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      13.1
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  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that she consumed verapamil immediate-release 240 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago. However, her spouse promptly discovered her and brought her to the hospital. Currently, she shows no signs of symptoms. Typically, how much time passes before symptoms manifest in cases of this overdose?

      Your Answer: 3-6 hours

      Correct Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      95.4
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  • Question 37 - A 2-year-old girl presents with a barking cough. You suspect croup as the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with a barking cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis.

      Which SINGLE statement regarding croup is true?

      Your Answer: There is often a prodromal illness for 1-2 days before stridor begins

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      Since croup is caused by a viral infection, antibiotics are not effective unless there is a suspicion of a secondary bacterial infection. It is important to note that sedation should not be used in a child experiencing respiratory distress. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed, although they do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not necessarily indicate the severity of the condition. Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who show worsening respiratory distress or signs of drowsiness/agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      16.5
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  • Question 38 - A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg laceration. After assessing the wound, it is determined that suturing under anesthesia is necessary. You intend to supervise one of the medical students in closing the wound. Before beginning the procedure, you have a discussion about the risks associated with local anesthesia. Methemoglobinemia is primarily associated with which type of anesthetic agent?

      Your Answer: Prilocaine

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition that can occur when prilocaine is used, particularly when administered at doses higher than 16 mg/kg.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      19.9
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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a significant laceration on...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a significant laceration on his right forearm. You suggest that this can be stitched up using local anesthesia. Bupivacaine 0.5% is accessible in the suture room. What is the maximum dosage of Bupivacaine 0.5% that can be administered?

      Your Answer: 2 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of adrenaline is 2 mg/kg, regardless of its concentration or addition. However, when calculating the volume requirements, the concentration of adrenaline becomes a factor.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with right-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with right-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic hematuria. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
      Which of the following stone types is the least frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Cystine stones

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.

      The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.

      Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.

      Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.

      By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has been feeling unwell for 3-4 days, experiencing muscle aches, fever, chills, tiredness, and headache. In the past 24 hours, he has developed a severe sore throat. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.9ºC, tender enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes, and white exudate covering both tonsils.

      His parents inquire about keeping him off school. What is the recommended exclusion period for the likely underlying illness?

      Your Answer: No exclusion required

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that this patient has glandular fever, as school exclusion is not necessary for this condition. However, it is important to note that in the UK, school exclusion is not required for tonsillitis either. The only exception is if a child has tonsillitis and a rash consistent with scarlet fever, in which case exclusion is necessary for 24 hours after starting antibiotics. The child and parents should be provided with additional information about glandular fever (refer to the notes below).

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      18.7
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  • Question 42 - You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student provides a tentative diagnosis of roseola. What is a frequent complication linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      In patients with roseola, the fever occurs before the rash appears. Therefore, once the rash is present, it is unlikely for the child to experience a febrile convulsion.

      Further Reading:

      Roseola infantum, also known as roseola, exanthem subitum, or sixth disease, is a common disease that affects infants. It is primarily caused by the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B) and less commonly by human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7). Many cases of roseola are asymptomatic, and the disease is typically spread through saliva from an asymptomatic infected individual. The incubation period for roseola is around 10 days.

      Roseola is most commonly seen in children between 6 months and 3 years of age, and studies have shown that as many as 85% of children will have had roseola by the age of 1 year. The clinical features of roseola include a high fever lasting for 2-5 days, accompanied by upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) signs such as rhinorrhea, sinus congestion, sore throat, and cough. After the fever subsides, a maculopapular rash appears, characterized by rose-pink papules on the trunk that may spread to the extremities. The rash is non-itchy and painless and can last from a few hours to a few days. Around 2/3 of patients may also have erythematous papules, known as Nagayama spots, on the soft palate and uvula. Febrile convulsions occur in approximately 10-15% of cases, and diarrhea is commonly seen.

      Management of roseola is usually conservative, with rest, maintaining adequate fluid intake, and taking paracetamol for fever being the main recommendations. The disease is typically mild and self-limiting. However, complications can arise from HHV6 infection, including febrile convulsions, aseptic meningitis, and hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      52.7
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  • Question 43 - A one-month-old infant develops eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both of...

    Incorrect

    • A one-month-old infant develops eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both of his eyes approximately two weeks after birth. His mother is currently being treated for a chlamydia infection.
      What is the baby's highest risk of complications?

      Your Answer: Corneal ulcer

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis is the most frequent occurrence of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns. Ophthalmia neonatorum refers to any cause of conjunctivitis during the newborn period, regardless of the specific organism responsible. Chlamydia is now the leading cause, accounting for up to 40% of cases. Neisseria gonorrhoea, on the other hand, only accounts for less than 1% of reported cases. The remaining cases are caused by non-sexually transmitted bacteria like Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Haemophilus species, and viruses.

      Gonorrhoeal ophthalmia neonatorum typically presents within 1 to 5 days after birth. It is characterized by intense redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, eyelid swelling, and a severe discharge of pus. Corneal ulceration and perforation may also be present.

      Chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, usually appears between 5 to 14 days after birth. It is characterized by a gradually increasing watery discharge that eventually becomes purulent. The inflammation in the eyes is usually less severe compared to gonococcal infection, and there is a lower risk of corneal ulceration and perforation.

      The second most common manifestation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns is pneumonia. Approximately 5-30% of infected neonates will develop pneumonia. About half of these infants will also have a history of ophthalmia neonatorum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old individual who has been examined by...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old individual who has been examined by a medical student. The patient complained of swelling on one side of the face, and the medical student has tentatively diagnosed it as a salivary gland stone. Where is the most frequent location for salivary gland stones to occur?

      Your Answer: Wharton's duct

      Explanation:

      This area contains stones made of stone. The parotid duct opens into the vestibule of the mouth, specifically between the cheek and gums, at a spot called the parotid papilla. This papilla is located across from the second upper molar tooth.
      The sublingual gland is drained by a series of 8-20 excretory ducts known as the ducts of Rivinus. The largest duct in this system is called Bartholin’s duct. It is worth noting that stones in the sublingual gland are extremely rare.

      Further Reading:

      Salivary gland disease refers to various conditions that affect the salivary glands, which are responsible for producing saliva. Humans have three pairs of major salivary glands, including the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands, as well as numerous minor salivary glands. These glands produce around 1 to 1.5 liters of saliva each day, which serves several functions such as moistening and lubricating the mouth, dissolving food, aiding in swallowing, and protecting the mucosal lining.

      There are several causes of salivary gland dysfunction, including infections (such as bacterial or viral infections like mumps), the presence of stones in the salivary ducts, benign or malignant tumors, dry mouth (xerostomia) due to medication, dehydration, or certain medical conditions like Sjögren’s syndrome, granulomatous diseases like sarcoidosis, and rare conditions like HIV-related lymphocytic infiltration. Mucoceles can also affect the minor salivary glands.

      Salivary gland stones, known as sialolithiasis, are the most common salivary gland disorder. They typically occur in adults between the ages of 30 and 60, with a higher incidence in males. These stones can develop within the salivary glands or their ducts, leading to obstruction and swelling of the affected gland. Risk factors for stones include certain medications, dehydration, gout, smoking, chronic periodontal disease, and hyperparathyroidism. Diagnosis of salivary gland stones can be made through imaging techniques such as X-ray, ultrasound, sialography, CT, or MRI. Management options include conservative measures like pain relief, antibiotics if there is evidence of infection, hydration, warm compresses, and gland massage. Invasive options may be considered if conservative management fails.

      Salivary gland infection, known as sialadenitis, can be caused by bacterial or viral pathogens. Decreased salivary flow, often due to factors like dehydration, malnutrition, immunosuppression, or certain medications, can contribute to the development of sialadenitis. Risk factors for sialadenitis include age over 40, recent dental procedures, Sjögren’s syndrome, immunosuppression, and conditions that decrease salivary flow. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common bacterial cause, while mumps is the most common viral cause. Ac

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      29.9
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  • Question 45 - A 60-year-old man has accidentally consumed an excessive amount of amitriptyline tablets and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has accidentally consumed an excessive amount of amitriptyline tablets and is currently experiencing toxic side effects.

      Which of the following mechanisms is NOT involved in mediating these toxic effects?

      Your Answer: Direct alpha-adrenergic blockade

      Correct Answer: Opening of potassium channels

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a significant problem in cases of drug overdose and is one of the most common causes of fatal drug poisoning. Any overdose of amitriptyline that exceeds 10 mg/kg has the potential to be life-threatening. If the overdose surpasses 30 mg/kg, it will lead to severe toxicity, cardiotoxicity, and coma.

      The toxic effects of TCAs are caused by various pharmacological actions. These include anticholinergic effects, direct blocking of alpha-adrenergic receptors, inhibition of noradrenaline reuptake at the preganglionic synapse, blockade of sodium channels, and blockade of potassium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.3
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  • Question 46 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is NOT true?

      Your Answer: A dose of 150 mg can be given following the 5th shock in pulseless VT arrest

      Correct Answer: It should be administered as an infusion of 300 mg over 20-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You review an elderly patient with a history of heart disease that has...

    Incorrect

    • You review an elderly patient with a history of heart disease that has presented with shortness of breath, chest pain, and dizziness. Upon reviewing his cardiac tests today, you note that his ejection fraction has recently fallen significantly.
      Elderly patients should undergo cardiac intervention when their ejection fraction (EF) reaches what level?

      Your Answer: 25 ml/minute

      Correct Answer: 15 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Patients typically initiate dialysis when their glomerular filtration rate (GFR) drops to 10 ml/min. However, if the patient has diabetes, dialysis may be recommended when their GFR reaches 15 ml/min. The GFR is a measure of kidney function and indicates how well the kidneys are able to filter waste products from the blood. Dialysis is a medical procedure that helps perform the function of the kidneys by removing waste and excess fluid from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - You review a 16-year-old girl who is seeking advice on emergency contraception. The...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 16-year-old girl who is seeking advice on emergency contraception. The ‘Fraser guidelines’ are used to clarify the legal position of treating individuals under the age of 17 without parental consent.

      Which of the following statements does not form part of the Fraser guidelines?

      Your Answer: That she is likely to continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment

      Correct Answer: That the patient must not have a learning disability or mental illness

      Explanation:

      The Fraser guidelines pertain to the guidelines established by Lord Fraser during the Gillick case in 1985. These guidelines specifically address the provision of contraceptive advice to individuals under the age of 16. According to the Fraser guidelines, a doctor may proceed with providing advice and treatment if they are satisfied with the following criteria:

      1. The individual (despite being under 16 years old) possesses a sufficient understanding of the advice being given.
      2. The doctor is unable to convince the individual to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents about seeking contraceptive advice.
      3. The individual is likely to engage in sexual intercourse, regardless of whether they receive contraceptive treatment.
      4. Without contraceptive advice or treatment, the individual’s physical and/or mental health is likely to deteriorate.
      5. The doctor deems it in the individual’s best interests to provide contraceptive advice, treatment, or both without parental consent.

      In summary, the Fraser guidelines outline the conditions under which a doctor can offer contraceptive advice to individuals under 16 years old, ensuring their well-being and best interests are taken into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the newborn is born with deafness in both ears.
      Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the ability to pass through the placenta and can lead to damage to the 8th cranial nerve in the fetus, resulting in permanent bilateral deafness.

      ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters.

      Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      High doses of aspirin can lead to 1st trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause limb malformations. If given in the 3rd trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

      Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

      Lithium, if given in the 1st trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department acutely ill with abdominal and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department acutely ill with abdominal and lower limb pain. He had a syncopal episode in the department and was transferred to the resuscitation area.

      His initial blood results are as follows:
      Na+: 114 mmol/l
      K+: 7.1 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 150 mmol/l

      What is the most frequent cause of the underlying diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

      Explanation:

      Acute adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addisonian crisis, is a rare condition that can have catastrophic consequences if not diagnosed in a timely manner. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.

      Addison’s disease is caused by a deficiency in the production of steroid hormones by the adrenal glands, affecting glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, and sex steroid production. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis, bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, tuberculosis, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      An Addisonian crisis can be triggered by the intentional or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy, as well as factors such as infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation in areas such as palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed skin.

      During an Addisonian crisis, the main symptoms are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and even coma.

      Biochemical features that can confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease include increased ACTH levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may involve the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level measurement, plasma renin level measurement, and adrenocortical antibody testing.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves the administration of hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also require thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and MedicAlert bracelet to alert healthcare professionals of their condition and the potential for an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 30 year old male with a history of hereditary angioedema (HAE) presents...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old male with a history of hereditary angioedema (HAE) presents to the emergency department with sudden facial swelling. What is the most suitable management for an acute exacerbation of hereditary angioedema?

      Your Answer: Icatibant acetate

      Explanation:

      In the UK, the most commonly used treatment for acute exacerbations of hereditary angioedema (HAE) in emergency departments is C1-Esterase inhibitor. However, there are alternative options available. Icatibant acetate, sold under the brand name Firazyr®, is a bradykinin receptor antagonist that is licensed in the UK and Europe and can be used as an alternative treatment. Another alternative is the transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.

      Further Reading:

      Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.

      Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.

      HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.

      The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.

      The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.

      In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden and severe headache. CT scan confirms the presence of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. You are currently monitoring the patient for any signs of elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) while awaiting transfer to the neurosurgical unit. What is the typical ICP range for a supine adult?

      Your Answer: 5–15 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The normal intracranial pressure (ICP) for an adult lying down is typically between 5 and 15 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for the past few weeks. She reports that it tends to occur when she is climbing stairs or walking uphill but subsides quickly when she rests. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with metformin, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), for which she takes lansoprazole. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Stable angina is characterized by chest pain in the center of the chest that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. The pain may spread to the jaw or left arm and can be relieved by resting for a few minutes. Typically, the pain is brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      On the other hand, unstable angina is defined by the presence of one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. In unstable angina, the ECG may appear normal or show T wave / ST segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are usually normal.

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. These attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, and patients with this condition often have normal coronary arteries.

      It is important to note that gastro-esophageal reflux (GORD) is not relevant to this question and is included in the patient’s history to distract the candidate. Typical symptoms of GORD include heartburn and acid regurgitation, and it can also present with non-cardiac chest pain, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection in the submandibular area. It most commonly occurs due to an infection in the floor of the mouth that spreads into the submandibular space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of headaches, which are more severe in the morning, and blurred vision and ringing in the ears. Her headache is worse than usual today, and she has vomited multiple times. She has no significant medical history but does take the combined oral contraceptive pill. On examination, you find her to be overweight, and her neurological system examination reveals a sixth cranial nerve palsy, but no other focal neurology and fundoscopy reveals bilateral papilloedema.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri. This condition typically affects overweight women in their 20s and 30s.

      The clinical features of idiopathic intracranial hypertension include:
      – Headache: The headache is usually worse in the morning and evenings, relieved by standing, and worsened when lying down. It can also be aggravated by coughing and sneezing. Some patients may experience pain around the shoulder girdle.
      – Nausea and vomiting
      – Visual field defects: These develop gradually over time.
      – 6th nerve palsy and diplopia
      – Bilateral papilloedema

      To investigate this condition, the patient should undergo a CT scan and/or MRI of the brain, as well as a lumbar puncture to measure the opening pressure and analyze the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

      The primary treatment goal for idiopathic intracranial hypertension is to prevent visual loss. This can be achieved through one of the following strategies:
      – Repeated lumbar puncture to control intracranial pressure (ICP)
      – Medical treatment with acetazolamide
      – Surgical decompression of the optic nerve sheath

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 17-year-old arrives at the emergency department after tripping while playing basketball and...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old arrives at the emergency department after tripping while playing basketball and injuring his wrist. An X-ray confirms a dislocated wrist joint. You inquire if the patient agrees to receive a local anesthetic injection, and the patient nods in agreement. What type of consent is this?

      Your Answer: Fraser competent consent

      Correct Answer: Implied consent

      Explanation:

      The type of consent in this scenario is implied consent. Implied consent is when a patient’s actions or behavior indicate their agreement to a medical procedure or treatment. In this case, the patient nodding in agreement to receive a local anesthetic injection implies their consent for the procedure.

      Further Reading:

      Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.

      In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.

      Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.

      In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.

      The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.

      Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.

      In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns to the left arm. The patient informs you that one of their friends had accidentally set their sleeve on fire with a lighter, causing the material to quickly burn and stick to their skin. The patient's entire left arm is burned, with the front part experiencing superficial partial thickness burns and the back part having areas of deep partial thickness and full thickness burns. What is the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient?

      Your Answer: 9%

      Explanation:

      To estimate the total body surface area of burn, we need to consider the rule of nines. This rule divides the body into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to the rule of nines, the left arm accounts for 9% of the total body surface area. Therefore, the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient is 9%.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old patient comes in with a painful and red left eye. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient comes in with a painful and red left eye. Upon examination, you observe conjunctival erythema and the presence of mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting. Based on these findings, you diagnose the patient with bacterial conjunctivitis. However, the patient cannot use the first-line treatment due to a previous reaction. According to the current NICE guidance, what is the recommended second-line antibiotic for managing bacterial conjunctivitis?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol 1% ointment

      Correct Answer: Fusidic acid 1% drops

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing bacterial conjunctivitis, NICE provides some helpful guidance. It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment. However, in severe cases or situations where a quick resolution is necessary, topical antibiotics may be necessary. In some cases, it may be appropriate to delay treatment and advise the patient to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.

      There are a few options for topical antibiotics that can be used. One option is Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops, which should be applied every 2 hours for 2 days and then 4 times daily for 5 days. Another option is Chloramphenicol 1% ointment, which should be applied four times daily for 2 days and then twice daily for 5 days. Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment and should be applied twice daily for 7 days.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bacterial conjunctivitis and provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 68-year-old man presents with a right-sided headache that has been present for...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a right-sided headache that has been present for a few days. He also has stiffness and an aching sensation around his neck. He generally feels tired and fatigued and complains that turning his head has been painful.

      His observations are as follows: GCS 15/15, temperature 37.2°C, pulse 72/min (regular) and BP 130/78 mmHg. On examination, there is some tenderness over the right occipital area of his scalp with restricted movements to his neck.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate treatment to initiate for him?

      Your Answer: High-dose prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with a classic case of temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis (GCA). Temporal arteritis is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation in the walls of medium and large arteries, specifically granulomatous inflammation. It typically affects individuals who are over 50 years old.

      The clinical features of temporal arteritis include headache, tenderness in the scalp, jaw claudication, and episodes of sudden blindness or amaurosis fugax (usually occurring in one eye). Some patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, weight loss, and depression.

      Temporal arteritis is often associated with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) in about 50% of cases. PMR is characterized by stiffness, aching, and tenderness in the upper arms (bilateral) and pain in the pelvic girdle.

      Visual loss is an early and significant complication of temporal arteritis, and once it occurs, it rarely improves. Therefore, early treatment with high-dose corticosteroids is crucial to prevent further visual loss and other ischemic complications. If temporal arteritis is suspected, immediate initiation of high-dose glucocorticosteroid treatment (40 – 60 mg prednisolone daily) is necessary. It is also important to arrange an urgent referral for specialist evaluation, including a same-day ophthalmology assessment for those with visual symptoms, and a temporal artery biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you observe whispering pectoriloquy over her left lower lobe.
      What is the PRIMARY probable cause of this chest sign?

      Your Answer: Pleural effusion

      Correct Answer: Lung consolidation

      Explanation:

      Whispering pectoriloquy is a phenomenon that occurs when there is lung consolidation. It is characterized by an amplified and clearer sound of whispering that can be heard when using a stethoscope to listen to the affected areas of the lungs. To conduct the test, patients are usually instructed to whisper the phrase ninety-nine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 65-year-old woman comes in with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with walking, and urinary incontinence. After a thorough evaluation and tests, she is diagnosed with normal-pressure hydrocephalus.
      Which of the following medical interventions is most likely to be beneficial?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.

      Around 50% of NPH cases are idiopathic, meaning that no clear cause can be identified. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.

      The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.

      Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence and may involve CT and MRI scans, which reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture can also be performed to assess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels, which are typically normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves present for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.

      NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options include the use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (such as acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures as temporary measures. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure provides lasting clinical benefits for 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      10.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Resus (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Environmental Emergencies (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (4/4) 100%
Nephrology (1/3) 33%
Cardiology (1/4) 25%
Trauma (3/3) 100%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Haematology (3/4) 75%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (3/6) 50%
Allergy (2/3) 67%
Elderly Care / Frailty (2/2) 100%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/3) 0%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/2) 50%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Passmed