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Question 1
Incorrect
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The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and to maintain a social life was first examined in which theory?
Your Answer: The divided self
Correct Answer: The sick role
Explanation:The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 2
Correct
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You are evaluating a 28-year-old male patient who has been referred to you by his primary care physician. He has a history of hyper-sexuality and reports that he engages in masturbation up to 8 times a day. He states that he is constantly preoccupied with sexual thoughts and is attracted to post-pubescent girls around the age of 16. He has a prior conviction for indecent exposure and grooming offenses. What is the most effective antidepressant treatment for his paraphilic disorder?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline and other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are effective in treating paraphilias by reducing libido and delaying orgasm. While all serotonergic antidepressants have sexual effects, they are most common with SSRIs. Although these effects are typically considered side effects, they can be beneficial in treating paraphilias.
Sexual side effects are prevalent with many antidepressants, with SSRIs having the highest incidence at 60-70%. Venlafaxine has a 70% incidence, duloxetine has a 46% incidence, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) have a 40% incidence, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a 30% incidence (but are more common with clomipramine), mirtazapine has a 25% incidence, reboxetine has a 5-10% incidence, and the incidence with trazodone is unknown.
Cyproterone acetate (Androcur) is an effective treatment for hypersexuality as an anti-androgen that reduces testosterone to pre-pubescent levels. These findings are based on the Maudsley Guidelines, 11th edition, page 210.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of developing dementia for an individual with two APOE4 alleles at an advanced age?
Your Answer: 50
Correct Answer: 15
Explanation:Having two APOE4 alleles increases the risk of developing dementia by 15 times, while having one APOE4 allele increases the risk by three times compared to those without any APOE4 alleles. APOE4 is responsible for 50% of the genetic variation in dementia and is present in 20% of the population. APOE3 is the most prevalent allele, and APOE2 may have a protective effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the other structure that, along with the putamen, comprises the lenticular nucleus?
Your Answer: Globus pallidus
Explanation:The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is the motor nucleus of the third cranial nerve, while the putamen and globus pallidus comprise the lenticular nucleus, which is part of the basal ganglia. The basal ganglia play a role in motor control and use the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. The components of the basal ganglia can be classified in various ways, with the corpus striatum (caudate nucleus, putamen, nucleus accumbens, and globus pallidus) and the striatum of neostriatum (caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus) being common groupings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Correct
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Tim displays odd behavior, such as avoiding stepping on thresholds due to superstition, and provides excessively detailed answers to questions. He strongly believes in UFOs and government contact with them, and his social life revolves around an online community focused on these beliefs. He lives with his mother and has never been in a romantic relationship. His family has expressed concern about his odd behavior and potential for schizophrenia, but he has not exhibited hallucinations like his aunt. Based on these symptoms, what do you suspect Tim has?
Your Answer: Schizotypal PD
Explanation:Schizotypal PD is classified differently in DSM-IV and ICD-10, with the latter listing it under psychotic disorders. It is genetically linked to schizophrenia and often found in first-degree relatives of those with the disorder. In this case, there is no evidence of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, but the individual’s beliefs are outside of cultural norms. The DSM-IV criteria for schizotypal PD include social and interpersonal deficits, cognitive of perceptual distortions, and eccentric behavior. The individual must exhibit at least five of the listed criteria, such as odd beliefs of magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, and suspiciousness of paranoid ideation. The disorder cannot be exclusively attributed to another mental health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 6
Correct
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As per the definitions provided by the World Health Organization (WHO), what constitutes an neonatal death?
Your Answer: A live-born infant that dies within 28 days
Explanation:A neonatal death refers to the death of a newborn baby within 28 days of birth. If the death occurs within the first seven days, it is classified as an early neonatal death, while a death that occurs between seven and 28 days is considered a late neonatal death. A stillbirth is the term used to describe the death of a fetus before birth, but after 24 weeks of gestation. Finally, if a live-born infant dies after one month but before reaching one year of age, it is classified as a postnatal death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 7
Correct
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What factors had a significant impact on the evolution of the comprehension of suicide?
Your Answer: Durkheim
Explanation:History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You encounter a young man in your clinic who you recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has heard that the condition is hereditary and wants to know if his teenage sister is at risk of developing it. What would you inform him about the likelihood of his sister developing schizophrenia based solely on the fact that he has it?
Your Answer: 14%
Correct Answer: 9%
Explanation:Schizophrenia Risk According to Gottesman
Irving I. Gottesman conducted family and twin studies in European populations between 1920 and 1987 to determine the risk of developing schizophrenia for relatives of those with the disorder. The following table displays Gottesman’s findings, which show the average lifetime risk for each relationship:
General population: 1%
First cousin: 2%
Uncle/aunt: 2%
Nephew/niece: 4%
Grandchildren: 5%
Parents: 6%
Half sibling: 6%
Full sibling: 9%
Children: 13%
Fraternal twins: 17%
Offspring of dual matings (both parents had schizophrenia): 46%
Identical twins: 48% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about the effect of naloxone?
Your Answer: It displaces both opioid agonists and partial antagonists
Explanation:Naloxone hydrochloride is a morphine derivative that acts as a specific opioid antagonist by competitively binding to opioid receptors. It has a strong affinity for these receptor sites and can displace both opioid agonists and partial antagonists. Despite being administered at high doses (up to 10 times the usual therapeutic dose), naloxone does not produce significant analgesia, respiratory depression, psychotomimetic effects, circulatory changes, of miosis. In the absence of opioids of other agonistic effects of opioid antagonists, naloxone has no pharmacologic activity. It is a competitive antagonist at the mu, kappa, and delta receptors, with a high affinity for the mu receptor but lacking any mu receptor efficacy.
Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What cognitive ability is assessed by Raven's Progressive Matrices?
Your Answer: Procedural memory
Correct Answer: Intelligence
Explanation:Intelligence Test: Raven’s Progressive Matrices
The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) test is designed to measure general intelligence without the use of verbal language. The test consists of a series of items where the participant is required to identify the missing pattern in a sequence. The difficulty level of the items increases progressively, which demands greater cognitive capacity to encode and analyze the patterns.
There are three versions of the RPM test, each designed for different age groups and abilities. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is intended for younger children and special groups, while the Stanford Progressive Matrices is suitable for individuals aged 6 to 80 years old with average intelligence. The Advanced Progressive Matrices is designed for above-average adolescents and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill when used together?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:It is safe to use sodium valproate together with the oral contraceptive pill. However, as valproate is known to cause birth defects, all women who use it and are of childbearing age must also use contraception.
Interactions with Oral Contraceptives
Psychiatric drugs such as St John’s Wort, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Topiramate, and Barbiturates can interact with oral contraceptives and lead to a reduced contraceptive effect. It is important to be aware of these potential interactions to ensure the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia?
Your Answer: Confabulation
Correct Answer: Retrograde amnesia
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine?
Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Rivastigmine often causes dizziness, while the other listed side effects are less frequently reported.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager who believes stealing is justified if it is done to provide for one's family, and when asked why, responds with because it's common knowledge?
Your Answer: Individualism and exchange
Correct Answer: Good interpersonal relationships
Explanation:Sophie has entered the phase of conventional morality where she comprehends that morality is determined by motivation rather than outcomes. However, societal norms still dictate what is considered moral rather than individual beliefs. This is exemplified by the emphasis on everyone in moral reasoning. Additionally, children begin to recognize the significance of portraying themselves as having virtuous intentions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35 year old woman has been referred to your clinic with suspected functional paralysis of the left leg. When you ask her to raise her unaffected leg while lying flat on the bed, you feel her pushing down on your hand as you place it under her affected leg.
What sign has been demonstrated?Your Answer: Hoover's sign
Explanation:– A Battle’s sign is a physical indication of a basal skull fracture.
– Babinski’s sign is a clinical sign that suggests an upper motor neuron lesion.
– Kernig’s sign is a clinical sign that indicates meningeal irritation.
– Russell’s sign is characterized by scarring on the knuckles and back of the hand, and it is indicative of repeated induced vomiting.Hoover’s Sign for Differentiating Organic and Functional Weakness
Functional weakness refers to weakness that is inconsistent with any identifiable neurological disease and may be diagnosed as conversion disorder of dissociative motor disorder. To differentiate between organic and functional weakness of pyramidal origin, Dr. Charles Franklin Hoover described Hoover’s sign over 100 years ago.
This test is typically performed on the lower limbs and is useful when the nature of hemiparesis is uncertain. When a person with organic hemiparesis is asked to flex the hip of their normal leg against resistance, they will not exert pressure on the examiner’s hand placed under the heel on the affected side. However, in hysterical weakness, the examiner will feel increased pressure on their hand. Hoover’s sign is a valuable tool for distinguishing between organic and functional weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 16
Correct
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A middle-aged father who unconsciously resents the responsibility he has for his aging parents and the limitations that they place on his personal time goes out each weekend and buys them extravagant gifts and hires expensive caretakers. Assuming the two are connected, which defense mechanism is likely to be underlying this behavior?
Your Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Correct
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What is a known factor that can increase the risk of QTc prolongation?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?
Your Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
Correct Answer: HLA testing
Explanation:In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Down Syndrome: Causes and Risk Factors
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of extra genetic material from chromosome 21. There are three different types of Down syndrome, each with its own cause and inheritance pattern. The most common form, full trisomy 21, is not inherited and accounts for 95% of cases. It occurs when there is a failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an extra copy of the chromosome. This can happen randomly, with the extra chromosome coming from the mother 88% of the time and from the father 12% of the time.
The second type, translocation Down syndrome, is inherited and accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 breaks off and attaches to another chromosome, resulting in extra genetic material. This type of Down syndrome is caused by a balanced translocation, which means that the parent carrying the translocation has no signs of symptoms of the disorder.
The third type, mosaic Down syndrome, is not inherited and also accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in fetal development, resulting in some cells having an extra copy of chromosome 21 while others do not.
The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases as a mother gets older. At age 35, the risk is 1 in 385; at age 40, the risk is 1 in 106; and at age 45, the risk is 1 in 30. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider if they are planning to have a child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 20
Correct
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What brain structure is involved in the reward system and receives dopaminergic input from the ventral tegmental area through the mesolimbic dopamine pathway?
Your Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Brain Anatomy
The brain is a complex organ with various regions responsible for different functions. The major areas of the cerebrum (telencephalon) include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, insula, corpus callosum, fornix, anterior commissure, and striatum. The cerebrum is responsible for complex learning, language acquisition, visual and auditory processing, memory, and emotion processing.
The diencephalon includes the thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary, pineal gland, and mammillary body. The thalamus is a major relay point and processing center for all sensory impulses (excluding olfaction). The hypothalamus and pituitary are involved in homeostasis and hormone release. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate circadian rhythms. The mammillary body is a relay point involved in memory.
The cerebellum is primarily concerned with movement and has two major hemispheres with an outer cortex made up of gray matter and an inner region of white matter. The cerebellum provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, coordinated movements and agility needed for daily life.
The brainstem includes the substantia nigra, which is involved in controlling and regulating activities of the motor and premotor cortical areas for smooth voluntary movements, eye movement, reward seeking, the pleasurable effects of substance misuse, and learning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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