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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
      Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level. His recent blood results show: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, Plts: 127 x 10^9/L, ESR: 45 mm/hr, IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL). Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10–15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: May be cause of haemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

      Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis also known as travellers diarrhoea is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is an anaerobic parasite affecting the small intestine. It can lead to diarrhoea, flatulence, abdominal cramps, malodourous greasy stools and intestinal malabsorption. It can also cause bloody diarrhoea. The investigation of choice is stool examination for trophozoites and cysts. It is treated by metronidazole and tinidazole as first line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 52-year-old woman is being reviewed in the oncology clinic following debulking surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is being reviewed in the oncology clinic following debulking surgery one month ago. She is a known case of primary peritoneal cancer with two liver metastases and has now come in for review prior to adjuvant chemotherapy. During her chemotherapy, which of the following tumour markers would be the most appropriate to monitor her disease progression?

      Your Answer: S-100

      Correct Answer: CA 125

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 125 is mostly associated with primary peritoneal cancer and ovarian cancer. It can be used to monitor response to chemotherapy, alongside regular CT scans.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he has been having extreme difficulty in seeing things clearly and now complains of cloudy vision. On fundoscopy, flame-shaped haemorrhages are found in the patient's right eye. Margins of the optic disc were also found to be blurred. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: CRV thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy reveals flame-shaped haemorrhages which are specific to central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). In CRA thrombosis, fundoscopy would show a cherry-red spot. A patient with retinal detachment would give a characteristic history of seeing flashes of light and floaters. Background retinopathy is associated with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months. She was noted to have a blood sugar of 0.9 mmol/l on finger-prick testing and responded well to intravenous glucose therapy. Venous blood taken at the same showed a markedly raised insulin level, but her C-peptide levels were normal. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Insulinoma

      Correct Answer: Self-administration of a short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycaemia, but her C-peptide levels are normal. This is strongly suggestive of the fact that she is self-administering insulin.
      In Insulinoma, common diagnostic criteria include:
      – blood glucose level < 50 mg/dl with hypoglycaemic symptoms,
      – relief of symptoms after eating
      – absence of sulfonylurea on plasma assays.
      The classic diagnostic criteria include the demonstration of the following during a supervised fast:
      Increased plasma insulin level
      Increased C peptide level
      Increased proinsulin level
      However, the patient has normal C-peptide levels.
      In type-1 diabetes mellitus, insulin and C-peptide levels are low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
      Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
      The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
      – Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
      – Weight gain
      – Decreased appetite
      – Cold intolerance
      – Dry skin
      – Hair loss
      – Sleepiness
      – Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
      – Depression
      – Emotional lability, mental impairment
      – Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
      – Constipation
      – Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
      – Decreased perspiration
      – Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
      – Blurred vision
      – Decreased hearing
      – Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
      Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
      – Weight gain
      – Slowed speech and movements
      – Dry skin
      – Jaundice
      – Pallor
      – Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
      – Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
      – Dull facial expression
      – Coarse facial features
      – Periorbital puffiness
      – Macroglossia
      – Goitre (simple or nodular)
      – Hoarseness
      – Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
      – Bradycardia
      – Pericardial effusion
      – Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
      – Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
      – Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
      – Pitting oedema of lower extremities
      – Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality...

    Incorrect

    • In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Barbiturates

      Correct Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.

      Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)
      – Barbiturate
      – Lithium
      – Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
      – Salicylates
      – Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)

      Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:
      – Tricyclics
      – Benzodiazepines
      – Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
      – Digoxin
      – Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man with alcoholic liver disease is admitted with pyrexia. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with alcoholic liver disease is admitted with pyrexia. He has been unwell for the past three days and has multiple previous admissions before with variceal bleeding. Examination shows multiple stigmata of chronic liver disease, ascites and jaundice. Paracentesis is performed with the following results: Neutrophils 487 cells/ul. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      This describes a clinical scenario of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. The diagnosis is made when fluid removed (ascites) is found to have > 250/mm cubed of PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes). Cefotaxime or another third generation cephalosporin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      19
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed