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Question 1
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman seeks guidance on contraception options. She has a new partner but is certain she doesn't want to have any more children. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the heaviness of her periods and has experienced some intermenstrual bleeding. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:Referral to gynaecology is necessary to rule out endometrial cancer due to the patient’s past experience of intermenstrual bleeding.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 2
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdomen pain, headache, flushing, anxiety, and restlessness during her menstrual cycle. Her symptoms improve as she approaches the end of her period. Blood tests reveal no apparent cause, and a symptom diary suggests a possible diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome.
According to NICE, which of the following is a potential treatment option for premenstrual syndrome?Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Explanation:According to NICE, the treatment of premenstrual syndrome should be approached from various angles, taking into account the severity of symptoms and the patient’s preferences. Effective treatment options include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs taken orally, combined oral contraceptive, cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. However, the copper intrauterine device, tricyclic antidepressants, diazepam and progestogen only pill are not recommended as treatment options.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency surgery with a concern. She is getting married in three days but is currently experiencing menorrhagia during her usual heavy period. She did not experience any delay in her period and has no other symptoms. She inquires if there is any way to stop the bleeding. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Depot medroxyprogesterone
Correct Answer: Oral norethisterone
Explanation:Norethisterone taken orally is a viable solution for quickly halting heavy menstrual bleeding on a temporary basis.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of more than 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. Prior to the 1990s, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has since shifted.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women, and a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged if symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality. If contraception is not required, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. A flowchart can be used to guide the management of menorrhagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents with post-coital bleeding and an offensive vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for six weeks. She had swabs taken by the practice nurse a week prior to her visit. On examination, an inflamed cervix that bleeds upon touch is noted. She is a gravida 6, para 4, and has never had a cervical smear. She has been sterilized for 10 years and has never used barrier contraception. A high vaginal swab has ruled out Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Advise self referral to STD clinic
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent colposcopy
Explanation:Suspected Cervical Cancer
This patient should be suspected to have cervical cancer until proven otherwise, due to inflammation of the cervix that has been shown to be non-infective and no documented smear history, which puts her at higher risk. Empirical treatment for Chlamydia or gonorrhoea would not usually be suggested in general practice unless the patient has symptoms and signs of PID. Referring to an STD clinic is incorrect, as urgent investigation for cancer is necessary. Referring routinely to gynaecology is an option, but it doesn’t fully take into account the urgency of ruling out cervical cancer. Arranging a smear test for a lady with suspected cervical cancer would be inappropriate, as smear tests do not diagnose cancer, they only assess the likelihood of cancer occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You have a phone consultation scheduled with Mrs. Smith, a 26-year-old woman. She has received a letter inviting her for his first routine cervical screening test. She says that from what she understands from news coverage about the HPV vaccine, cervical cancer is caused by HPV, so she is wondering if she needs to be screened as she has never had sexual intercourse. She says she is willing to come if you still advise it. You take some further history and confirm she has never engaged in any sexual activity.
What would be your advice to her?Your Answer: She should still attend for screening
Correct Answer: Her risk is very low so it would be reasonable to opt-out, but she can still attend if she wishes
Explanation:Women who have never had sex have a very low risk of cervical cancer and can opt out of screening, but remain eligible if they choose to do so. Screening is not recommended unless the woman develops symptoms, and the age range for screening is 25-64.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also reported as normal. However, a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary while the right ovary and uterus appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Check CA125
Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks
Explanation:Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old nulliparous lady is started on continuous HRT 18 months after her last period. Nine months later she starts to get intermittent spotting. Her doctor stops the HRT, wondering if it may be causative, but the spotting is still persisting four weeks later. There is no post-coital bleeding or dyspareunia.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg and BMI is 35 kg/m2. Abdominal and pelvic examination (including the appearance of her cervix) is normal. Her last smear was nine months ago and they have all been normal to date.
There is a family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer and hypertension.
What should be done next?Your Answer: Refer to gynaecology as urgent suspected cancer
Explanation:Suspected Endometrial Cancer in postmenopausal Woman with Abnormal Bleeding
According to the 2015 NICE guidelines, women aged 55 and over with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This includes women who experience unexplained vaginal bleeding more than 12 months after menstruation has stopped due to menopause.
In this case, the patient’s periods stopped 18 months ago, making her postmenopausal. Her recent bleeding episode, along with her nulliparity, obesity, menopause after 52, and family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, all increase her risk for endometrial cancer. Although bleeding can occur when using HRT, the patient began bleeding six months after initiating HRT, and the bleeding persisted four weeks after stopping HRT, making it less likely that the medication is the cause.
Re-initiating HRT would be contraindicated until endometrial cancer is ruled out. While the patient has not experienced post-coital bleeding and has a normal-looking cervix with normal smear results, referral for colposcopy would not be the most appropriate next step. Inserting a Mirena coil may be useful in managing troublesome bleeding associated with HRT, but it would not be appropriate until the patient is investigated for endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant according to her last menstrual period and has been feeling fine until 5 days ago when she started experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort that has been gradually intensifying. What should be avoided during her evaluation?
Your Answer: Examination for cervical motion tenderness
Correct Answer: Examination for an adnexal mass
Explanation:NICE advises against examining an adnexal mass as it may lead to rupture.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Women with ectopic pregnancy typically experience lower abdominal pain, which is often the first symptom. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen. Vaginal bleeding is another common symptom, which is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Women with ectopic pregnancy may also experience dizziness, fainting, or syncope.
During a physical examination, doctors may find abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation, also known as cervical motion tenderness. However, they are advised not to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels above 1,500 suggest an ectopic pregnancy.
In summary, ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Women who experience lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding should seek medical help immediately. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Correct
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You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.
For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.
It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presented to the genitourinary medicine clinic with complaints of vaginal discharge. She had visited her GP a week ago and was prescribed clotrimazole pessaries, but they did not provide any relief. The patient reported no itching but did mention a foul odor, particularly after intercourse. During the examination, a thin white vaginal discharge with a pH of 5.9 was observed, and microscopy revealed Lactobacilli with Gram variable rods. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer: Azithromycin 1 g single dose
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Bacterial vaginosis is a common condition among women of childbearing age. It is characterized by a thin, milky white discharge with a malodorous fishy smell. The discharge is not itchy, but the fishy odor can be detected by adding 10% potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge. The vaginal pH is usually greater than 4.5.
Risk factors for bacterial vaginosis include the use of intrauterine coil devices, vaginal douching, and having multiple sexual partners. If left untreated, bacterial vaginosis can lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases. Some patients may not experience any symptoms, but those who do should seek treatment, especially if they are pregnant.
In the UK, the first line treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days. Alternatively, a single dose of oral metronidazole 2 g may be given if patient adherence is an issue. Azithromycin is used to treat Chlamydia, and ceftriaxone is used to treat gonorrhea.
In the US, the CDC has updated treatment recommendations for bacterial vaginosis. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days is the recommended therapy, with alternatives including several tinidazole regimens or clindamycin (oral or intravaginal). Additional regimens include metronidazole (750 mg extended release tablets once daily for seven days) or a single dose of clindamycin intravaginal cream, although data on the performance of these alternative regimens are limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 11
Correct
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A 48-year-old patient has had two borderline smears done abroad. The last one was six months prior to your appointment today.
On the last smear she had they also did an HPV test and found the presence of HPV 18.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:Importance of HPV Testing in Cervical Cancer Screening
The presence of high-risk HPV strains, such as 16 and 18, increases the likelihood of malignant changes in the cervical transmission zone. Therefore, a borderline change in this area is significant and should prompt a referral for colposcopy. In the past, before HPV testing was available, the advice would have been to repeat the smear test in six months. However, repeating the smear test after five years, as recommended for women over 50 in England, doesn’t take into account the abnormal result. It is important to understand that there is no antiviral treatment for HPV, so the use of aciclovir would be inappropriate. Currently, vaccination for HPV is only given to 12-13-year-old girls. Regular cervical cancer screening, including HPV testing, is crucial for early detection and prevention of cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rubbery 3-cm swelling of the left breast disc. He has no past history of breast disease and is currently undergoing hormone therapy for prostatic cancer. His body mass index is 28 kg/m2. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Carcinoma of the breast
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Gynaecomastia is a common condition characterized by the benign enlargement of male breast tissue. It affects more than 30% of men and can occur at any age, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition presents as a firm or rubbery mass that extends concentrically from the nipples. While usually bilateral, it can also be unilateral.
Gynaecomastia can be classified as physiological or pathological. Physiological gynaecomastia is seen in newborns, adolescents during puberty, and elderly men with low testosterone levels. Pathological causes include lack of testosterone, increased estrogen levels, liver disease, and obesity. Drugs, such as finasteride and spironolactone, can also cause gynaecomastia in adults.
In this scenario, the patient is likely being treated with a gonadorelin analogue for prostate cancer, which can cause side effects similar to orchidectomy. While the patient is overweight, his body mass index doesn’t meet the definition of obesity.
It is important to note that male breast cancer accounts for only 1% of all breast cancer cases. While unilateral swelling may increase the likelihood of breast cancer, other factors such as rapid growth, a hard irregular swelling, or a size greater than 5cm should also be considered.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for gynaecomastia can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and seek appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. On ultrasound examination, ascites is observed. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells (WBC): 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Sodium (Na+): 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L)
- Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
- Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 8 mg/L (normal range: <5 mg/L)
- Hematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48)
What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy
Explanation:Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a result of ovulation induction, as seen in this case with symptoms such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit. Different medications can be used for ovulation induction, with gonadotrophin therapy carrying a higher risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other options like clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. It is likely that the patient in question was given gonadotrophin therapy.
Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories
Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.
There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 72-year-old woman who visits your clinic to inquire about breast cancer screening. She has been receiving regular mammograms, but she recently discovered that the NHS stops screening at 71. Samantha wants to know if she can still receive NHS screening mammograms.
Your Answer: Yes, she will be offered regular ultrasound screening above 70
Correct Answer: Yes, she can self-refer
Explanation:The NHS is extending its breast screening initiative to cover women between the ages of 47 and 73. Women over this age can still undergo screening by making their own arrangements.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy which she has taken since her periods stopped three years ago. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 3 cm simple ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Refer for urodynamics
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing unusual lower back pain for the last couple of months. After an x-ray of her lumbar spine, it was suggested that she may have spinal metastases, but there is no indication of a primary tumor. She was sent for a series of tumor marker tests and referred to an oncologist. Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 15-3?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Breast cancers can be detected by the presence of the tumour marker CA 15-3.
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be present in people without cancer.
Monoclonal antibodies are a type of tumour marker that target specific carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens. Some examples of monoclonal antibodies and their associated cancers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer.
Tumour antigens are another type of tumour marker that are produced by cancer cells. Examples of tumour antigens and their associated cancers include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, S-100 for melanoma and schwannomas, and bombesin for small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, and neuroblastoma.
Understanding tumour markers and their associations with different types of cancer can aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to interpret tumour marker results in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th day of her menstrual cycle. How many more days of contraception does she need?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:No additional contraception is needed if an LNG-IUS or Levonorgestrel-IUS is inserted on day 1-7 of the cycle. However, if it is inserted outside this timeframe, 7 days of additional contraception is required. Since the patient is currently on day 6 of her cycle, there is no need for extra precautions.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had no symptoms, and her breast examination was normal. She mentioned that her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 43. What would be the best course of action for further investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care for early screening
Explanation:If a patient has a family history of Jewish ancestry and breast cancer, they should be referred to secondary care. This is one of the criteria that require early referral, as listed below. However, the current presentation doesn’t require an urgent referral. Although the NHS Screening programme is being extended to begin at 47, this patient has valid reasons to be referred earlier.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.
Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.
While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of left nipple itching that has been going on for 2 weeks. She denies any nipple discharge and has no personal or family history of breast disease. The patient has a history of asthma and eczema.
During the physical examination, the left nipple and surrounding areola are reddened and the skin appears thickened. However, examination of both breasts is otherwise normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic
Explanation:If a patient experiences reddening and thickening of the nipple and areola, it is important to consider the possibility of Paget’s disease of the breast. However, it is also possible that the symptoms are caused by nipple eczema, especially if the patient has a history of atopy and no personal or family history of breast disease. It is important to rule out Paget’s disease, as it typically presents unilaterally and may be accompanied by bloody nipple discharge and an underlying breast lump.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Nipple
Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with an underlying breast cancer. It is present in only 1-2% of patients with breast cancer, but it is important to note that half of these patients have an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of them will have an invasive carcinoma. Even patients without a mass lesion may still have an underlying carcinoma, which is found in 30% of cases. The remaining patients will have carcinoma in situ.
Unlike eczema of the nipple, Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar. Diagnosis is made through a combination of punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment options will depend on the underlying lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for a check-up on her asthma management. Upon reviewing her medical history, you notice that she has never had a Pap smear and bring this to her attention. She discloses that she is a lesbian and has never engaged in sexual activity with a man. What advice should you provide in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should have cervical screening as per normal
Explanation:Lesbian and bisexual women are at risk of contracting HPV, the virus responsible for causing cervical cancer, through genital contact or oral sex. As a result, it is important for them to undergo regular cervical screening. However, the uptake of screening among lesbian women is significantly lower than that of the general female population, often due to misinformation provided by healthcare providers.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents to you with concerns about a lump she discovered in her breast three days ago. She is very conscious of her health and reports performing regular breast self-examinations. Her last menstrual period was four weeks ago, and she is expecting her next period in six days.
Upon examination, she reveals a smooth, soft, and mobile 1 cm lump that feels distinct from the other side. There are no associated lymph nodes, and she has no significant medical or family history.
What is your recommended course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to come back in the first part of her next cycle to re-examine
Explanation:Breast Lumps and Referral to a Breast Clinic
Breast lumps are a common concern among women, and it is important to know when to seek medical attention. If a woman over the age of 30 has a discrete lump that persists after their next period or presents after menopause, referral to a breast clinic should be considered. However, if the lump is of very recent onset and the patient is premenstrual, referral may not be necessary at this stage.
Benign breast lumps tend to be firm or rubbery, often painful, regular or smooth, mobile, and have no nipple or skin signs. On the other hand, malignant lumps are hard, 90% painless, irregular, fixed, and may have skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or bloody discharge.
It is important to note that evening primrose oil is not a treatment for breast lumps, and there is little evidence to suggest it helps with mastalgia. Despite being marketed as a treatment for this condition, it is not a substitute for medical advice and evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old perimenopausal woman presents to the clinic with a range of menopausal symptoms, including vaginal soreness, hot flashes, poor libido, and urinary issues. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (her father). The patient is only interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and refuses to consider other treatments like antidepressants. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haematologist opinion with view to start transdermal HRT
Explanation:According to NICE, women who are at a high risk of developing VTE and are seeking HRT should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even if it is transdermal.
While there is no evidence to suggest that transdermal HRT preparations such as patches or gels increase the risk of VTE, it is recommended to seek specialist advice before starting treatment if there are any risk factors present.
For patients with a high risk of VTE, oral HRT, whether it is combined or oestrogen-only, would be risky. Although per vaginal oestrogen would be a safer option, it would only provide local relief and may not alleviate all of the patient’s symptoms.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to you with concerns about her Depo-Provera injectable contraceptive. She has been experiencing irregular bleeding since starting the contraceptive 4 months ago. This is causing her personal inconvenience and putting a strain on her relationship. She denies any vaginal discharge and is in a stable relationship. She has had regular cervical smears and her last one was normal 2 years ago. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of a short-term combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Unscheduled Bleeding in a Young Lady on Depo-Provera Injection
This patient is a young lady who has been experiencing unscheduled bleeding after being put on the Depo-Provera injection. However, she has no red flag symptoms and is up-to-date with her cervical smears, which provides reassurance to her history. At this stage, blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are not necessary, but may be considered later on. Referral to a gynaecologist is not indicated as there are no alarming symptoms present.
It is important to follow advice from the cervical screening hub regarding cervical smears and not order one sooner than indicated. If any alarming symptoms arise, referral to a gynaecologist is recommended. For women experiencing unscheduled bleeding while on a progesterone-only injectable and who are medically eligible, a combined oral contraceptive can be offered for three months in the usual cyclic manner. The longer-term use of the combined contraceptive pill with the injectable progesterone is a matter of clinical judgement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female presents with complaints of superficial dyspareunia. Her medical history includes treatment for two UTIs in the past six months, an IUS fitted at age 47, and two years of taking the lower dose of oestrogen only HRT for hot flashes. What is the most suitable course of action from the options provided below?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be offered vaginal oestrogen therapy in addition to her oral HRT
Explanation:Topical Oestrogens for Genitourinary Symptoms of Menopause
Topical oestrogens can be used alongside transdermal/oral HRT to treat genitourinary symptoms of menopause. In fact, systemic HRT doesn’t improve these symptoms in 10-15% of women. Topical oestrogens are effective in these cases and can be combined with systemic HRT.
Combined HRT is not better than oestrogen-only therapy for treating genitourinary symptoms, and progestogens are only used for endometrial protection. If a patient already has protection via an IUS, combination therapy would not be beneficial. Topical oestrogen preparations have been shown to improve vaginal symptoms, including vaginal atrophy and pH decrease, and to increase epithelial maturation compared to placebo or non-hormonal gels.
It is important to note that systemic absorption of vaginal oestrogen is very low. Therefore, topical oestrogens work better for genitourinary symptoms of menopause compared to oral HRT and can be used in combination. According to NICE NG23, vaginal oestrogen should be offered to women with urogenital atrophy, including those on systemic HRT, and treatment should continue for as long as needed to relieve symptoms.
If vaginal oestrogen doesn’t relieve symptoms, the dose can be increased after seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in menopause. Women should be informed that symptoms often return when treatment is stopped, but adverse effects from vaginal oestrogen are very rare. They should report any unscheduled vaginal bleeding to their GP. Additionally, moisturisers and lubricants can be used alone or in addition to vaginal oestrogen for vaginal dryness. Routine monitoring of endometrial thickness during treatment for urogenital atrophy is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the possibility of pregnancy after engaging in consensual, unprotected sexual intercourse last night. She is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had taken the morning-after-pill seven days ago after a similar incident. She had stopped taking her combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks ago and was scheduled to have a levonorgestrel intrauterine system inserted next week. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has a height of 180cm and a weight of 74kg (BMI 22.8). What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel at double dose by mouth
Explanation:The correct answer is to double the dose of levonorgestrel to 3 mg by mouth for this patient, as she has a weight of over 70kg, despite having a healthy BMI. This information is based on the BNF guidelines.
Inserting a copper intrauterine device would not be the best option for this patient, as she already has plans for levonorgestrel device insertion and may be using it for additional hormonal benefits, such as reducing the heaviness of her bleeding.
Inserting the levonorgestrel uterine system would not provide the emergency contraception required for this patient, as it takes about 7 days to become effective. Therefore, it is not appropriate in this situation.
The standard dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg would be given to females who weigh less than 70 kg or have a BMI less than 26. However, in this case, it would be inappropriate due to the patient’s weight being over 70kg.
It would be risky to suggest to this patient that she doesn’t need to take another form of emergency contraception, as the initial pill may not have prevented ovulation during this cycle.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old lady presents following an ultrasound pelvis which found a 2cm fibroid. This was an incidental finding and on direct questioning, she reports no menorrhagia, no compressive symptoms and no history of difficulties conceiving. On examination, her abdomen was soft and non tender.
What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in one year
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Fibroids in Women
The absence of menorrhagia is an important point to note in the management of asymptomatic fibroids in women. According to guidelines, annual follow-up to monitor size and growth is recommended for such cases. However, routine referral to a gynaecologist is not required unless there are symptoms that have not improved despite initial treatments, complications, fertility or obstetric problems associated with fibroids, or a suspicion of malignancy. Treatment options for menorrhagia associated with fibroids are available but have no role in the management of small asymptomatic fibroids. NSAIDs and/or tranexamic acid should be stopped if symptoms have not improved within three menstrual cycles. It is important to consider these factors when managing asymptomatic fibroids in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the failure rate of sterilisation for women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 200
Explanation:The failure rate of female sterilisation is 1 in 200.
Understanding Female Sterilisation
Female sterilisation is a common method of permanent contraception for women. It has a low failure rate of 1 per 200 and is usually performed by laparoscopy under general anaesthetic. The procedure is generally done as a day case and involves various techniques such as clips (e.g. Filshie clips), blockage, rings (Falope rings) and salpingectomy. However, there are potential complications such as an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy if sterilisation fails, as well as general risks associated with anaesthesia and laparoscopy.
In the event that a woman wishes to reverse the procedure, the current success rate of female sterilisation reversal is between 50-60%. It is important for women to understand the risks and benefits of female sterilisation before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship and has started having sexual intercourse while using condoms as contraception. She expresses her desire to switch to hormonal contraception and has chosen the combined contraceptive pill, Rigevidon, as she has no contraindications. During the consultation, you discover that she is on day 4 of her menstrual cycle. What guidance do you provide her regarding commencing the pill at this stage of her cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start pill - there is no need for additional contraception
Explanation:To avoid the need for additional barrier contraception, the woman should begin taking the pill immediately as she is currently menstruating and therefore not at risk of pregnancy. The combined contraceptive pill, except for Qlaira and Zoely, can be started within the first five days of a menstrual cycle without requiring further contraception. If started on day six or later, seven days of barrier contraception or abstinence is recommended. Waiting until day eight or the next menstrual period is unnecessary as the starting rules remain the same.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement therapy. How does the use of a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation differ from an oestrogen-only preparation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer
Explanation:To minimize the risk of breast cancer, it is recommended to avoid adding progestogen in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Therefore, women who have had a hysterectomy are usually prescribed oestrogen-only treatment. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), the risk of stroke remains unchanged regardless of whether the HRT preparation includes progesterone.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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