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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?

      Your Answer: Domperidone

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.

      Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management

      Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.

      To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.

      In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past 10 years. He has previously had an H2 receptor antagonist and a proton pump inhibitor with good effect. He occasionally has bought preparations from the pharmacy with good effect. His body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2 and he smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His symptoms have been worse recently and are waking him at night.
      Select from the list the single management option that is likely to be most effective in bringing about a QUICK resolution of his symptoms.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease-Like Symptoms

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is recommended to manage it as uninvestigated dyspepsia, according to NICE guidelines. This is because an endoscopy has not been carried out, and there are no red flag symptoms that require immediate referral for endoscopy.

      The first step in managing GORD-like symptoms is to advise the patient on lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, dietary changes, smoking cessation, and alcohol reduction. These changes may lead to a reduction in symptoms.

      In the short term, a full dose of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for one month is the most effective treatment to bring about a quick resolution of symptoms. If the patient has responded well to PPI in the past, it is likely to be effective again. Testing for H. pylori may also be an option if it has not been done previously.

      After the initial treatment, a low-dose PPI as required may be appropriate for the patient. Other drugs such as H2 receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can also be used in the management of uninvestigated dyspepsia. However, they are not the first choice according to the guidelines and are less likely to be as effective as a PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.

      What is your next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 4 - A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has entered into a new relationship but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship that is plagued by her frequent angry outbursts, indicating borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by rapidly changing intense emotions, difficulties in maintaining relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder is not the correct diagnosis as it involves periods of depression and mania, which are not reported in this case. Dependent personality disorder and histrionic personality disorder are also not applicable as they have different symptoms such as low confidence, difficulty making decisions without support, and a need for attention.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is concerned about her blood sugar levels and seeks advice. What is the target blood sugar level before meals and at other times of the day (excluding mornings)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-7 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Blood glucose targets in individuals with type 1 diabetes:

      Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines

      The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.

      One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.

      When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.

      Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - You see a 5-year-old boy who is brought by his foster parents for...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 5-year-old boy who is brought by his foster parents for review.

      His medical problems include: growth restriction, developmental delay and he has had a ventricular septal defect repaired.

      On examination he has a saddle-shaped nose, hypertelorism, a thin upper lip and absent philtrum.

      Maternal abuse of which of the following during pregnancy has caused this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is a condition that affects children whose mothers consumed alcohol during pregnancy. It is characterized by growth restriction, cardiac abnormalities, and developmental problems. Children with this syndrome also have distinct facial features.

      The typical ‘facies’ of children with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome are easily recognizable and include a small head circumference, a thin upper lip, and a flattened philtrum. These features are a result of the alcohol exposure during fetal development and can have lifelong consequences for the affected child. It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent this condition from occurring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - During a routine insurance medical examination, a GP notices that a 35-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine insurance medical examination, a GP notices that a 35-year-old woman has absent ankle jerks and unequal pupils.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Holmes-Adie Syndrome

      Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that affects the pupil of the eye and the autonomic nervous system. It is characterized by one eye with a larger than normal pupil that constricts slowly in bright light, along with the absence of deep tendon reflexes, usually in the Achilles tendon. The pupil remains small for an abnormally long time after constriction, known as a tonic pupil. This condition is thought to be caused by a viral infection that damages neurons in the ciliary ganglion and the dorsal root ganglion.

      Holmes-Adie syndrome typically begins gradually in one eye and may involve the other eye. Patients may also experience excessive sweating, sometimes only on one side of the body. This condition is most commonly seen in young women. Diagnosis is confirmed by the pupil’s hypersensitivity to weak miotic drops, causing the abnormal pupil to contract vigorously and the normal pupil minimally.

      While this condition tends to be benign, patients are typically observed. The prevalence of Holmes-Adie syndrome is about 2 per 1000. Over time, the pupil sphincter may become fibrosed and the pupil constricted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old man presents with a six day history of paraesthesia in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a six day history of paraesthesia in his hands and feet. He reports that this has been getting steadily worse and he is now finding it difficult to walk. He denies any other symptoms but tells you that a couple of weeks ago he had a two day episode of diarrhoea, since completely resolved. He denies any ongoing bladder or bowel symptoms. He also tells you that he has had a difficult time at home recently as his wife has moved out and asked for a divorce. He denies any excessive alcohol use.

      On examination, he has a slow, unsteady gait, needing to hold onto the furniture as he walks. Examination shows he has 4/5 power in his finger abductors as well as 3/5 in both ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. He reports loss of soft-touch sensation in both feet up to the ankles. Reflexes are normal in the upper limbs but you are unable to elicit either the knee jerk or ankle jerks; plantars are downgoing. Tone is normal throughout.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      The presence of rapidly progressive peripheral neuropathy with hyporeflexia in this man strongly suggests Guillain-Barre syndrome. This condition should be suspected in patients who exhibit symmetrical neurological signs following a diarrhoeal illness, with campylobacter being a common cause.

      While symmetrical paraesthesia may be attributed to anxiety or panic attacks, this man’s objective neurological signs require further investigation.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is unlikely to present with symmetrical peripheral symptoms affecting all four limbs, and upper motor neurone signs would be more prominent.

      Cauda equina syndrome typically presents with lower limb symptoms accompanied by back pain, saddle anaesthesia, and sphincter disturbance.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose him with moderate depression and decide to initiate fluoxetine treatment. According to the latest NICE recommendations, when should you schedule a follow-up appointment with the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 1 week

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that patients who are under 30 years old should be reviewed within one week.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
      What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema. Her patents enquire about the possible role of food allergy in her condition.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a food allergen exacerbating the eczema of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eczema not controlled by optimum management

      Explanation:

      Understanding Food Allergies and Atopic Eczema in Children

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. While it can be managed with proper treatment, some cases may not respond to standard therapies. In these situations, food allergies should be considered as a possible contributing factor. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, children with moderate to severe atopic eczema that has not been controlled with optimum management, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility or failure to thrive, should be evaluated for food allergies.

      Elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) are often associated with atopic eczema and may indicate allergies to food or environmental allergens. However, these allergies may not be directly related to the eczema. While exclusive breastfeeding has been recommended to prevent the development of atopic eczema in susceptible infants, there is no evidence to support this claim.

      Allergy tests, such as prick tests and radioallergosorbent tests (RAST), may be used to identify potential allergens. However, false positives are common in individuals with atopic eczema due to the skin’s excessive sensitivity. If a true allergy is identified and exposure to the allergen worsens the eczema, removing the allergen may improve the condition.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between food allergies and atopic eczema is important for managing this common condition in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help improve symptoms and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over the past six months. She used to be quite active and had no other medical issues, but now she is unable to maintain her previous exercise routine. It takes her several days to recover from fatigue after exercising. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS).
      What is the most likely additional feature that would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a condition characterized by persistent and unexplained fatigue that significantly reduces activity levels and is accompanied by post-exertional malaise. In addition to fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, such as difficulty thinking, concentrating, and remembering, is a common symptom. Low mood may also indicate depression or another mood disorder, which can cause chronic fatigue. Painful lymph nodes without pathological enlargement may occur, but further investigation is needed to rule out other causes of fatigue. Sleep disturbance is also common, and weight loss may suggest an underlying pathology that requires further investigation. It is important to understand these symptoms to properly diagnose and manage CFS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for antibody titres when he fails to respond to amoxicillin. The results are shown below (CFT = complement fixation test).
      Chlamydia psittaci Ab (CFT) 1/10
      Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) phase 2 1/10
      influenza A antibody (CFT) 1/40
      influenza B antibody (CFT) 1/10
      Legionella antibody (CFT) 1/10
      Mycoplasma pneumoniae antibody (CFT) 1/640
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serology Tests for Mycoplasma Pneumonia Infection

      Serology tests are used to detect antibodies in the blood that indicate the presence of an infection. In the case of Mycoplasma pneumonia, a positive result suggests an infection, but a second test is needed several weeks later to confirm this with a falling titre. The result is expressed as a dilution, with a larger denominator indicating a stronger antibody reaction. It’s important to note that antibody levels can remain raised for some time after the acute infection, which may explain the raised result for influenza A. Repeat serology is necessary to detect changing levels.

      To support the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia, serology tests that demonstrate a 4-fold or greater increase or decrease in paired sera titres or a single titre greater than or equal to 1:32 are used. These tests include complement fixation, enzyme-linked immunoassay, and indirect hemagglutination. However, a sputum Gram stain is usually not helpful because M pneumonia lacks a cell wall and cannot be stained. Additionally, the bacteria is difficult to culture, requiring special culture media and up to 21 days to grow.

      In summary, serology tests are an important tool for detecting Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, but a second test and careful interpretation of results are necessary for accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult with asthma who is on low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) but doesn't show improvement after the introduction of a long acting beta agonist (LABA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and increase dose ICS

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidance on Low Dose ICS and LABA Treatment

      According to the 2016 BTS guidance, if a patient taking a low dose ICS doesn’t respond to the addition of a LABA, the LABA should be discontinued. Instead, healthcare providers should consider increasing the dose of ICS. It is important to note that options suggesting only an increase in ICS dose without stopping the LABA are incorrect.

      This guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for patients with respiratory conditions. By carefully monitoring patient response to medication and adjusting treatment as needed, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life. Proper medication management can also help reduce the risk of adverse effects and complications associated with respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:

      - eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
      - HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
      - Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
      - Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
      - Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
      - Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
      - Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results

      Explanation:

      It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.

      Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.

      Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).

      According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been trying to conceive with his wife for the last 12 months without success.

      The results are as follows:

      Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
      pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
      Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
      Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
      Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
      Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
      Normal forms 5% (4% or more)

      His partner is also currently undergoing investigations. You plan on referring him to fertility services.

      What is the appropriate course of action based on these semen analysis results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a semen sample shows abnormalities, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. In cases where there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa (azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml), an immediate recheck may be necessary. Based on World Health Organisation criteria, this man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia with a sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml, thus requiring a confirmatory test after 3 months.

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.

      Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.

      Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites positive
      leucocytes ++
      protein ++
      blood ++.

      You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.

      You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.

      Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.

      When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.

      In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of green-brown nipple discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of green-brown nipple discharge. She reports no other breast changes and is in good health. She has breastfed three children and is not using any hormonal contraception. What is the primary cause of brown-green nipple discharge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duct ectasia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of brown-green nipple discharge is duct ectasia. This condition is often found in women around menopause and is caused by the dilation of the milk duct due to aging. It may or may not be accompanied by a small lump under the nipple.

      While breast cancer can also cause nipple discharge, it is usually bloody and only comes from one nipple. A prolactinoma, a benign pituitary tumor that produces prolactin, can cause bilateral lactation and a cream-colored discharge.

      Fat necrosis of the breast is typically caused by blunt trauma to the breast, resulting in a hard lump, but no nipple discharge. Paget’s disease of the nipple is characterized by a change in the skin of the nipple and areola, but there is usually no associated nipple discharge.

      Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment

      Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge may occur during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, pituitary tumors, mammary duct ectasia, and intraductal papilloma are other possible causes of nipple discharge.

      To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination should be conducted to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass is detected, triple assessment is recommended to evaluate the condition. Reporting of investigations should follow a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation, such as M for mammography, followed by a numerical code indicating the findings.

      For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary. Nipple cytology is generally unhelpful in diagnosing the cause of nipple discharge.

      Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment for patients. Proper evaluation and reporting of investigations can help in identifying any underlying conditions and determining the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally thought to be asthmatic, but his response to treatment has been poor. He does respond to antibiotics, but the courses he has had in the previous 12 months have totalled 2 months. Primary immunodeficiency is suspected.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin assay

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Variable Immunodeficiency: Prevalence, Diagnosis, and Delayed Treatment

      Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is the most prevalent primary antibody deficiency, affecting approximately 1 in 25,000 individuals. However, due to its rarity, only a small fraction of healthcare professionals will encounter a patient with CVID during their career. This, coupled with a delay in diagnosis, increases the risk of irreversible lung damage and bronchiectasis.

      Defects in humoral immunity account for 50% of primary immunodeficiencies, with combined humoral and cellular deficiencies making up 20-30% of cases. Inherited single-gene disorders are the most common cause of primary immune deficiencies. While many of these defects present in infancy and childhood, CVID typically presents after the age of five, with a peak in the second or third decade of life.

      A diagnosis of CVID is based on defective functional antibody formation, accompanied by decreased serum immunoglobulin levels (IgG and IgA), generally decreased serum IgM, and exclusion of other known causes of antibody deficiency. Identifying defective functional antibody formation may involve measuring the response to a vaccine such as the pneumococcal vaccine.

      Overall, understanding the prevalence, diagnosis, and delayed treatment of CVID is crucial in providing appropriate care for individuals with this rare but potentially debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A 10-week-old boy comes for his routine baby check. His parents are curious...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old boy comes for his routine baby check. His parents are curious about what will be evaluated during the check-up.
      What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected as a new finding during this stage (not previously identified at or shortly after birth)? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Routine Six-Week Baby Checks

      Routine six-week baby checks are crucial in identifying potential health issues in newborns. While some conditions may be identified before or just after birth, others may not present symptoms until later in childhood. It is important to note that even a normal cardiac examination at six weeks doesn’t completely rule out congenital heart disease, as it may still manifest later on.

      Congenital hypothyroidism is typically tested for soon after birth in the heel-prick Guthrie test, along with other conditions such as phenylketonuria and cystic fibrosis. Congenital cataracts are usually diagnosed at newborn examination by the identification of absence of the red reflex, and surgery should ideally be performed before two months of age to prevent irreversible amblyopia.

      While a check for developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually carried out at or soon after birth, some late diagnoses still occur. Undescended testicles should also be detected at birth, with surgery indicated if they remain undescended at 12 months.

      In summary, routine six-week baby checks are essential in identifying potential health issues in newborns, including congenital heart disease, congenital hypothyroidism, congenital cataracts, developmental dysplasia of the hip, and undescended testicles. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to remain vigilant in monitoring a child’s health and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her mother to request a referral for an adenotonsillectomy. She has experienced 3 severe episodes of acute tonsillitis in the past year and 4 episodes the year before, resulting in her missing a total of 5 days of school. Despite this, she has been informed that she doesn't meet the criteria for an adenotonsillectomy. What is the reason for her not meeting the referral criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needs 5 or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding 2 years

      Explanation:

      The criteria for adenotonsillectomy in recurrent tonsillitis, as recommended by SIGN, state that a patient should have at least five or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding two years. Jodie, who has had three and four bouts of acute tonsillitis over the past two years, doesn’t meet this minimum requirement.

      Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications

      Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.

      Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
      Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure keratopathy

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements regarding the registration and recording of controlled...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the registration and recording of controlled substances is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised records are acceptable

      Explanation:

      Controlled Drugs: Proper Storage and Register Keeping

      Proper storage and register keeping of controlled drugs (CDs) are crucial in ensuring their safety and preventing misuse. In the surgery, CDs should be stored in a locked cabinet, while those outside of the surgery must be kept in a locked receptacle or doctor’s bag with a lock. Storing CDs in a locked car boot is not acceptable.

      A register must be kept for the supply of Schedule 2 drugs. The register should be bound and each drug should have its own individual section. Entries should be made chronologically in indelible ink, and the following information should be recorded when receiving or supplying CDs: date, name and address of the supplier or person receiving the CD, quantity received or supplied, and name, form, and strength of the drug. The register must be kept for a minimum of 2 years after the date of the last entry.

      For doctor’s bags, a separate CD register should be kept for the CD stock held within that bag. The individual doctor is responsible for the receipt and supply of CDs from their own bag. Computerized records are acceptable as long as they are secure and auditable. Proper storage and register keeping of CDs are essential in ensuring their safe and appropriate use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 26 - Liam is a 6-year-old boy who has been brought to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 6-year-old boy who has been brought to the emergency department by his father. He experienced swelling of his lips and an itchy mouth after eating a peach. Liam is generally healthy, with only mild allergies to pollen and occasional skin irritation.

      During the examination, you observe that Liam's lips are swollen, and there are a few red bumps around his mouth. His chest sounds clear, and his vital signs are normal.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most common symptoms of oral allergy syndrome are itching and tingling of the lips, tongue, and mouth. This condition occurs when the body reacts to proteins in certain foods as if they were pollen due to cross-reacting allergens. While the reaction is localized, it can cause an itchy mouth or throat and sometimes hives. However, there is no evidence of anaphylaxis as there is no wheezing or hypotension.

      While contact dermatitis is a possibility, it typically presents with a rash rather than swelling of the lips and an itchy mouth. The presence of hay fever also makes a diagnosis of oral allergy syndrome more likely. Eczema, on the other hand, presents as dry and red skin rather than swelling and itching of the lips.

      Lastly, hand, foot, and mouth is a viral infection that causes a sore throat and high temperature. It can also cause ulcers in the mouth and blisters on the hands and feet.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 27 - A 62-year-old man is found to have a raised cholesterol level on routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is found to have a raised cholesterol level on routine blood tests. His blood pressure is normal; he is not diabetic, and his QRISK®3 score is 15%. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week.
      What would be the most appropriate management option in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start 20 mg atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Management of High Cholesterol – Dosage and Referral Guidelines

      Explanation:

      When managing high cholesterol, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure appropriate treatment. According to NICE guidelines, lipid-lowering therapy should be offered if the QRISK®3 score is > 10%. For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, a dose of 20 mg atorvastatin is indicated.

      While lifestyle advice is important, drug treatment should be offered to modify cholesterol levels for patients at high risk of atherosclerosis. Referral to the Lipid Clinic is only necessary if the patient has not tolerated three different types of statin or has a family history of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

      For this patient, a higher dose of statins is not necessary as he has not had any episode of arterial disease. Therefore, he should be started on a lower dose of statins, such as 20 mg atorvastatin. If his cholesterol level doesn’t respond, the dose may need to be increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 28 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema on both legs for a two-week treatment with once daily application?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. The cream or ointment should be spread thinly on the affected area, but enough should be used to cover it completely. To determine the appropriate amount, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.

      For example, treating both legs for two weeks requires 14 ftus or 7 g per daily dose. This means that a prescription for 100 g is needed. It is important to know the correct quantity of cream to be prescribed and the volumes used for various parts of the body, as these have been tested in past examinations. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using topical corticosteroids safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen and red first...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen and red first metatarsophalangeal joint on his left foot. He is experiencing significant pain and difficulty walking. He has no history of similar episodes in the past. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking warfarin, metformin, and simvastatin. What is the best course of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking warfarin should steer clear of NSAIDs as it could lead to a dangerous gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Although oral steroids are a viable alternative, they may disrupt diabetic control. While anticoagulation doesn’t prohibit joint injection, it may not be the most desirable option.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks of pregnancy. During the clinic visit, her blood pressure is measured at 154/94 mmHg, which is confirmed by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Reviewing her medical records, it is noted that her blood pressure was 146/88 mmHg four weeks ago. A urine dipstick test shows normal results, and there is no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that the woman already had hypertension before becoming pregnant. Blood pressure issues related to pregnancy, such as pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, typically do not occur until after 20 weeks of gestation. The fact that her ambulatory blood pressure readings were elevated rules out the possibility of her hypertension being caused by anxiety in a medical setting. It is important to consider the possibility of secondary hypertension, as high blood pressure in a woman of this age is not typical.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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