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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest pain, fever and a cough, which he has had for five days. Examination revealed signs of jaundice and the spleen was not big enough to be palpable.
      You take some basic observations:
      Temperature: 38 °C
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      O2 saturation: 86%
      Heart rate: 134 bpm (regular)
      Blood pressure (lying): 134/86 mmHg
      Blood pressure (standing): 132/90 mmHg
      His initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal
      White cell count (WCC) 13.8 × 109/l 4–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 7000 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 2000 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Troponin l 0.01 ng/ml < 0.1 ng/ml
      D-dimer 0.03 μg/ml < 0.05 μg/ml
      Arterial blood gas (ABG) showed type 1 respiratory failure with a normal pH. Chest X-ray showed left lower lobe consolidation.
      The patient was treated successfully and is due for discharge tomorrow.
      Upon speaking to the patient, he reveals that he has suffered two similar episodes this year.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication should the patient be started on to reduce the risk of further episodes?

      Your Answer: Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

      Correct Answer: Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Sickle Cell Disease and Acute Chest Pain Crisis

      A patient with sickle cell disease is experiencing an acute chest pain crisis, likely due to a lower respiratory tract infection. Hydroxycarbamide is recommended as a preventative therapy to reduce the risk of future crises by increasing the amount of fetal hemoglobin and reducing the percentage of red cells with hemoglobin S. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not necessary as the patient has a raised white blood cell count. Inhaled beclomethasone is not appropriate as asthma or COPD are not likely diagnoses in this case. Oral prednisolone may be used as a preventative therapy for severe asthma, but is not recommended for COPD and is not appropriate for this patient’s symptoms. A tuberculosis (TB) vaccination may be considered for primary prevention, but would not be useful for someone who has already been infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      606.9
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  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?

      Your Answer: Gastroenterology Department

      Explanation:

      Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease

      The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 2 months. She has been consuming approximately 20 units of alcohol per week for the past decade. Her blood test reveals the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 126 fl 82–100 fl
      What is the most probable cause of her anaemia based on these blood results?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Causes of Macrocytic and Microcytic Anaemia

      Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood. Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia where the red blood cells are larger than normal, while microcytic anaemia is a type where the red blood cells are smaller than normal. Here are some of the causes of macrocytic and microcytic anaemia:

      Alcohol Excess: Alcohol toxicity can directly affect the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic anaemia. Additionally, alcoholism can cause poor nutrition and vitamin B12 deficiency, which can also lead to macrocytosis.

      Congenital Sideroblastic Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder that produces ringed sideroblasts instead of normal erythrocytes, leading to microcytic anaemia.

      Iron Deficiency: Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia, especially in women. However, it causes microcytic anaemia, not macrocytic anaemia.

      Blood Loss from Menses: Chronic blood loss due to menorrhagia can result in microcytic iron deficiency anaemia. However, this is a physiological process and would not cause macrocytic anaemia.

      Thalassemia: Thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that leads to abnormal or low haemoglobin, resulting in microcytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.

      What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?

      Your Answer: Human placental lactogen

      Correct Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities

      When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?

      Your Answer: FSH

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy

      In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.

      If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.

      It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - Which autoantibody is correctly matched with its associated disease in the following list?...

    Correct

    • Which autoantibody is correctly matched with its associated disease in the following list?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Disorders and Associated Antibodies

      Autoimmune disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. These disorders are often associated with the presence of specific antibodies that can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Here are some examples:

      Pernicious Anaemia and Anti-Intrinsic Factor Antibodies
      Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. It is associated with the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies, which bind to intrinsic factor and prevent the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gut.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis and Anti-Jo-1 Antibodies
      Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the liver. It is associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, but not anti-Jo-1 antibodies, which are associated with other autoimmune disorders like polymyositis and dermatomyositis.

      Myasthenia Gravis and Voltage-Gated Calcium Channel Antibodies
      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It is associated with the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies, but not anti-striated muscle antibodies, which are found in other autoimmune disorders.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA) and Anti-Myeloperoxidase (p-ANCA) Antibody
      GPA is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It is associated with the presence of cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (c-ANCA), but not p-ANCA, which are found in other types of vasculitis.

      Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis and Thyroid-Stimulating Antibodies
      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is associated with the presence of anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies, which attack the thyroid gland and cause inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.8
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  • Question 7 - What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?

      Your Answer: IV infusion of tranexamic acid and a bolus of platelets

      Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%

      Explanation:

      Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options

      When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.

      While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.

      Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.

      Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery...

    Correct

    • A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.

      On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

      When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.

      The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      57.7
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  • Question 9 - A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.

      What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for ITP patients

      Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned having the 'factor V Leiden mutation'. Can you explain the pathophysiology of this mutation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden: A Genetic Condition Affecting Blood Clotting

      Factor V is a protein that acts as a cofactor to allow the generation of an enzyme called thrombin, which is responsible for cleaving fibrinogen to fibrin. This process leads to the formation of a dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. Activated protein C (aPC) is a natural anticoagulant that limits clotting by degrading factor V. However, in individuals with Factor V Leiden, a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the coagulation factor cannot be destroyed by aPC.

      Factor V Leiden is caused by a single nucleotide substitution of adenine for guanine in the gene encoding factor V. This mutation changes the protein’s 506th amino acid from arginine to glutamine, which prevents efficient inactivation of factor V. As a result, factor V remains active, leading to overproduction of thrombin and excess fibrin generation, which in turn causes excess clotting.

      In summary, Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that affects blood clotting by preventing the efficient inactivation of factor V. This leads to excess clotting, which can increase the risk of developing blood clots and related complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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Haematology (4/8) 50%
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