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Question 1
Correct
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A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection. She is currently taking Cerazette (desogestrel). What advice should be given regarding contraception?
Your Answer: There is no need for extra protections
Explanation:Extra precautions are not necessary when taking antibiotics with the progestogen-only pill.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Correct
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The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit
Explanation:Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.
After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has undergone a glucose tolerance test.
The lab findings are as follows:
Fasting glucose 6.9 mmol/L
2-hour glucose 8.5 mmol/L
What would be the best course of action to take next?Your Answer: Dietary advice
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated.
In this scenario, the patient’s fasting glucose level is above 7 mmol/L, indicating the need for immediate insulin therapy (with or without metformin). The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is based on a fasting plasma glucose level of > 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L.
While dietary advice is an essential aspect of diabetes management, it is not sufficient in this case due to the elevated fasting glucose level.
Gliclazide is not a suitable option for gestational diabetes treatment because sulfonylureas are not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.
Metformin may be used in the management of gestational diabetes, but in cases where the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L, insulin is the preferred treatment option. Insulin and metformin can be used together to manage gestational diabetes.
Since both the fasting glucose and 2-hour glucose levels are elevated, there is no need to repeat the test as the diagnosis of gestational diabetes is conclusive.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?
Your Answer: Women over the age of 40 years should use a pill containing at least 35 µg of ethinylestradiol
Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill may help to maintain bone mineral density
Explanation:The use of the combined oral contraceptive pill could potentially alleviate certain symptoms experienced during perimenopause and help preserve bone mineral density.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old lady seeks your advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and wants to protect herself against pregnancy. She is in good health, doesn't experience migraines, and is a non-smoker. Her mother had breast cancer a decade ago, but has since been declared cancer-free. The patient has a confirmed BRCA1 gene mutation. Her BMI is 23 and her blood pressure is 124/82. Based on this information, what form of contraception would you recommend for her?
Your Answer: Cerazette
Correct Answer: Intrauterine copper coil
Explanation:UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraception
The UK medical eligibility criteria for contraception categorizes contraceptive methods into four categories. Category 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for use, while Category 4 indicates that use poses an unacceptable health risk. For patients with a BRCA gene mutation, the combined contraceptive pill has a UK Category rating of 3 and should definitely not be used. All of the other options are rated a UK Category 2, so will still need careful follow-up. The intrauterine copper coil is the only method that is rated a UK Category 1, making it the safest option to use here. There is no restriction on the use of this method for this condition. It is important to consider the UK medical eligibility criteria when choosing a contraceptive method to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is seen in the antenatal clinic for her initial check-up. According to her electronic records, she is identified as a former smoker. In accordance with current NICE recommendations, what is the best approach to evaluate her smoking status?
Your Answer: Use a carbon monoxide detector, explaining that all women are checked regardless of their declared smoking status
Explanation:Could you please tell me if you or anyone in your household smokes? If yes, how many cigarettes do they smoke per day? Additionally, may I examine your fingers for any signs of tar-staining?
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.
Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient
Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.
The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.
Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A teenage girl with epilepsy is interested in taking the oral contraceptive pill. She has been informed that some medications for epilepsy may impact the effectiveness of the pill.
Which anti-epileptic medication triggers liver enzymes and can potentially decrease the potency of the oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:AEDs and their effect on oral contraceptive pill efficacy
The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) that induce cytochrome P450. These drugs can be strong inducers, such as carbamazepine, or weaker inducers, such as topiramate. Phenytoin is a strong enzyme inducer. It should be noted that women using lamotrigine should be advised that seizure frequency may increase when initiating the oral contraceptive pill. Additionally, lamotrigine side effects may increase in the pill-free interval or when discontinuing the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is important to consider the potential effects of AEDs on the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents for contraceptive counseling. She has a history of cystic fibrosis with frequent hospitalizations, and her current FEV1 is 45%. She doesn't smoke, has a normal blood pressure, a BMI of 18 kg/m2, and no personal or family history of VTE. What would be the most effective contraceptive option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system
Explanation:Implications of Unintended Pregnancy and Contraceptive Efficacy
The risk of unintended pregnancy varies among different contraceptive methods. The Progestogen implant has the lowest failure rate at 0.05% in the first year of use, while the COCP has a failure rate of 9%. However, the implications of an unintended pregnancy for an individual patient must be considered when advising on contraception. In this case, the patient’s FEV1 and BMI suggest that the consequences of an unintended pregnancy would be very serious.
Furthermore, while the COCP may not be a suitable option for this patient due to its high failure rate, her potential risk factors for developing VTE should also be taken into account. Despite having a negative personal and family history, normotension, non-smoking status, and BMI <30 kg/m2, her frequent hospital admissions and indwelling intravenous catheters may increase her risk of developing VTE. Therefore, careful consideration is necessary when selecting a contraceptive method for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents with concerns about excessive facial hair growth. Despite switching to co-cyprindiol, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, hirsutism is noted on her moustache, beard, and temple areas. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical eflornithine
Explanation:Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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As the duty doctor at a GP practice, you encounter a 26-year-old woman who is on the desogestrel progesterone only contraceptive pill (POP). She has been suffering from a vomiting bug and has missed taking her pill for four days. However, she is now feeling better and has taken two of her POPs this afternoon. She plans to continue taking them daily from now on. Her last sexual encounter was seven days ago. What guidance should you provide regarding extra contraception?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Additional contraception is needed for 48 hours
Explanation:If a patient misses a progesterone only pill by over 12 hours or a desogestrel pill by over 36 hours, they should take the missed pill as soon as they remember. Only one pill should be taken, even if multiple pills have been missed. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may result in taking two pills in one day. To ensure effectiveness, additional contraceptive precautions such as condoms or abstaining from sex should be taken for 48 hours after restarting the pill. Emergency contraception may be necessary if unprotected sex occurred after the missed pill and within 48 hours of restarting it. The desogestrel pill has the advantage of a longer window for taking it, reducing the likelihood of missed pills.
The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge. Further investigation confirms infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Treatment of C. trachomatis Infection in Pregnancy
C. trachomatis infection is becoming more common in the UK and can lead to adverse fetal outcomes such as spontaneous miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, and intrauterine growth retardation. Therefore, treatment is advised ahead of test results if chlamydia is strongly suspected clinically. Current UK guidelines recommend three different options for pregnant patients: erythromycin, amoxicillin, and azithromycin. However, erythromycin is the most appropriate option as it is the recommended treatment by most guidelines. Doxycycline, co-trimoxazole, and metronidazole are not routinely used in the treatment of chlamydia during pregnancy. It is also important to note that pregnant patients should be tested for cure 5 weeks after completing treatment (or 6 weeks if azithromycin is used).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving birth to her daughter last week. Despite her usual loss of appetite when anxious, she reports eating well. While she was excited about her daughter's arrival during pregnancy, she now experiences frequent unhappiness and irritability. She expresses worry about motherhood and a lack of enthusiasm for it.
What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Mothers experiencing the ‘baby blues’ typically require reassurance, support, and follow-up. This is the correct answer as ‘baby blues’ is a common condition among mothers in the postnatal period, usually starting a week after childbirth and lasting only a few days. It is normal for mothers to feel emotional, anxious, tearful, and low after giving birth due to sudden hormonal changes. Reassurance is usually sufficient to manage this condition.
Cognitive behavioural therapy and starting sertraline are incorrect options as they are suitable for patients with postnatal depression, which tends to start within 1-3 months post-delivery. Symptoms of postnatal depression include those of baby blues, but with additional symptoms such as lack of sleep, appetite changes, anhedonia, and thoughts of hurting themselves and their baby. Symptoms may also come on more gradually and last for a long time. However, in this vignette, the patient only describes feelings related to low mood and anxiety that set in a week after giving birth, making a diagnosis of postnatal depression unlikely.
Referring to psychiatry is also an incorrect option as it is necessary only for severe circumstances where the patient has severe mental health impairment and poses a risk to themselves or others. This vignette suggests that the patient has baby blues, so reassurance would be the most appropriate option.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urge incontinence. She frequently feels the need to use the restroom but often doesn't make it in time and has started wearing incontinence pads during the day. She has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril 5 mg daily. She doesn't drink much water but consumes around 10 cups of tea and coffee per day. What is the best treatment option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrical bladder stimulation
Explanation:Treatment options for urge incontinence
Caffeine reduction is the first recommended therapy for patients with significant urge incontinence and a history of excessive caffeine use. If symptoms persist, bladder training is the next step. For those who do not respond to bladder training, oxybutynin may be effective. In postmenopausal women with significant vaginal atrophy, oestrogen cream may also be tried. However, electrical stimulation is not routinely recommended. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual cases of urge incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks gestation. What potential complication is she more likely to experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios
Explanation:Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy
Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.
Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has been exhibiting erratic behavior and mood swings since giving birth to their daughter 10 days ago. During the appointment, she seems restless and agitated.
According to her partner, she has been avoiding sleep due to her fear that something terrible might happen to their baby. The woman has a history of depression but has not taken her fluoxetine medication for the past 6 months due to concerns about potential complications.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for urgent assessment
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a woman exhibiting symptoms of agitation and paranoid delusions after giving birth is to admit her to the hospital for urgent assessment. This is likely a case of postpartum psychosis, which is different from postnatal depression. Prescribing medication to aid in sleep or reassuring the patient that her low mood will improve with time are not appropriate options in this case. Gradual titration of medication would also not manage her acute symptoms and ensure the safety of herself and her baby. Ideally, she should be admitted to a Mother & Baby Unit for proper care.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is expecting her third child. She has a history of three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries but is currently dealing with gestational diabetes, varicose veins, and renal impairment. She is worried that her medical conditions and previous pregnancies could lead to complications in her current pregnancy. She visits her GP to discuss the potential risks and how they can be managed.
What are the potential complications that this patient may face?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preterm labour
Explanation:Preterm labour is a well-known complication for mothers with diabetes during pregnancy.
Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy
Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.
Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to you seeking contraception. She is eager to begin immediately as she has no desire to conceive. Her last instance of unprotected sexual intercourse was five days ago. She has a history of migraines with aura. After assessment, you determine that the progesterone-only pill would be the most suitable option. What guidance should you provide regarding the commencement of her pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can start contraception straight away, as long as she is aware that there is a possibility of pregnancy
Explanation:Starting Contraception: Important Considerations
When starting contraception, it is important for the clinician to ensure that the woman is likely to continue to be at risk of pregnancy or has expressed a preference to begin contraception immediately. Additionally, the woman should be aware that she may be pregnant and that there are theoretical risks from contraceptive exposure to the fetus, although evidence indicates no harm. It is also important to note that pregnancy can only be excluded once a pregnancy test is negative at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the woman should be advised to carry out a pregnancy test at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse and advised on additional contraception. While a negative pregnancy test is not required before starting contraception, the clinician should be reasonably sure that the woman is not pregnant or at risk of pregnancy. It is important to keep in mind that this practice may be outside the product licence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You encounter a 24-year-old nulliparous woman who wishes to discuss contraception. She has tried various pills over the past few years but has not found one that suits her.
During your discussion of the available options, she expresses a preference for an intrauterine system (IUS) over a copper intrauterine device (IUD) due to concerns about heavier or more painful periods. You provide information on the Mirena®, Jaydess®, and newer Kyleena® IUS options, but she is uncertain which one to choose.
What advice should you offer her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Kyleena® IUS contains more LNG than the Jaydess IUS
Explanation:The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) has a higher amount of levonorgestrel (LNG) compared to the Jaydess IUS. The Mirena IUS has the highest amount of LNG (52mg) and is approved for use for up to 5 years in this age group. On the other hand, the Jaydess IUS has the lowest amount of LNG (13.5mg) and is approved for use for up to 3 years. The Kyleena IUS contains 19.5mg of LNG and is approved for use for up to 5 years, making it a better option than the Jaydess IUS in terms of LNG content. While the Mirena IUS has the highest amount of circulating LNG, it may have a better bleeding profile than the other options. Additionally, the Jaydess and Kyleena IUS are smaller in size and have smaller insertion tubes, which may make them easier to fit.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.
She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.
What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection
Explanation:Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive
In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.
To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.
Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old, Afro-Caribbean woman was offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to screen for gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation. She contacts you to discuss the outcome of her OGTT exam.
What result indicates a diagnosis in accordance with NICE recommendations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A fasting glucose of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose of 7.8 mmol/L
Explanation:To diagnose gestational diabetes, the fasting glucose level should be equal to or greater than 5.6 mmol/L or the 2-hour glucose level should be equal to or greater than 7.8 mmol/L. According to NICE guidance, either of these criteria can be used for OGTT diagnosis. Therefore, the correct diagnosis would be a fasting glucose level of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L. The other options are incorrect as they do not meet the diagnostic threshold, and NICE doesn’t consider 1-hour glucose results in their criteria. It is worth noting that SIGN guidance has different diagnostic criteria.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has a medical history of high cholesterol, asthma, constipation, and hay fever. She is currently taking multiple medications, including atorvastatin, a combination beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler, montelukast, nasal steroids, and lactulose. She seeks guidance on how to manage her regular medication during pregnancy.
What recommendations would you provide to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin but continue her regular medication
Explanation:Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital anomalies and potential impact on fetal development. Atorvastatin, in particular, is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be avoided three months prior to attempting pregnancy. However, lactulose and nasal steroids are considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant individuals with asthma to continue taking their medication to maintain good symptom control.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits the clinic. She began using a combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT) containing oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate her menopausal symptoms half a year ago. She was still experiencing periods when she started HRT.
Today, she seeks advice as she has entered a new relationship after being celibate for the past three years. She inquires about alternative contraceptive methods aside from using condoms. What would be the best answer to provide her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The addition of a progestogen-only pill is the most appropriate method
Explanation:Although the progestogen-only pill can be used in combination with HRT, it cannot serve as the sole progestogen component. Women aged 40 and above can use the combined oral contraceptive pill, which is classified as UKMEC2. For women over 45 years, Depo-Provera is also classified as UKMEC2.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing irregular periods for the past year and has been struggling with bothersome hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness for over 6 months. These symptoms are impacting her daily life and work. She has a history of migraines, asthma, and recently had a suspicious lesion removed from her right arm. She is currently taking inhaled corticosteroids, topiramate, and uses salbutamol and paracetamol as needed. Additionally, she has a mirena coil inserted.
Is hormone replacement therapy (HRT) a suitable option for this patient? What advice should be given regarding HRT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy may make her migraines worse
Explanation:Although HRT is generally considered safe for patients with migraines (with or without aura), it is important to note that in some cases, it may actually worsen migraines. While HRT can improve vasomotor symptoms, it also increases the risk of stroke and breast cancer. However, this doesn’t necessarily mean that HRT should be avoided altogether. Patients should be fully informed of the risks and benefits so that they can make an informed decision. In some cases, a Mirena coil may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, but an estrogen component is still necessary for controlling vasomotor symptoms. Ultimately, while HRT can be prescribed for patients with a history of migraines, it is important to advise them of the potential for worsening migraines.
Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors
Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.
When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.
In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her planned pregnancy, estimated to be at 6 weeks gestation. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her mild asthma is well-controlled with inhaled beclomethasone. The GP recommends taking folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
What would be a reason for prescribing high-dose folic acid for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient's body mass index (BMI)
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI of ≥30 kg/m² should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid to help prevent neural tube defects (NTD) in the first trimester of pregnancy. This is in addition to patients with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD. Folic acid should ideally be started before conception to further reduce the risk of NTD.
However, a history of asthma, smoking, patient age, and Asian ethnicity are not indications for high-dose folic acid prescribing in pregnancy. Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of prematurity, low birth weight, and cleft lip/palate, but there is currently no recommendation for high-dose folic acid prescribing for pregnant smokers. While asthma and extreme maternal age may carry some NTD risk, there is no current recommendation for high-dose folic acid prescribing for these patient groups.
In addition to folic acid, all pregnant patients should take vitamin D 10mcg (400 units) daily throughout their entire pregnancy, according to NICE guidelines.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isotretinoin
Explanation:Acne Medications and Pregnancy: Risks and Precautions
Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, including pregnant women. However, not all acne medications are safe to use during pregnancy. Here are some important things to know about the risks and precautions of using acne medications during pregnancy.
Isotretinoin is a highly effective medication for reducing sebum secretion, but it is also highly teratogenic. Women who take isotretinoin must have a negative pregnancy test before treatment and use effective contraception during and after the course. Congenital deafness and central nervous system and heart defects may occur in children exposed to isotretinoin in utero.
Topical retinoids, such as topical isotretinoin and topical retinoin, have a very low absorption rate through the skin. However, there are some reports of birth defects associated with their use, so women should avoid using them during pregnancy until more data is collected.
Clindamycin, a topical and systemic antibiotic, has no reported adverse effects in pregnancy. Minocycline and oxytetracycline are less effective for acne treatment but are also less teratogenic. However, tetracyclines can stain bones and teeth, so they should be stopped if pregnancy occurs. Erythromycin is a more suitable antibiotic for pregnant women with acne.
In summary, pregnant women with acne should consult with their healthcare provider before using any acne medication. It is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits of each medication and take appropriate precautions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being exposed to a child with Chickenpox, for the second time. She had received VZIG 29 days ago due to being non-immune. What is the appropriate course of action for her now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for second administration of VZIG
Explanation:In the event that a pregnant patient who is not immune is exposed to Chickenpox, it is recommended that she receive VZIG as soon as possible. VZIG can still be effective if administered within 10 days of contact, with the definition of continuous exposure being 10 days from the appearance of the rash in the initial case. If there is another exposure reported and at least 3 weeks have passed since the last dose, a second dose of VZIG may be necessary.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old patient who had a baby 10 weeks ago. She is feeling tearful and anxious most days and has been struggling with low mood for 6 weeks. She is extremely tired and is finding it difficult to leave the house to do anything, doesn't find pleasure in anything at the moment. The baby is growing well but she says she is struggling to bond with the baby. She is able to take care of the baby and doesn't feel she would ever harm him. She has never experienced low mood before and is otherwise healthy.
Discuss postnatal depression with the patient and develop a treatment plan.
Which statement below regarding postnatal depression is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 10% of women experience postnatal depression
Explanation:Postnatal depression affects approximately 1 in 7 women and its symptoms and effects are just as severe as depression at other times. While hormonal changes may contribute to postnatal depression, it is not the sole cause. Women who are breastfeeding can safely take most tricyclic antidepressants, except for doxepin, as long as their infant is healthy and being monitored. However, the use of St John’s wort is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers with depression.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice on contraceptive options postpartum. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and doesn't intend to breastfeed.
At what point after delivery could she begin using the contraceptive implant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediately following childbirth
Explanation:It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth, even immediately. However, the manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK recommends waiting at least 4 weeks after childbirth for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It is important to note that fertility may not return until after the implant is removed.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week. She has no other medical conditions. This is her first pregnancy and she is 10-weeks pregnant.
During the booking appointment, the midwife sent a mid-stream urine sample to screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria. The patient denied experiencing any urinary symptoms. The culture results showed that she is positive for Escherichia Coli, which is sensitive to nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. A repeat sample confirmed the findings.
Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:It is important to screen pregnant women for bacteriuria as untreated cases may lead to acute pyelonephritis. Therefore, taking no action based on urine results is inappropriate. Trimethoprim is not recommended in the first trimester due to its teratogenic risk, so nitrofurantoin is a better option. Local prescribing guidelines should always be followed. If group B streptococcal bacteriuria is detected, antenatal services must be informed as prophylactic intrapartum antibiotics will be necessary.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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